概要信息：

8 Practice Tests for the
New SAT®
2015
By the Staff of Kaplan Test Prep and Admissions
SAT  is a registered trademark of the College Board, which neither
sponsors nor endorses this product.
®
2
3
Table of Contents
8 Practice Tests for the SAT
Cover
Title Page
Practice Makes Perfect
Practice Tests
SAT Practice Test 1
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 2
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
4
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 3
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 4
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 5
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
5
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 6
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 7
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
6
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
SAT Practice Test 8
Answer Sheet
Reading Test
Writing and Language Test
Math Test: No-Calculator Section
Math Test: Calculator Section
Essay Test
Reading Test: Answer Key
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and
Explanations
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations
About This Book
Copyright Information
7
Practice Makes Perfect
Do not be scared of the New SAT. Why? Because we know what’s on the
exam, and we know exactly how you should prepare for it. Kaplan has been
teaching kids how to succeed on the SAT for more than 75 years—longer
than anyone else, period.
This book contains 8 practice exams that mirror the New SAT you will face
on Test Day—more SAT practice than can be found between the covers of
any other book. Practice is one of the keys to mastery, and these 8 exams
give you plenty of practice to assess your strengths and weaknesses before
you take the real thing.
Just as important as taking practice tests is understanding why you got a
question right or wrong when you’re done. The detailed answers and
explanations that follow each practice test tell you not only the correct
answers but why they are correct and why the wrong answers are not the
best choices. In addition, every answer explanation lets you know the
difficulty level of each question. If you’re missing a lot of “Low” difficulty
questions, you might need to do some extra review. If you are acing many of
the “High” difficulty questions, you’re on the right track. And finally, every
8
math answer explanation includes “Strategic Advice,” so you will start to
learn some of the ways you can attack similar questions on Test Day.
Every practice question and answer explanation in this book is geared
toward one thing—getting you more points on the actual SAT. So don’t
stress out over the New SAT—Kaplan’s got you covered.
HOW TO USE THIS BOOK
This book is filled with over 1,200 practice questions to help you master the
New SAT. Follow these steps to get the most out of these 8 practice tests:
Read about the New SAT structure in the next section. This way, you’ll
know what to expect—not only as you work through the book but, more
importantly, on Test Day.
Begin your practice! Buying this book has given you an advantage—after
you’ve worked your way through the exams, the format and timing of the
New SAT will be second nature to you. All you will have to concentrate
on is improving your skills in the areas that need work.
Assess your strengths and weaknesses. After you finish each test, carefully
read the detailed explanations—pay attention to the questions you got
9
After making your way through these steps, we guarantee that you will have
the test expertise and improved skills to tackle the New SAT with
confidence.
HOW THE NEW SAT IS STRUCTURED
The New SAT is 3 hours long, and 3 hours and 50 minutes if you take the
optional Essay. It’s primarily a multiple-choice exam, with an optional
written essay and some grid-in math questions as the exceptions. It’s
divided into five sections: one Evidence-Based Reading, one Writing &
Language, one Math with a calculator, one Math without a calculator, and
one optional Essay.
wrong, but don’t forget to read about the ones you got right. It’s important
to note your areas of strength as well as weakness. Take your own personal
inventory of the skills you’ve mastered and the skills you need to work on.
Watch your scores improve! After you’ve made your way halfway through
the book, compare your scores on Test 1 and Test 4. You’ve made
progress, haven’t you? See if your strengths and weaknesses have changed.
Then work your way through the remaining tests, building skills and New
SAT competency along the way.
10
Here is a breakdown of the test:
Structure of the New SAT
Test Content Timing Questions
Evidence-
Based
Reading
and
Writing
Reading
Test
3,250 words total from 4
single passages and 1
paired set; 500-750
words per passage or
paired set drawing from
U.S. and World
Literature, History/Social
Studies, and Science.
Two passages will include
one or two informational
graphics.
65
minutes
52
multiple-
choice
questions
(10-11 per
passage or
passage
set)
Writing
and
Language
Test
1,700 words total from 4
passages of 400-450
words each, drawing
from Careers,
History/Social Studies,
Humanities, or Science.
35
minutes
44
multiple-
choice
questions
(11
questions
11
 1-2 passages will be
Argumentative, 1-2
passages will be
Informative/Explanatory,
and 1 passage will be a
Nonfiction Narrative.
per
passage)
Math Calculator
Section
Questions are drawn
from the Heart of
Algebra, Problem Solving
and Data Analysis,
Passport to Advanced
Math, and Additional
Topics in Math content
areas. 
55
minutes
30
multiple-
choice
questions
+ 6
student-
produced
response
questions
+ 2
extended-
thinking
questions
= 38 total
questions
No-
Calculator
Questions draw from the
Heart of Algebra,
25
minutes
15
multiple-
12
Section Passport to Advanced
Math, and Additional
Topics in Math content
areas. No Problem
Solving or Data Analysis
questions.
choice
questions
+ 5
student-
produced
response
questions
= 20 total
questions
Essay (optional) You will be asked to
analyze a 650-750 word
document and draft an
essay. This essay
question tests reading,
analysis, and writing
skills, and requires you to
analyze a source
document and explain
how the author builds an
argument.
50
minutes
1 prompt
13
HOW THE NEW SAT IS SCORED
You gain one point for every question you answer correctly; you lose no
points for answering a question wrong OR for leaving a question blank.
This means you should ALWAYS answer EVERY question on the New SAT
—even if you have to guess.
SAT TEST DATES
As a general rule, it’s important to get one SAT score under your belt by the
end of your junior year. This way, you know where you stand as you plan
your college choices. Plus, it’s likely that you’ll improve your score by
taking the exam again, because it will be familiar to you.
The SAT is administered on select Saturdays during the school year. Sunday
testing is available for students who cannot take the Saturday test because of
religious observances. The SAT exam is offered in January, March, May,
June, October, November, and December of each year. Check the official
College Board website at www.collegeboard.com  for the most up-to-
date test dates.
NEW SAT REGISTRATION
14
Check the College Board website at www.collegeboard.com  for
complete information about registering for the New SAT. Here are some
important highlights:
To register for the New SAT by mail, you’ll need to get an SAT Paper
Registration Guide from your high school guidance counselor.
You can register online at http://sat.collegeboard.com/register .
Important: Not all students are eligible to register online, so read the
instructions and requirements carefully.
Register early to secure the time you want at the test center of your
choice and to avoid late registration fees.
Students with disabilities can go to
http://student.collegeboard.org/services-for-students-with-disabilities
to read about how to apply for accommodations or call (609) 771-7137
(TTY: (609) 882-4118) for more information.
At press time, the College Board had not published the fee for the New
SAT, but has said that the fee for the test with the new essay will be close
to the current SAT fee of $52.50 in the United States. This price includes
reports for you, your high school, and up to four colleges and scholarship
programs. To get the most up-to-date information, please
check https://sat.collegeboard.org/register/us-services-fees.
You will receive an admission ticket at least a week before the test. The
ticket confirms your registration on a specified date, at a specified test
center. Make sure to bring this, along with proper identification, to the
15
Start your practice!
ESSAY SCORING CHART
Score Reading Analysis Writing
4 demonstrates
thorough
comprehension
offers an insightful
analysis of the source
text and demonstrates a
is cohesive and
demonstrates a
highly effective use
test center. Some acceptable forms of identification include photo IDs
such as a driver’s license, a school identification card, or a valid
passport. (Unacceptable forms of identification include a Social Security
card, credit card, or birth certificate.)
Your SAT scores will be available online approximately three weeks
after the test. There will be a scoring delay, however, for the first
administration of the New SAT in March 2016.
Remember to check with the College Board for all the latest information
on the New SAT. Every effort has been made to keep the information in
this book as up-to-date as possible, but changes may occur after the book
is published.
Finally, bookmark the College Board’s website:
www.collegeboard.com .
16
of the source
text
shows an
understanding
of the text’s
central idea(s)
and most
important
details and how
they interrelate
is free of errors
of fact or
interpretation
with regard to
the text
makes skillful
use of textual
evidence
sophisticated
understanding of the
analytical task
offers a thorough, well-
considered evaluation of
the author’s use of
evidence, reasoning,
and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements,
and/or feature(s) of the
student’s own choosing
contains relevant,
sufficient, and
strategically chosen
support for claim(s) or
point(s) made
focuses consistently on
those features of the
text that are most
relevant to addressing
the task
and command of
language includes a
precise central claim
includes a skillful
introduction and
conclusion;
demonstrates a
deliberate and highly
effective progression
of ideas both within
paragraphs and
throughout the essay
has a wide variety of
sentence structures;
demonstrates a
consistent use of
precise word choice;
maintains a formal
style and objective
tone
shows a strong
command of the
conventions of
standard written
17
English and is free or
virtually free of errors
3 demonstrates
effective
comprehension
of the source
text
shows an
understanding
of the text’s
central idea(s)
and important
details
is free of
substantive
errors of fact
and
interpretation
with regard to
the text
makes
appropriate use
of textual
offers an effective
analysis of the source
text and demonstrates
an understanding of
the analytical task
competently evaluates
the author’s use of
evidence, reasoning,
and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements,
and/or feature(s) of the
student’s own choosing
contains relevant and
sufficient support for
claim(s) or point(s)
made
focuses primarily on
those features of the
text that are most
relevant to addressing
the task
is mostly cohesive
and demonstrates
effective use and
control of language
includes a central
claim or implicit
controlling idea
includes an effective
introduction and
conclusion;
demonstrates a clear
progression of ideas
both within
paragraphs and
throughout the essay
has variety in
sentence structures;
demonstrates some
precise word choice;
maintains a formal
style and objective
18
evidence tone
shows a good control
of the conventions of
standard written
English and is free of
significant errors that
detract from the
quality of writing
2 demonstrates
some
comprehension
of the source
text
shows an
understanding
of the text’s
central idea(s)
but not of
important
details
may contain
errors of fact
offers limited analysis
of the source text and
demonstrates only
partial understanding
of the analytical task
identifies and attempts
to describe the author’s
use of evidence,
reasoning, and/or
stylistic and persuasive
elements, and/or
feature(s) of the
student’s own choosing,
but merely asserts
demonstrates little or
no cohesion and
limited skill in the
use and control of
language
may lack a clear
central claim or
controlling idea or
may deviate from the
claim or idea
may include an
ineffective
introduction and/or
conclusion; may
19
and/or
interpretation
with regard to
the text
makes limited
and/or
haphazard use
of textual
evidence
rather than explains
their importance
one or more aspects of
analysis are
unwarranted based on
the text
contains little or not
support for claim(s) or
point(s) made
may lack a clear focus
on those features of the
text that are most
relevant to addressing
the task
demonstrate some
progression of ideas
within paragraphs but
not throughout
has limited variety in
sentence structures;
sentence structures
may be repetitive;
demonstrates general
or vague word
choice; word choice
may be repetitive;
may deviate
noticeably from a
formal style and
objective tone
shows a limited
control of the
conventions of
standard written
English and contains
errors that detract
from the quality of
writing and may
20
impede understanding
1 demonstrates
little or no
comprehension
of the source
text
fails to show an
understanding
of the text’s
central idea(s),
and may include
only details
without
reference to
central idea(s)
may contain
numerous errors
of fact and/or
interpretation
with regard to
the text
makes little or
no use of
offers little or no
analysis or ineffective
analysis of the source
text and demonstrates
little to no
understanding of the
analytical task
identifies without
explanation some
aspects of the author’s
use of evidence,
reasoning, and/or
stylistic and persuasive
elements, and/or
feature(s) of the
student’s own choosing
numerous aspects of
analysis are
unwarranted based on
the text
contains little or no
support for claim(s) or
demonstrates little or
no cohesion and
inadequate skill in
the use and control of
language
may lack a clear
central claim or
controlling idea
lacks a recognizable
introduction and
conclusion; does not
have a discernible
progression of ideas
lacks variety in
sentence structures;
sentence structures
may be repetitive;
demonstrates general
and vague word
choice; word choice
may be poor or
inaccurate; may lack
21
textual evidence point(s) made, or
support is largely
irrelevant
may not focus on
features of the text that
are relevant to
addressing the task
offers no discernible
analysis (e.g., is largely
or exclusively
summary)
a formal style and
objective tone
shows a weak control
of the conventions of
standard written
English and may
contain numerous
errors that undermine
the quality of writing
CONVERT YOUR RAW SCORE TO A
SCALED SCORE
For each subject area in the practice test, convert your raw score to a scaled
score using the table below.
Evidence-based Reading and Writing Math
TOTAL Raw Score Scaled Score Raw Score Scaled Score
22
0 200 0 200
1 200 1 220
2 210 2 240
3 220 3 260
4 240 4 290
5 260 5 310
6 270 6 320
7 270 7 330
8 290 8 340
9 290 9 360
10 300 10 370
11 300 11 380
12 310 12 390
13 320 13 400
23
14 320 14 410
15 330 15 420
16 330 16 430
17 340 17 430
18 340 18 440
19 350 19 450
20 350 20 450
21 360 21 460
22 360 22 470
23 370 23 480
24 370 24 490
25 370 25 500
26 380 26 510
27 380 27 520
24
28 380 28 530
29 380 29 540
30 390 30 540
31 390 31 550
32 400 32 560
33 400 33 560
34 410 34 570
35 410 35 580
36 420 36 590
37 430 37 600
38 430 38 600
39 440 39 610
40 440 40 620
41 450 41 630
25
42 450 42 640
43 460 43 640
44 460 44 660
45 470 45 670
46 480 46 670
47 480 47 680
48 490 48 690
49 490 49 700
50 500 50 710
51 500 51 720
52 510 52 740
53 510 53 750
54 520 54 760
55 520 55 770
26
56 530 56 780
57 530 57 790
58 540 58 800
59 540
60 550
61 550
62 560
63 560
64 570
65 570
66 580
67 580
68 590
69 590
27
70 600
71 600
72 610
73 610
74 610
75 620
76 620
77 630
78 630
79 640
80 640
81 660
82 660
83 670
28
84 680
85 690
86 700
87 700
88 710
89 710
90 730
91 740
92 750
93 760
94 780
95 790
96 800
29
SCORE TRACKER
30
SAT Practice Test 1 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
31
32
33
34
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
A Study in Scarlet
35
This passage is adapted from A Study in Scarlet, Sir Arthur Conan
Doyle’s first story in his acclaimed Sherlock Holmes series. In this
excerpt the narrator, Dr. Watson, observes Mr. Holmes, with whom he has
recently entered into a shared housing arrangement, although he knows
very little about this new roommate as of yet.
As the weeks went by, my interest in him and my
curiosity as to his aims in life gradually deepened
and increased. His very person and appearance
were such as to strike the attention of the most
casual observer. In height he was rather over six(5)
feet, and so excessively lean that he seemed to be
considerably taller. His eyes were sharp and pierc-
ing, save during those intervals of torpor to which I
have alluded; and his thin, hawk-like nose gave his
whole expression an air of alertness and decision.(10)
His chin, too, had the prominence and squareness
which mark the man of determination. His hands
were invariably blotted with ink and stained with
chemicals, yet he was possessed of extraordinary
delicacy of touch, as I frequently had occasion to(15)
observe when I watched him manipulating his
fragile philosophical instruments.…
He was not studying medicine. He had him-
self, in reply to a question, confirmed Stamford’s1
36
opinion upon that point. Neither did he appear to(20)
have pursued any course of reading which might fit
him for a degree in science or any other recognized
portal which would give him an entrance into the
learned world. Yet his zeal for certain studies was
remarkable, and within eccentric limits his knowl-(25)
edge was so extraordinarily ample and minute that
his observations have fairly astounded me. Surely
no man would work so hard or attain such precise
information unless he had some definite end in
view. Desultory readers are seldom remarkable for(30)
the exactness of their learning. No man burdens his
mind with small matters unless he has some very
good reason for doing so.
His ignorance was as remarkable as his knowledge.
Of contemporary literature, philosophy and politics(35)
he appeared to know next to nothing. Upon my quot-
ing Thomas Carlyle,  he inquired in the naïvest way2
who he might be and what he had done. My surprise
reached a climax, however, when I found incidentally
that he was ignorant of the Copernican Theory and(40)
of the composition of the solar system. That any civi-
lized human being in this nineteenth century should
not be aware that the earth travelled round the sun
appeared to be to me such an extraordinary fact that I
37
could hardly realize it.(45)
“You appear to be astonished,” he said, smiling at
my expression of surprise. “Now that I do know it
I shall do my best to forget it.”
“To forget it!”
“You see,” he explained, “I consider that a man’s(50)
brain originally is like a little empty attic, and you
have to stock it with such furniture as you choose.
A fool takes in all the lumber of every sort that he
comes across, so that the knowledge which might
be useful to him gets crowded out, or at best is(55)
jumbled up with a lot of other things so that he
has a difficulty in laying his hands upon it. Now
the skillful workman is very careful indeed as to
what he takes into his brain-attic. He will have
nothing but the tools which may help him in doing(60)
his work, but of these he has a large assortment,
and all in the most perfect order. It is a mistake to
think that that little room has elastic walls and can
distend to any extent. Depend upon it there comes
a time when for every addition of knowledge you(65)
forget something that you knew before. It is of the
highest importance, therefore, not to have useless
facts elbowing out the useful ones.”
“But the solar system!” I protested.
38
Stamford is the mutual acquaintance who introduced Dr. Watson to Mr. Holmes. In a previous scene
he told Watson that Holmes was not a medical student.
Thomas Carlyle was an influential writer and philosopher whose work was well known at the time
of this novel’s publication.
“What the deuce is it to me?”(70)
1
2
1. According to the passage, as time passes, Watson finds Holmes
increasingly intriguing.(A)
frequently irritating.(B)
somewhat snobby.(C)
occasionally generous.(D)
2. As used in line 5, “casual” most nearly means
careless.(A)
comfortable.(B)
relaxed.(C)
occasional.(D)
3. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of Holmes?
39
He tried, but failed, to become a doctor.(A)
He was an excellent student at the ​university.(B)
He studies things he is passionate about.(C)
He is considered an expert in philosophy.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 12-17 (“His hands were … instruments”)(A)
Lines 18-20 (“He was not … that point”)(B)
Lines 24-27 (“Yet his … astounded me”)(C)
Lines 27-30 (“Surely no man … in view”)(D)
5. What central idea does the passage communicate about Sherlock
Holmes?
He is very secretive and hard to understand.(A)
He is an excellent companion to Watson.(B)
He is highly regarded by his peers.(C)
He is an unusual and extraordinary man.(D)
40
6. The passage most strongly suggests that Holmes believes which of the
following about learning?
People should study broadly to know something about everything.(A)
Philosophy is not a valid field of study to pursue.(B)
The brain is limited in capacity, so you should prioritize what you
learn.
(C)
Studying the solar system is unimportant.(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Line 34 (“His ignorance … his knowledge”)(A)
Lines 35-36 (“Of contemporary … nothing”)(B)
Lines 41-45 (“That any … realize it”)(C)
Lines 66-68 (“It is of the … ones”)(D)
8. As used in line 8, “torpor” most nearly means
41
agitation.(A)
sluggishness.(B)
alertness.(C)
illness.(D)
9. The comparison of the brain to an “attic” is used to
demonstrate Holmes’s unique views on how a person should make
use of knowledge.
(A)
illustrate Watson’s combative nature.(B)
provide an alternate explanation for why Holmes doesn’t know
about Copernicus.
(C)
resolve the conflict between Watson and Holmes.(D)
10. The decision to tell the story from Watson’s point of view suggests that
the author
wants the reader to dislike Holmes.(A)
needed a sympathetic narrator.(B)
will focus the rest of the story on Watson’s actions.(C)
hopes the reader will share Watson’s curiosity about Holmes.(D)
42
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Woodrow Wilson Speech
This passage is adapted from a speech given by President Woodrow
Wilson to Congress on January 8, 1918. Here Wilson proposes a 14-point
program for world peace. These 14 points became the basis for peace
negotiations at the end of World War I.
It will be our wish and purpose that the processes
of peace, when they are begun, shall be absolutely
open and that they shall involve and permit hence-
forth no secret understandings of any kind.
The day of conquest and aggrandizement is gone(5)
by; so is also the day of secret covenants entered
into in the interest of particular governments and
likely at some unlooked-for moment to upset the
peace of the world. It is this happy fact, now clear
to the view of every public man whose thoughts(10)
do not still linger in an age that is dead and gone,
which makes it possible for every nation whose
purposes are consistent with justice and the peace
of the world to avow now or at any other time the
objects it has in view.(15)
43
We entered this war because violations of right
had occurred which touched us to the quick and
made the life of our own people impossible unless
they were corrected.… What we demand in this
war, therefore, is nothing peculiar to ourselves. It(20)
is that the world be made fit and safe to live in; and
particularly that it be made safe for every peace-
loving nation which, like our own, wishes to live its
own life, determine its own institutions, be assured
of justice and fair dealing by the other peoples of(25)
the world.… The programme of the world’s peace,
therefore, is our programme; and that programme,
the only possible programme, as we see it, is this:
  I.   Open covenants of peace … with no private
international understandings of any kind but(30)
diplomacy shall proceed always frankly and
in the public view.
II.   Absolute freedom of navigation upon the
seas … alike in peace and in war, except as
the seas may be closed in whole or in part by(35)
international action for the enforcement of
international covenants.
III.  The removal, so far as possible, of all
economic barriers and the establishment of
an equality of trade conditions among all the(40)
44
nations consenting.…
IV.  Adequate guarantees given and taken that
national armaments will be reduced to the
lowest point consistent with domestic safety.
V.    A free, open-minded, and absolutely impar-(45)
tial adjustment of all colonial claims.…
VI. The evacuation of all Russian territory and
such a settlement of all questions affecting
Russia as will secure the best and freest coop-
eration of the other nations of the world.(50)
VII. Belgium … must be evacuated and restored,
without any attempt to limit the sovereignty
which she enjoys in common with all other
free nations.…
VIII. All French territory should be freed and the(55)
invaded portions restored.…
IX.  A readjustment of the frontiers of Italy
should be effected along clearly recognizable
lines of nationality.
X.  The peoples of Austria-Hungary … should(60)
be accorded the freest opportunity to autono-
mous development.
XI.  Rumania, Serbia, and Montenegro should be
evacuated; occupied territories restored; and
Serbia accorded free and secure access to(65)
45
the sea.…
XII. The Turkish portion of the present Ottoman
Empire should be assured a secure sover-
eignty, but the other nationalities which are
now under Turkish rule should be assured an(70)
undoubted security of life.…
XIII. An independent Polish state should be
erected which should include the territories
inhabited by indisputably Polish populations.
… [The state] should be assured a free and(75)
secure access to the sea.…
XIV. A general association of nations must be
formed under specific covenants for the
purpose of affording mutual guarantees of
political independence and territorial integ-(80)
rity to great and small states alike.
11. Based on the introductory paragraphs, which choice best identifies
Wilson’s purpose in making this speech?
To build an international military and political alliance(A)
To declare the sovereignty and independence of the United States(B)
To outline ways to maintain peaceful relations in the world(C)
To reform governments in aggressor nations bent on conquest(D)
46
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 3-4 (“they shall involve … kind”)(A)
Lines 5-6 (“The day of … is gone by”)(B)
Lines 16-17 (“We entered … occurred”)(C)
Lines 26-27 (“The programme … is our programme”)(D)
13. As used in line 31, “frankly” most nearly means
in an honest manner.(A)
in a blunt manner.(B)
in an unguarded manner.(C)
in an outspoken manner.(D)
14. Based on the passage, it can be reasonably inferred that in the past,
the United States avoided alliances.(A)
some nations formed private pacts with one another.(B)
wars usually involved only two nations.(C)
the borders of France and Italy were not well-defined.(D)
47
15. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-4 (“It will be … of any kind”)(A)
Lines 16-19 (“We entered … corrected”)(B)
Lines 55-59 (“All French … of nationality”)(C)
Lines 77-81 (“A general … states alike”)(D)
16. As used in line 13, “consistent” most nearly means
dependable.(A)
continuing.(B)
agreeable.(C)
coherent.(D)
17. In lines 45-46 (“A free … colonial claims”), Wilson argues that to
preserve peace, nations must
engage in free, open, and fair trade with colonies.(A)
give up all aspirations for territorial and economic expansion.(B)
provide constitutional protections for colonies.(C)
work to resolve conflicts originating from imperial conquests.(D)
48
18. Points VI through VIII serve as evidence to support which claim made
by Wilson throughout the speech?
Democratic nations ought to sign pacts of economic and political
cooperation.
(A)
During the war, aggressors damaged property that they should repair
and restore.
(B)
In the past, nations violated one another’s territorial sovereignty.(C)
Former colonies are entitled to establish free and democratic
governments.
(D)
19. Which of the following approaches to international relations is most
similar to Wilson’s approach?
Economic sanctions against ideological enemies(A)
Joint efforts to mediate conflict among nations(B)
Nongovernmental organizations to regulate trade(C)
Unilateral military action against unfriendly regimes(D)
20. The main flow of Wilson’s argument can be described as
49
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passages and
supplementary material.
Paired Passages—Meditation
Passage 1
a statement and restatement of the argument.(A)
a statement of the argument followed by specific examples.(B)
initial claims followed by counterclaims.(C)
specific examples leading to a concluding argument.(D)
Meditation has been around for thousands of
years, starting as a religious practice. Hindu scripture
from around 1500 BCE describes meditating on the
divine, and art from this time period shows people
sitting cross-legged and solitary in a garden. In China(5)
and India around the fifth century BCE, other forms
of meditation developed. Several religions, including
Taoism, Buddhism, Islam, and Christianity, had
meditative rites. In 20th-century Europe and
America, secular forms of meditation arrived from(10)
India. Rather than focusing on spiritual growth,
50
secular meditation emphasizes stress reduction,
relaxation, and self-improvement.
Although it still isn’t exactly mainstream, many
people practice meditation. Mindfulness medit-(15)
ation, in particular, has become more popular in
recent years. The practice involves sitting comfort-
ably, focusing on one’s breathing, and bringing the
mind’s attention to the present. Concerns about
the past or future are let go of. An individual can(20)
picture worries popping like a bubble or flitting
away like a butterfly.
Mindfulness is about increasing awareness and
practicing acceptance. To be present is to have
sharpened attention, or to be in a state of height-(25)
ened consciousness. Practitioners of mindfulness
report having a better quality of experience, deeper
engagement, and greater measure of fulfillment.
There are also health benefits. According to the
Mayo Clinic, “Meditation can give you a sense(30)
of calm, peace and balance that benefits your
emotional well-being.” Among the emotional ben-
efits are reducing negative emotions, increased
self-awareness, and stress management skills.
Asthma, depression, and sleep disorders are all(35)
conditions worsened by stress. Several studies have
51
Passage 2
shown that patients with these conditions benefit
from meditation.
Dr. Robert Schneider, director of the Institute
for Natural Medicine and Prevention, says, “I have(40)
been researching effects of meditation on health
for thirty years and have found it has compelling
benefits. The benefits of meditation are coming to
be widely accepted by health professionals, business
leaders and the media. It is now time for the(45)
medical profession to catch up.”
In 2008, hoping to relax from his stressful job,
Congressman Tim Ryan took a weekend retreat
where he first practiced mindfulness meditation.
“I came out of it,” he says, “with a whole new way of(50)
relating with what was going on in the world.” Now
Ryan is an advocate for the benefits of meditation
on health, performance, and social awareness. In
the busy and aggressive world of Washington
politics, he’s a voice for calm consideration.(55)
Every week Ryan, a Democrat representing the
13th congressional district of Ohio, hosts a medita-
tion session for his staff and any other members of
Congress who want to join. Because Republicans
52
value self-reliance in international affairs and(60)
Democrats advocate fiscal responsibility, Ryan
believes meditation ought to appeal to members of
both parties. Meditation encourages both, because
it’s a health practice that can be self-sustained and
doesn’t require costly memberships or equipment.(65)
In 2010, Ryan wrote the book A Mindful Nation:
How a Simple Practice Can Help Us Reduce Stress,
Improve Performance, and Recapture the American
Spirit, in which he advocates increased mindful-
ness in many disciplines and professions. After(70)
its publication, kindergarten classes in his Ohio
district started using deep-breathing techniques;
now teachers rave about their students’ improved
behavior. “Mental discipline, focus, self-reliance,
deep listening—these are fundamental skills that(75)
are essential to kids’ education,” Ryan says. “We yell
at kids to pay attention, but we never teach them
how to pay attention.”
Word seems to be spreading around Capitol Hill.
“I’ve had members of Congress approach me and(80)
say, ‘I want to learn more about this,’” Ryan says.
“Between the fundraising, being away from family,
(and) the environment of hyperpartisanship,
Washington is really stressing people out.”
53
Ryan supports legislation that puts meditation(85)
to good use for everyone. Among other bills, he has
sponsored one to increase the holistic-medicine
offerings of the Department of Veterans Affairs.
“And I haven’t met anyone in the country that isn’t
feeling a high level of anxiety right now, given the(90)
economy and what’s going on in the world. So
mindfulness is for everyone.”
Mr. Ryan is quick to point out that mindful-
ness is not a religious practice, but rather a secular
mental technique that can be effective regardless of(95)
spiritual beliefs. He compares it to his grandparents
praying and to athletes working out until they feel
“in the zone.”
“Your mind and body sync up into a flow state,
without a lot of mental chatter,” Mr. Ryan said.(100)
54
21. The central idea of Passage 1 is that meditation and mindfulness
were first practiced as religious rites.(A)
are becoming more accepted because of their benefits.(B)
are valuable tools for psychologists.(C)
help practitioners focus on their inner lives.(D)
55
22. Passage 1 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
Individuals who practice mediation are less likely to develop
illness.
(A)
Meditation helps people advance in their careers.(B)
Not many studies have been done on the results of daily meditation.(C)
Medical professionals embrace the benefits of meditation.(D)
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 2-5 (“Hindu scripture … in a garden”)(A)
Lines 15-17 (“Mindfulness meditation … in recent years”)(B)
Lines 24-26 (“To be present … ​consciousness”)(C)
Lines 29-32 (“According to … well-being”)(D)
24. In Passage 2, what can be inferred about the author’s point of view on
meditation?
56
The author is uncertain about its value.(A)
The author likes it but sees its limits.(B)
The author appreciates its value.(C)
The author is devoted to it.(D)
25. Passage 2 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true of
Mr. Ryan?
He acts on his beliefs.(A)
He is afraid to try new things.(B)
He likes to try new things.(C)
He is concerned about bipartisanship.(D)
26. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 47-49 (“In 2008 … mindfulness meditation”)(A)
Lines 63-65 (“Meditation encourages … or equipment”)(B)
Lines 86-88 (“Among other bills … Affairs”)(C)
Lines 93-96 (“Mr. Ryan … spiritual beliefs”)(D)
57
27. As used in line 42 of Passage 1, “compelling” most nearly means
creative.(A)
judicial.(B)
persuasive.(C)
adaptable.(D)
28. In Passage 2, as used in line 94, “secular” most nearly means
nonreligious.(A)
serious.(B)
impersonal.(C)
pristine.(D)
29. In Passage 2, the author’s use of the word “chatter” (line 100) implies
that
having an inner dialogue is a useful tool.(A)
people enjoy imagining themselves in various situations.(B)
meditation supporters talk about its surprises.(C)
much of what people think is relatively unimportant.(D)
58
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passage.
Colony Collapse Disorder Passage
30. Both passages support which generalization about mindfulness
meditation?
It has become an acceptable way to show spirituality.(A)
It is making inroads into U.S. culture.(B)
It should be utilized in public institutions.(C)
It will soon be embraced by the American public.(D)
31. Which claim from the passages is supported by the graphic?
Meditation improves a person’s focus and discipline.(A)
Children benefit from learning deep-breathing techniques.(B)
Meditation makes a person more generous.(C)
Health professionals are open to the issue of meditation being
healthful.
(D)
Colony collapse disorder, sometimes referred
to as CCD, is a phenomenon that has garnered
59
much attention over the past few years from both
the scientific community and the media alike. The
disorder, which causes entire honey bee colonies(5)
to mysteriously disappear, is a major threat to both
the environment and the economy. Honey bees are
the world’s natural pollinators, and are responsible
for the production of about one-third of everything
we eat. Without honey bees, produce that we’re(10)
used to having in our diets, like apples, blueber-
ries, strawberries, and nuts, would no longer be
available. Honey bees also have an effect on the
meat industry in the United States. They pollinate
the various types of feed used by beef and dairy(15)
farmers. The services of the honey bee population
are invaluable, and the survival of many different
species depends on their well-being.
When colony collapse disorder was first
recognized, beekeepers and scientists assumed that(20)
a pathogen was to blame. For example, there are
several known viruses and pests that can kill off
entire hives of honey bees quickly and be extremely
hard to prevent. Mites, fungus, and bacterial
infections are all common killers. Because of how(25)
often they’re seen in hives, farmers assumed that
these common plights were responsible for colony
60
collapse disorder. However, as time passed and the
disorder was studied, researchers noticed some-
thing odd. In many cases, there were simply no(30)
dead bees to discover. While common killers of the
honey bee left telltale signs, colony collapse
disorder left nothing behind but empty hives.
Scientists attributed the rapid disappearance of
the bees to a form of altruistic behavior. When a(35)
bee gets sick, it flies away from the hive so as not
to spread its illness to the other bees. It naturally
prioritizes the overall health of the hive over its
own. Although this behavior explained the bees’
disappearing act, the cause of the disorder is yet to(40)
be understood and the list of possible explanations
just keeps getting longer.
One team of researchers hypothesized that
fluctuations in the earth’s magnetic field might be
doing damage to the magnetoreceptors, or built-(45)
in homing devices, that bees use to find their way
home to their hives after flying all day. Honey bees,
as well as birds and fish, use the earth’s magnetic
field to identify their location. Sunspots, which
cause the strength of the earth’s magnetic field(50)
to fluctuate, might be damaging the honey bee’s
biological tools.
61
While solar activity is outside the control of
humans, another theory about the cause of colony
collapse disorder points to the human invention(55)
of pesticides. Pesticides, which are chemicals used
to prevent pest infestation of crops on a large scale
around the world, are often picked up by honey
bees during their foraging and pollination flights.
Scientists have found that more than one pesticide(60)
can be found in the honey of one hive. They are
currently studying the interaction of two or more
pesticides, which travel into the hives and are stored
by the bees in the pollen they use for protein. While
the presence of one pesticide in a hive would cer-(65)
tainly limit the life spans of bees and impair their
navigational skills, it could be that it is the interac-
tion of two or more pesticides that cause the entire
colony to collapse. There are many ingredients
in pesticides that are not regulated by world(70)
governments, and this leaves a lot of ground for bee
scientists to cover when doing their research.
Research over time usually helps to narrow
down the field of possible causes of a disorder, but
in the case of colony collapse disorder, scientists(75)
feel farther away than ever from finding the root
cause and a cure. Many people around the world
62
are taking up the cause of keeping honey bees alive
by keeping bees in their backyards or on their
roofs. Some cities and towns have relaxed regula-(80)
tions on beekeeping in response to the honey bee
population crisis. Hopefully, community initia-
tives and research can both help to save the world’s
honey bee population.
32. The passage’s primary purpose is to
show that honey bees require certain conditions in order to live.(A)
instruct the reader on how to increase the number of honey bees.(B)
explain the relationship between sunspots and colony collapse
disorder.
(C)
alert the reader to the impending crisis of decreasing numbers of
honey bees.
(D)
33. The point of view that the author takes is most reflective of that of
an advocate for honey bee survival.(A)
an environmentalist concerned about toxic materials.(B)
a naturalist who researches changes in animal populations.(C)
a concerned citizen who hopes to raise honey bees.(D)
63
34. The author uses the fact that no bees are found in a hive after a colony
collapses to
examine the extent of damage to the honey bee population that has
occurred.
(A)
emphasize the ways in which honey bees relate to human beings.(B)
refute the possibility that pathogens are the reason for the collapse.(C)
show that pesticides are not to blame for the decrease in the honey
bee population.
(D)
35. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 4-7 (“The disorder … the economy”)(A)
Lines 21-24 (“For example … to prevent”)(B)
Lines 31-33 (“While common … empty hives”)(C)
Lines 43-47 (“One team … flying all day”)(D)
36. As used in line 27, “plights” most nearly means
64
causes.(A)
promises.(B)
intentions.(C)
troubles.(D)
37. The author’s use of the word “mysteriously” in 
line 6 emphasizes
that fluctuations of the earth’s magnetic field are uncontrollable.(A)
how little is known about why colony collapse occurs.(B)
that the reason a bee leaves its hive when it is sick is unknown.(C)
why researchers are studying the effect of pesticides on honey bees.(D)
38. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
65
The author is cautiously optimistic about the future existence of the
honey bee.
(A)
The author thinks that scientists have not tried hard enough to find the
reason for colony collapse.
(B)
One team of scientists believes that they will have an answer to the
problem of colony collapse very soon.
(C)
Scientists have ruled out the theory that pesticides are at fault for
colony collapse.
(D)
39. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 7-10 (“Honey bees … eat”)(A)
Lines 25-28 (“Because of how … disorder”)(B)
Lines 53-56 (“While solar … pesticides”)(C)
Lines 82-84 (“Hopefully … population”)(D)
40. According to the passage, which of the following events has occurred
in response to colony collapse disorder?
66
Concerned citizens have fought to ban certain pesticides.(A)
Some towns have relaxed their regulations on beekeeping.(B)
Farmers have resorted to other means of pollinating their feed.(C)
Scientists are working to control the use of electromagnetic devices.(D)
41. As used in line 59, “foraging” most nearly means
rejecting.(A)
offering.(B)
watching.(C)
searching.(D)
42. Which sentence best describes the relationship between honey bees and
human beings?
Human beings depend on honey bees to keep the environment and
economy healthy.
(A)
Human beings depend on honey bees to keep the effects of sunspots
to a minimum.
(B)
Honey bees depend on human beings to provide them with food.(C)
Honey bees depend on human beings to protect them from solar
flares.
(D)
67
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary materials.
Space Debris Passage
In the first days of space exploration, one
concern was the possibility that astronauts or
spacecraft might be hit by meteoroids. Scientists
calculated that this possibility was extremely small,
because meteoroids are rare, but that the astronauts(5)
or spacecraft would almost certainly encounter the
more common micrometeorites, which are about
the size of grains of dust and much more common.
However, in the 60 years since the beginning of
space exploration, large quantities of human-made(10)
orbital debris have accumulated. Much of the
debris consists of satellites that have stopped func-
tioning, or rocket booster sections that separated
from the main spacecraft during a mission. Some of
the debris consists of items lost by astronauts, such(15)
as tools or space suit parts. Still more of the debris
is the result of collisions, such as when a satellite
collides with another or with a large piece of debris.
NASA estimates there are millions of debris
68
particles that are too small to be tracked. These(20)
circle Earth at speeds up to 17,500 miles per hour,
making even the smallest particles dangerous. One
scientist calculated that a chip of paint hitting the
window of a spacecraft at orbital speeds will hit
with the same amount of force as a bowling ball(25)
traveling at 60 mph. Such an impact occurred on
the space shuttle Challenger’s second flight, chip-
ping the windows and causing minor damage to the
protective tiles on the spacecraft. While the damage
was not immediately dangerous, it led to the fear(30)
that any craft in orbit for long periods of time could
accumulate enough damage to cease functioning.
Larger objects are even more dangerous, but
they can be monitored and avoided. NASA tracks
about 500,000 pieces of debris larger than a marble,(35)
about 20,000 of which are larger than a softball.
When NASA was still flying shuttle missions, it
would often have to direct the shuttle to maneuver
to avoid collisions with the larger debris. This could
usually be planned and accomplished in a few(40)
hours, but moving the International Space Station
to avoid a collision takes up to 30 hours of advance
notice.
Many satellites have the ability to adjust their
69
course slightly and can be remotely directed to avoid(45)
collisions with larger objects that would damage or
destroy the satellites. NASA and the European Space
Agency (ESA) have departments of scientists and
engineers dedicated to cataloging, modeling, and
predicting the movements of space debris.(50)
Some debris falls back to Earth, and most of it
is burned up in the atmosphere. However, a large
piece will survive long enough to get through the
atmosphere and crash. In 1979, the obsolete Skylab
fell out of orbit, and much of it withstood the trip(55)
through the atmosphere, crashing in the Australian
outback. Space agencies also monitor debris to
predict if any particular piece might fall and when.
Although they can issue warnings, there is currently
nothing that can be done about pieces that might(60)
get through the atmosphere.
To avoid adding to the aggregation of debris,
future satellites may need to be able to take
themselves out of orbit as their usefulness comes
to an end. Until a way to remove these remains is(65)
implemented, however, those 500,000 pieces of
large fragments, along with the millions of smaller
pieces, will continue to orbit Earth.
70
43. The central idea of the passage is primarily concerned with the
unintended consequences of space ​exploration.(A)
composition of the space debris that orbits Earth.(B)
dangers posed by space debris created by humans.(C)
causes and consequences of collisions in space.(D)
71
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 3-8 (“Scientists calculated … common”)(A)
Lines 20-22 (“These circle … dangerous”)(B)
Lines 33-34 (“Larger objects … avoided”)(C)
Lines 44-47 (“Many satellites … satellites”)(D)
45. Paragraph 2 helps support the central idea of the passage by providing
an explanation of why space debris left by humans is more
dangerous than meteors.
(A)
a summary of problems caused by old satellites and discarded
equipment.
(B)
a description of the types of human-made space debris that are
causing problems.
(C)
an argument for better tracking of the space debris that is orbiting
Earth.
(D)
46. According to the passage, why does space debris created by humans
pose a greater threat than ​meteoroids?
72
Meteoroids are rare, while there are large quantities of space
debris.
(A)
Meteoroids are much smaller than most pieces of space debris.(B)
Space debris cannot be tracked and monitored, but meteoroids can.(C)
Space debris is only found in a narrow band around Earth.(D)
47. Which of the following pieces of evidence strengthens the author’s line
of reasoning?
An explanation of early concerns about space collisions in
paragraph 1
(A)
Information about how space debris is tracked in paragraph 5(B)
An example of space debris falling to Earth in paragraph 6(C)
The suggestion that obsolete satellites take themselves out of orbit in
paragraph 7
(D)
48. As used in line 54, “obsolete” most nearly means
displaced.(A)
redundant.(B)
excessive.(C)
outdated.(D)
73
49. Based on information in the passage, which of the following
conclusions can be reached?
The only way to prevent space debris from causing injuries on Earth
is to warn people to avoid the predicted impact site.
(A)
The smallest pieces of space debris can be removed by astronauts
while they are working in space.
(B)
Most space debris is not dangerous to space travelers because of its
small size and relatively low speed.
(C)
Pieces of space debris will become less of a problem as spacecraft
travel farther into outer space.
(D)
50. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 19-22 (“NASA estimates … dangerous”)(A)
Lines 33-34 (“Larger objects … avoided”)(B)
Lines 34-36 (“NASA tracks … softball”)(C)
Lines 59-61 (“Although … atmosphere”)(D)
51. As used in line 66, “implemented” most nearly means
74
employed.(A)
investigated.(B)
prevented.(C)
appointed.(D)
52. Based on the passage and the graphic, if NASA were to place a new
satellite into orbit, which would be an altitude range to avoid?
500-700 kilometers(A)
700-900 kilometers(B)
1,400-1,600 kilometers(C)
1,800-2,000 kilometers(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
75
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
76
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
77
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
A Sweet Discovery
However, the discovery for which he is famous occurred not in the
laboratory, but at supper.
Coal tar was a by-product of steel manufacturing, and compounds derived 
 had been used as medicines and in dye formulations. Fahlberg,
and others in the laboratory, were studying ways to add different chemicals
to molecules found in coal tar to see if the new compounds formed had
other useful properties.
Like most chemists, a laboratory was where Constantin Fahlberg worked
on his research.
1
Chemical compounds are derived from coal tar, which is what Fahlberg
began working on as a research chemist in a laboratory at Johns Hopkins
University in early 1878.
2
from them
3
78
One night in June, Fahlberg finished a long day of work; he had been so
 in his research that he forgot to eat lunch, so he hurried to his
supper without stopping to wash his hands. He might have considered hand
washing unnecessary because he had not handled any toxic chemicals that
day, or he might have just been so hungry he did not think about it. 5
The bread tasted so sweet that Fahlberg thought he might have picked
up some cake by mistake. He rinsed out his mouth with water and then
patted his mustache dry with a napkin. He was surprised to find that the
napkin tasted sweet as well. He took another sip of water and realized that
the water now tasted sweet. 
 He then
tasted his thumb, and it tasted sweeter than any candy he had ever had.
[1] Fahlberg rushed back into the lab and began to taste the contents of
every beaker he had used that day. [2] Fortunately, he had not worked with
anything poisonous or corrosive, or the story  a different ending. 
demanding
4
The bread, napkin, and glass of water had something in common.
6
may have
7
79
[4] He found a sweet-tasting mixture of chemicals and worked for weeks to
isolate the sweet substance from the rest and to determine its chemical
composition. [5] Although it is many times more sweet tasting than sugar, it
cannot be used for energy by the body and therefore does not contribute to
calories consumed or energy use. [6] Soon after Fahlberg started 
saccharin commercially in 1886, it became popular with people who
needed to lose weight and with diabetic patients who needed to avoid
sugar. 10 11
[3] He had discovered saccharin, which he named for its intense
sweetness.
8
making
9
1. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Like most chemists, Constantin Fahlberg worked on his research in a
laboratory.
(B)
Constantin Fahlberg worked on his research, like most chemists, in a
laboratory.
(C)
A laboratory, like most chemists, is where Constantin Fahlberg
worked on his research.
(D)
80
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Johns Hopkins University is where Fahlberg began working as a
research chemist in a laboratory, making chemical compounds
derived from coal tar in early 1878.
(B)
Coal tar creates chemical compounds. This is what Fahlberg began
working on as a research chemist in a laboratory at Johns Hopkins
University in early 1878.
(C)
In early 1878, Fahlberg began working as a research chemist in a
laboratory at Johns Hopkins University, making chemical compounds
derived from coal tar.
(D)
3. 
NO CHANGE(A)
from it(B)
from these(C)
from him(D)
4. 
81
NO CHANGE(A)
delayed(B)
engrossed(C)
excited(D)
5. Which sentence should be inserted in this position to create an ideal
transition to the next paragraph?
Later, hand washing would become a critical protocol in the
laboratory.
(A)
Thankfully, he didn’t, or he never would have discovered what came
next.
(B)
Fahlberg had not eaten any cake, or indeed anything sweet, that day.(C)
Either way, he picked up his bread in his unwashed hands and took a
bite.
(D)
6. 
82
NO CHANGE(A)
Was there something that the bread, napkin, and glass of water had in
common, he wondered?
(B)
In fact, everything Fahlberg touched seemed to taste sweeter than
usual, which intrigued his scientific mind.
(C)
Fahlberg quickly realized that the one thing the bread, napkin, and
glass of water had in common was that they had all touched his
fingers.
(D)
7. 
NO CHANGE(A)
would have had(B)
might have(C)
might have had(D)
8. How should sentence 3 be revised to most clearly and effectively
convey the central idea of the paragraph?
83
NO CHANGE(A)
The substance was saccharin, and it became known as an artificial
sweetener.
(B)
Instead, the substance was a harmless sweetener called saccharin.(C)
Interestingly, the substance was extremely sweet and would later be
known as saccharin.
(D)
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
inventing(B)
creating(C)
producing(D)
10. Where should sentence 4 logically be placed within the paragraph?
Where it is now(A)
Before sentence 1(B)
Before sentence 3(C)
Before sentence 6(D)
84
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
René Descartes: The Father of Modern Philosophy
11. Which of the following sentences would make the best conclusion to
the passage?
Clearly, Constantin Fahlberg’s legacy of research, along with his
accidental discovery, continues to have lasting effects on society
even today.
(A)
If Fahlberg had stopped to wash his hands that day, he might have
continued his experiments on coal tar derivatives, never knowing
that an important substance sat at the bottom of one of his laboratory
beakers.
(B)
In addition to his discovery of saccharin, his work on coal tar
proved that Constantin Fahlberg was a talented scientist whose work
has applications in the present day, even though a number of new
artificial sweeteners have been developed.
(C)
Fahlberg’s discovery of saccharin is just one of the many examples
of times when science was advanced through what some might call
“a happy accident.”
(D)
85
Throughout history, philosophy has shaped culture in pivotal ways.
From the ancients to the postmoderns, great philosophers have spoken
powerfully within  respective contexts. For modern Western culture,
one philosopher’s formative impact surpassed his contemporaries:
France’s René Descartes. Called “the father of modern philosophy,”
Descartes crucially influenced Western perspectives on knowledge and
rationality.
This 17th-century philosopher ushered Western thought through an era
of great public doubt and upheaval and into the age of self-reliant
rationalism. Political and religious tradition and authority—the 
premodern sources of truth and knowledge—were being questioned and
rejected as new ideas identified potential inconsistencies. 
there
12
obvious
13
Because foundations of truth seemed to be crumbling, Descartes’s writings
proposed an alternative foundation: individual reason.
14
86
would on many levels serve to establish foundations for modern culture
and science. 16  This emphasis on reason, as opposed to traditional or
authoritative bases for certainty, would become the modern mechanism for
determining truth and knowledge.
[1] Modern culture would come to cherish this as an intellectual ideal.
In his famous project, Descartes sought certainty by mentally stripping
away every layer of knowledge that was remotely possible to doubt. [2]
Descartes arrived at his memorable 
[3] Building from there, he could work toward rational certainty in other
areas of knowledge. 18 19
An expert in many fields, including algebra, anatomy, meteorology, and
metaphysics, Descartes’s work
15
conclusion, “I think, therefore I am,” he could only be certain of the fact
that he was thinking.
17
87
Emphasizing the importance of building knowledge on certain
evidence, Descartes modeled a reversal of the reigning scientific processes
(which typically worked backward from observation to explanation).
Descartes founded the modern scientific method, in which research and
study could be reliably conducted based on certain evidence. Scientific
method, and the emphasis on human reason, would become standard
elements of modern thought. Though reimagined by ensuing culture and
philosophy,  Descartes’s initial contributions to
that conversation.
Certainly, most scientists and philosophers influence and build from each
other’s work. But Descartes was the crucial voice in early modern
dialogue. His expertise drew trusted readership, and his well-read ideas
pointed culture down the road to modern understanding—a road paved
with reason, modernism’s great intellectual virtue. Shifts  by
these changes propelled by
20
Some people may argue that it is impossible to separate what Descartes
accomplished from the things his contemporaries did.
21
begun
22
88
Descartes’s work would influence the very structure of ideas and systems
in the modern world, from research methods to public processes like
government and health systems.
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
their(B)
its(C)
it’s(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
makeshift(B)
innovative(C)
reigning(D)
14. 
89
NO CHANGE(A)
In a time when foundations of truth seemed to be crumbling,
Descartes’s writings proposed an alternative foundation: individual
reason.
(B)
Despite the fact that foundations of truth seemed to be crumbling,
Descartes’s writings proposed an alternative foundation: individual
reason.
(C)
Although foundations of truth seemed to be crumbling, Descartes’s
writings proposed an alternative foundation: individual reason.
(D)
15. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Expertise in many fields, including algebra, anatomy, meteorology,
and metaphysics, Descartes created work that
(B)
An expert in many fields, including algebra, anatomy, meteorology,
and metaphysics, Descartes would create work that
(C)
With his expertise in many fields, including algebra, anatomy,
meteorology, and metaphysics, Descartes’s work
(D)
16. Which sentence, if added here, would offer the strongest support for the
central claim of the paragraph?
90
But his most impressive contribution was his advocacy for the
individual’s rationality.
(A)
Unlike Descartes, other philosophers argued that reason alone could
not provide the basis for knowledge.
(B)
The idea known as “Cartesian dualism” posited that in the world
there exists only mind and matter.
(C)
His work on philosophy has proven to have more importance than
his ideas about anatomy, many of which have since been disproven.
(D)
17. 
NO CHANGE(A)
conclusion “I think, therefore I am,” he could only be certain of the
fact that he was thinking.
(B)
conclusion, “I think, therefore I am;” he could only be certain of the
fact that he was thinking.
(C)
conclusion, “I think, therefore I am”; he could only be certain of the
fact that he was thinking.
(D)
18. Which sentence should be added in front of sentence 1 to clarify the
topic of the paragraph?
91
Descartes’s contributions to philosophy were seen as threatening to
religion.
(A)
Descartes focused his work on the pursuit of fact-based certainty.(B)
The foundation for the ideas of many other philosophers is
Descartes’s work.
(C)
Descartes’s ideas were rooted in his Jesuit training.(D)
19. Which sentence should be added in front of sentence 3 to support the
information in the paragraph?
This revelation came as a shock to many people.(A)
However, he believed that certainty offered evidence to confirm his
existence.
(B)
Still, it was a place to start.(C)
This was a radical new way to think about thinking.(D)
20. 
NO CHANGE(A)
these changes being propelled by(B)
these changes having been propelled by(C)
these changes were propelled by(D)
92
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
The Novel: Introspection to Escapism
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Some may argue that it is impossible to separate Descartes’s
accomplishments from those of his contemporaries.
(B)
Some people may argue that it is impossible to separate Descartes
from his contemporaries.
(C)
Some may argue that what Descartes accomplished is no different
from what his contemporaries did.
(D)
22. 
NO CHANGE(A)
foreseen(B)
initiated(C)
evolved(D)
93
Art is never , nor is it meant to be. A poem written today looks
and sounds vastly different from a poem by Shakespeare, and a modern
symphony no longer resembles one by Beethoven. So it is with the novel,
that still relatively young member of the literary family (many consider
Don Quixote, published in 1605, to be the first). The novel is evolving to
reflect the  or for worse.
25  A few quotations from acclaimed novelists of the past illustrate
how  the form was once regarded. G. K. Chesterton said, “A good
novel tells us the truth about its hero; but a bad novel tells us the truth about
its author.” English writer Ford Madox Ford believed the novelist played
an important role as a recorder of history.
 “We agreed that the novel is
absolutely the only vehicle for the thought of our day.”
It’s not that over centuries writers of novels shed these ambitions;
novels today still address complexities and intricate social dynamics. 
stagnant
23
changing world; for better
24
broadly
26
Ford said of his friend Joseph Conrad,
27
94
 popular novels and their
film adaptations have driven the novel market in a broader direction. 
one that ought to enthrall its passive reader and relieve him or her of the
stress and tedium of life. The difficulties, challenges, and triumphs of real
life are 
31
It is rare today for a novelist to attempt to ask “What does it mean?”
Instead,  to provide the reader with an answer to the question
“What happens next?”
“Publishers, readers, booksellers, even critics,” critic James Woods
wrote, “acclaim the novel that one can deliciously sink into, forget oneself
However, in recent decades, especially the 2000s,
28
Novels are considered just another entertainment medium, which are now
available on digital devices,
29
less often the subject of popular novels; instead, escapist tales of
fantastical lands and escapades are more popular.
30
we strive
32
95
in, the novel that returns us to the innocence of childhood or the dream of
the cartoon, the novel of a thousand confections and no unwanted
significance. What becomes harder to find, and lonelier to defend, is the
idea of 
the novel as—in Ford Madox Ford’s words—a ‘medium of profoundly
serious investigation into the human case.’’’
33
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
sluggish(B)
static(C)
similar(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
changing world—for better(B)
changing world: for better(C)
changing world for better(D)
96
25. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
The novel, while well regarded, would never match the poem as the
ideal form for conveying the struggles of humanity.
(A)
The novel was once sacred ground, meant to capture and reveal
universal truths, to depict society and all its ills, to explore and
expound upon the human condition.
(B)
Both poetry and novels enjoyed a resurgence of popularity in the
early 1900s due to the notoriety of many of the prominent authors of
the day.
(C)
By the early 1900s, novels had evolved into something entirely
different from the form Cervantes pioneered with Don Quixote.
(D)
26. 
NO CHANGE(A)
loftily(B)
haughtily(C)
pretentiously(D)
27. Which choice would improve the sentence?
97
Ford said of his friend, the novelist Joseph Conrad,(A)
Ford said of his great friend, Joseph Conrad,(B)
Ford said of Joseph Conrad,(C)
Ford said of his friend, Joseph Conrad, a Pole who moved to
Britain,
(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
However: in recent decades,(B)
However in recent decades,(C)
In recent decades however;(D)
29. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Novels, which are now available on digital devices, are considered
just another entertainment medium,
(B)
Novels are considered just another entertainment medium, now
available on digital devices,
(C)
Novels, just another entertainment medium which are now available
on digital devices
(D)
98
30. 
NO CHANGE(A)
less often the subject of popular novels instead, escapist tales of
fantastical lands and escapades are more popular.
(B)
less often the subject of popular novels, instead, escapist tales of
fantastical lands and escapades are more popular.
(C)
less often the subject of popular novels: instead, escapist tales of
fantastical lands and escapades are more popular.
(D)
31. Which detail would provide the best support for the ideas presented in
the paragraph?
Novels exploring deep social issues remain the most heavily
decorated books come literary award season.
(A)
Director James Cameron remarked recently about the “inherent
difficulty” of adapting novels with fantasy themes.
(B)
Writing in the New Yorker magazine in 2014, critic James Woods
stated that readers now want novels that, like popcorn, are “easy to
consume.”
(C)
The “slice of life” novel remains tremendously popular among
books targeting younger readers.
(D)
99
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Interning: A Bridge Between Classes and Careers
32. 
NO CHANGE(A)
they strive(B)
it strives(C)
he or she strives(D)
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the novel as, in Ford Madox Ford’s words—a ‘medium of
profoundly serious investigation into the human case.’”
(B)
the novel as, in Ford Madox Ford’s words: a ‘medium of profoundly
serious investigation into the human case.’”
(C)
the novel as, in Ford Madox Ford’s words; a ‘medium of profoundly
serious investigation into the human case.’”
(D)
100
Kelli Blake is majoring in chemical engineering, and she recently 
 a summer internship with BP, an international energy company, to
gain career experience. Some argue against the value of internships,
claiming they pay very little and can involve performing  tasks, yet
Kelli feels her internship is critical to helping her discover whether
engineering is right for her.
Kelli wants a real-world perspective on information she has gained in
her classes. Her internship with a corporate leader is affording her the
opportunity to apply her conceptual knowledge to tasks inside a major oil
company. She can later add this project to her résumé and portfolio, giving
her an edge over other college graduates. 36
37  This safety training will be required of employees traveling to
offshore facilities, so she will  from other applicants by already
being safety certified. “I have a new appreciation for the protocols
followed by engineers at refineries,” she states. Kelli believes that gaining
excepted
34
boring
35
stand out
38
101
new skills and showing she can apply her classroom knowledge to real
situations will give her an advantage over her competition should she
decide to join BP.
Everyone has  own reason for wanting to become an intern. Kelli
has several other reasons behind her decision. 
She will accomplish all of her intern goals 
What are some further benefits of internships? Besides gaining
exposure in the field, Kelli is networking, and the most important person to
her now is her mentor, Dan, a senior engineer who can help her grow
professionally by answering her questions. Gaining valuable contacts and 
 she has pursued this internship.
their
39
For example, Kelli wants to meet people to learn about the variety of
careers available, from entry level to senior engineer.
40
by working on technical projects, attend “lunch and learn” meetings,
watching webinars, and shadow coworkers.
41
good role model. These are other reasons
42
102
Kelli is now an acting member of a corporate team. She realizes she
will be learning a lot about the industry and will benefit from adopting an
entirely new vocabulary. She views her internship as an adventure, one in
which engineering teams worldwide must work collaboratively and
efficiently. 
Moreover, she views the experience as one of the best ways to learn
about her field and industry. 44
It is worth it to give up her summer, Kelli argues, because though she is
losing her summer she is doing the job of an actual engineer through her
internship.
43
103
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
accepted(B)
adopted(C)
adapted(D)
35. 
104
NO CHANGE(A)
skilled(B)
menial(C)
challenging(D)
36. Which choice best supports the central idea of the paragraph?
During this internship, for example, Kelli is working on a glycol
dehydration project; she will be using the classroom skills she
learned from thermodynamics, organic chemistry, and more.
(A)
Kelli can use the materials from her internship in a professional-
quality presentation; she can then deliver the presentation to her
classmates when she returns to college after her internship.
(B)
In addition, Kelli is designing the next internship proposal for her
classmates after she completes her own and graduates.
(C)
Kelli is hoping to formulate her project results as a professional
published document to sell to BP.
(D)
37. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
105
Offshore engineers have many rules and regulations that must be
followed.
(A)
Kelli admires the engineers at the refineries who administer the
safety training.
(B)
The new skills she acquires can be applied to her classroom
knowledge.
(C)
Kelli will also earn her Helicopter Underwater Egress Training
certification.
(D)
38. 
NO CHANGE(A)
stand down(B)
stand up(C)
stand alone(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
your(B)
its(C)
his or her(D)
106
40. 
NO CHANGE(A)
For example; Kelli wants to meet people to learn about the variety
of careers available, from entry level to senior engineer.
(B)
For example, Kelli wants to meet people—to learn about the variety
of careers available, from entry level, to senior engineer.
(C)
For example, Kelli wants to meet people to learn about the variety
of careers available; from entry level to senior engineer.
(D)
41. 
NO CHANGE(A)
by working on technical projects, attending “lunch and learn”
meetings, watching webinars, and shadowing coworkers.
(B)
by working on technical projects, attend “lunch and learn” meetings,
watch webinars, and shadow coworkers.
(C)
by working on technical projects, attending “lunch and learn”
meetings, watch webinars, and shadowing coworkers.
(D)
42. 
107
NO CHANGE(A)
a good role model, these are other reasons(B)
a good role model; are other reasons(C)
a good role model are other reasons(D)
43. 
NO CHANGE(A)
It is worth giving up, Kelli argues, because though she is losing her
summer, she is doing the job of an actual engineer through her
internship.
(B)
It is worth it to give up her summer, Kelli argues, because she is
doing the job of an actual engineer through her internship.
(C)
It is worth it to Kelli to give up her summer, because though
summers are usually a time to relax, she argues, she is doing the job
of an actual engineer through her internship.
(D)
44. Using the graphic and the information in the passage, identify the phrase
that could be added to the end of the last sentence.
108
, which typically offers around 35 internships per 1,000 hires.(A)
, which typically offers around 32 internships per 1,000 hires.(B)
, which typically offers around 35 internships per 60 hires.(C)
, which typically offers around 32 internships per 60 hires.(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
109
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
110
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
111
1. The graph shows the cost of installing a vinyl privacy fence. The
company charges a flat installation fee plus a cost per linear foot of
fencing. Based on the graph, how much does one linear foot of this
particular vinyl fence cost?
$5(A)
$15(B)
$75(C)
$150(D)
112
2. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to the expression
shown above?
2 x  + 3 x(A) 2
24 x  + 36 x(B) 4 3
2 x  + 3 x  − 1(C) 2
24 x  + 36 x  − 1(D) 4 3
3. In the figure shown, Δ ABC  ∼ Δ DBE . What is the length of 
3.5(A)
3.75(B)
4(C)
4.5(D)
113
4. Which of the following represents the function shown?
(A)
(B)
(C)
f ( x ) = 3( x  − 2)  + 5(D) 2
114
5. If line L shown here is reflected over the x-axis, what is the slope of
the new line?
−2(A)
(B)
(C)
2(D)
6. If p  = 4 x  + x  − 2, q  = x  − 1, and r  = 3 x  − 5, then what is 2 p  −
( q  + r )?
3 2
3
115
7 x  − x + 2(A) 3
8 x  − x  − x  + 2(B) 3 2
8 x  − x  − x  − 10(C) 3 2
8 x  − x  + 5 x  − 8(D) 3 2
7. Which of the following are the roots of the equation 2 x  + 4 x  − 3 = 0?2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8. If g ( x ) = 3 x  − 5 and  at what point does the graph of
g(x) intersect the graph of h(x)?
116
4 x  − (10 − 2 x ) = c  (3 x  − 5)
(−2, −11)(A)
(2, 1)(B)
(3, 4)(C)
(6, 13)(D)
9. If  where x  > 0 and k  > 0, which of the following equations
gives k in terms of x?
(A)
(B)
(C)
k  = − x(D) 3
10. If the equation shown has infinitely many solutions, and c is a constant,
what is the value of c?
117
−2(A)
(B)
(C)
2(D)
11. If  which of the following is not a possible value of
a?
1.5(A)
2(B)
2.5(C)
3(D)
118
12. If the system of inequalities shown has no solution, what is the value of
k?
1(A)
2(B)
There is no value of k that results in no solution.(C)
There are infinitely many values of k that result in no solution.(D)
13. What value(s) of x satisfy the equation above?
0(A)
7(B)
No solution(C)
Any value such that x  ≠ 7(D)
119
14. The circle shown is given by the equation x  + y  + 6 x  − 4 y  = 12.
What is the shortest distance from A to B?
2 2
5(A)
10(B)
(C)
24(D)
15. If g is a function defined over the set of all real numbers and g ( x  − 1)
= 3 x  + 5 x  − 7, then which of the following defines g ( x )?2
2
120
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
g ( x ) = 3 x  − x  − 9(A) 2
g ( x ) = 3 x  + 5 x  + 1(B) 2
g ( x ) = 3 x  + 11 x  + 1(C) 2
g ( x ) = 3 x  + 11 x  − 6(D) 2
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
5.
121
interpreted as  not )
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
122
123
16. Retail businesses strive to price their products so that they sell as many
as possible without losing money. Economic equilibrium is the price
point at which the supply for a product is equal to the demand for that
product. The graph above models this scenario. According to the graph,
at what price in dollars will supply equal demand for this particular
product?
17. Once an insect reaches its larval stage, its mass increases linearly for a
short period of time and then slows down as it prepares to enter
pupation. Suppose the larva of a certain species has an initial mass of
10 grams and grows linearly from t = 0 to t = 48 hours of its larval
stage. If after 48 hours, the mass of the larva is 14 grams, what was its
mass in grams at t = 6 hours?
124
x f(x)
−1 −2
0 0
1 2
2 4
3 6
x g(x)
−2 3
−1 2
0 1
1 −1
2 −2
18. Several values for the functions f(x) and g(x) are shown in the tables.
What is the value of f ( g (−1))?
125
19. If (4 + 3 i )(1 − 2 i ) = a  + bi , then what is the value of a? (Note that
)
20. The maximum value of the data shown in the scatterplot occurs at x  =
56.25. If the data is modeled using a quadratic regression and the
correlation coefficient is 1.0, then what is the y-value when x  = 90?
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
126
127
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
128
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
129
1. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control recommends that adults engage in
2.5 hours per week of vigorous exercise. A local health society
conducts a survey to see if people are meeting this goal. They ask 100
people with gym memberships how many minutes of exercise they
engage in per week. After analyzing the data, the health society finds
that the average respondent exercises 142 minutes per week, but the
margin of error was approximately 36 minutes. The society wants to
lower this margin of error. Using which of the following samples
instead would do so?
50 people with gym memberships(A)
50 people randomly selected from the entire adult population(B)
100 people with gym memberships, but from a variety of gyms(C)
200 people randomly selected from the entire adult population(D)
130
2. As a general rule, businesses strive to maximize revenue and minimize
expenses. An office supply company decides to try to cut expenses by
utilizing the most cost-effective shipping method. The company
determines that the cheapest option is to ship boxes of ballpoint pens
and mechanical pencils with a total weight of no more than 20 pounds.
If each pencil weighs 0.2 ounces and each pen weighs 0.3 ounces,
which inequality represents the possible number of ballpoint pens, b,
and mechanical pencils, m, the company could ship in a box and be as
cost-effective as possible?
0.3 b  + 0.2 m  < 20(A)
0.3 b  + 0.2 m  ≤ 20(B)
(C)
(D)
131
3. Where will line Q shown in the graph intersect the x-axis?
13(A)
14(B)
15(C)
16(D)
4. The function f ( x ) is defined as f ( x ) = 2 g ( x ), where g ( x ) = x  + 5.
What is the value of f (3)?
132
−4(A)
6(B)
8(C)
16(D)
5. A printing company uses a color laser printer that can print 18 pages
per minute (ppm) when printing on thick cardstock paper. One of the
company’s best sellers on the Internet is business cards, which are sold
in boxes of 225 cards. The cards are printed 10 per page, then cut and
boxed. If a real estate company has 12 full-time agents and orders two
boxes of cards per agent, how many minutes should it take to print the
cards, assuming the printer runs continuously?
15(A)
20(B)
30(C)
45(D)
6. If 0.002 ≤ x  ≤ 0.2 and 5 ≤ y  ≤ 25, what is the maximum value of ?
133
0.04(A)
0.4(B)
4(C)
40(D)
7. Following a study of children in the United States under three years
old, the American Academy of Pediatrics stated that there is a positive
correlation between the amount of time spent watching television and
the likelihood of developing an attention deficit disorder. Which of the
following is an appropriate conclusion to draw from this statement?
There is an association between television time and attention
disorders for American children under three years old.
(A)
There is an association between television time and attention
disorders for all children under three years old.
(B)
An increase in attention disorders is caused by an increase in
television time for American children under three years old.
(C)
An increase in attention disorders is caused by an increase in
television time for all children under three years old.
(D)
134
8. A bicyclist is training for the Liège-Bastogne-Liège, one of Europe’s
oldest road bicycle races. The line graph above shows the number of
miles she biked each week for eight weeks. According to the graph,
what was the greatest change (in absolute value) in the weekly number
of miles she biked between two consecutive weeks?
7(A)
8(B)
9(C)
10(D)
135
9. If a line that passes through the coordinates ( a  − 1, 2 a ) and ( a , 6) has
a slope of 5, what is the value of a?
−2(A)
(B)
(C)
2(D)
10. An occupational health organization published a study showing an
increase in the number of injuries that resulted from elderly people
falling in the bathtub. In response to this increase, a medical supply
company decided to drop its price on bathtub lifts from $450 to $375,
hoping to still break even on the lifts. The company breaks even when
its total revenue (income from selling n bathtub lifts) is equal to its
total cost of producing the lifts. If the cost C, in dollars, of producing
the lifts is C  = 225 n  + 3,150, how many more of the lifts does the
company need to sell at the new price to break even than at the old
price?
136
Questions 11 and 12 refer to the following information.
A zoo is building a penguin exhibit. It will consist of an underwater area
and a land area. The land area is made of thick sheets of ice. An outline of
the total space covered by the ice is shown below. A pipe 2 feet in
diameter runs the full length of the exhibit under the ice. A substance known
as ice-cold glycol continuously runs through the pipe to keep the ice frozen.
7(A)
12(B)
14(C)
21(D)
11. About how many cubic feet of water are needed to create the ice
portion of the exhibit?
137
1,850(A)
2,150(B)
2,450(C)
3,100(D)
12. The zoo is planning to hire a company to fill the space with water. The
company plans to use two 4-inch hoses that can each pump 60 gallons
of water per minute. About how long should it take to fill the space?
(There are 7.48 gallons of water in 1 cubic foot of ice.)
1 hour(A)
1 hour, 30 minutes(B)
1 hour, 55 minutes(C)
2 hours, 15 minutes(D)
13. Which of the following quadratic equations has no solution?
0 = −2( x  − 5)  + 3(A) 2
0 = −2( x  − 5)( x  + 3)(B)
0 = 2( x  − 5)  + 3(C) 2
0 = 2( x  + 5)( x  + 3)(D)
138
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
Three airplanes depart from three different airports at 8:30 AM, all
travelling to Chicago O’Hare International Airport (ORD). The distances
the planes must travel are recorded in the following table.
From Distance to Chicago (ORD)
Kansas City (MCI) 402
Boston (BOS) 864
Miami (MIA) 1,200
14. The plane traveling from Boston traveled at an average speed of 360
mph. The plane traveling from Kansas City arrived at 10:34 AM. How
many minutes before the plane from Boston arrived did the plane from
Kansas City arrive?
20(A)
28(B)
42(C)
144(D)
139
15. For the first  of the trip, the plane from Miami flew through heavy
winds and dense cloud cover at an average speed of 200 mph. For the
remaining portion of the trip, the weather was ideal, and the plane flew
at an average speed of 450 mph. Due to a backlog of planes at ORD, it
was forced to circle overhead in a holding pattern for 25 minutes
before landing. At what time did the plane from Miami land in
Chicago?
12:00 PM(A)
12:25 PM(B)
12:50 PM(C)
1:15 PM(D)
16. If  for all real values of t, which of the following is
not in the range of h ( t )?
1(A)
3(B)
9(C)
10(D)
140
17. If (a, b) represents the solution to the system of equations shown in the
graph and a  = −3 b , then which of the following could be the value of
a  + b ?
−9(A)
0(B)
3(C)
6(D)
141
18. Which of the following best states which thermostat the car
manufacturer is likely to choose and why?
Thermostat A because the median of the data is 0, and the range is
greater than that of Thermostat B
(A)
Thermostat B because the median of the data is 0, and the range is
less than that of Thermostat A
(B)
Thermostat A because the mode of the data is 0, which indicates a
more consistent thermostat
(C)
Thermostat B because the data is bimodal (has two modes), which
indicates a more consistent thermostat
(D)
142
19. If p and q represent the zeros of a quadratic function and p  + q  = −3,
which of the following could be the factored form of f ( x )?
f ( x ) = ( x  − 3)( x  + 3)(A)
f ( x ) = ( x  − 4)( x  + 1)(B)
f ( x ) = ( x  − 1)( x  + 4)(C)
f ( x ) = ( x  − 6)( x  + 3)(D)
20. The figure above shows the graph of p ( x ) − 4. What is the value of
p (0)?
143
3(A)
4(B)
7(C)
11(D)
21. Geraldine is making a simple AC electric generator for a science
project using copper wire, cardboard, a nail, and magnets. The first
step in building the generator is wrapping the wire around and around a
rectangular prism made from the cardboard and connecting it to a small
lightbulb, as shown in the figure. If Geraldine has 18 feet of wire and
needs to leave 3 inches on each end to connect to the lightbulb, how
many times can she wrap the wire around the cardboard prism?
144
21(A)
28(B)
35(C)
42(D)
22. Which of the following best describes the data represented by the
figure shown?
Skewed to the left with two outliers(A)
Skewed to the left with an outlier of 2(B)
Skewed to the right with two outliers(C)
Skewed to the right with an outlier of 2(D)
145
23. Arianna and her brother Liam both walk home from school each day,
but they go to different schools. The figure shows their trip home on
Monday. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true?
It took Liam longer to walk home because his school is farther away.(A)
It took Arianna longer to walk home because her school is farther
away.
(B)
Arianna and Liam walked home at the same rate.(C)
Arianna walked home at a faster rate than Liam.(D)
24. If line L passes through the points (−4, −8) and (8, 1), which of the
following points does line L not pass through?
(0, −5)(A)
(4, −1)(B)
(12, 4)(C)
(16, 7)(D)
146
Unemployed Employed Totals
Female
Degree
12 188 200
Female
No Degree
44 156 200
Male
Degree
23 177 200
Male
No Degree
41 159 200
Totals 120 680 800
25. The table above shows the results of a sociological study identifying
the number of males and females with and without college degrees who
were unemployed or employed at the time of the study. If one person
from the study is chosen at random, what is the probability that that
person is an employed person with a college degree?
147
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
148
26. Typically, when people contract an infectious disease, their immune
system immediately begins to produce extra white blood cells to fight
the disease. The scatterplot shows the white blood cells reproducing in
an infected patient, along with several values found when modeling the
data using a graphing calculator. According to this model, how many
white blood cells per microliter of blood did the patient have before he
contracted the disease?
3,400(A)
8,500(B)
10,000(C)
13,600(D)
27. A rodeo is building a circular arena. The arena will have a total area of
64π square yards and can either be left open for rodeo competitions or
divided into 12 equal sections through the center for auctions. When
holding auctions, the rodeo has an average of 4 bulls and 8 horses for
sale. A bull cannot be placed in a section directly beside another
section containing a bull, and all edges of these sections must be
reinforced with strong steel to keep the bulls from getting out. Which of
the following represents how much steel in yards the rodeo will need to
reinforce the four bull sections?
149
32π(A)
64π(B)
(C)
(D)
28. Lena bought a saltwater fish tank that holds 400 gallons of water. She
started filling the tank on Friday, but then stopped after putting only 70
gallons of water in the tank. On Saturday, she bought a bigger hose and
began filling the tank again. It took her 1 hour and 50 minutes on
Saturday to completely fill the tank. Which equation represents the
number of gallons of water in the fish tank on Saturday, given the
amount of time in minutes that Lena spent filling the tank?
y  = 3 x  + 70(A)
y  = 3 x  + 330(B)
y  = 70 x  + 330(C)
y  = 110 x  + 70(D)
150
29. A self-storage company has three sizes of storage units. The ratio of
small to medium units is 3:5. The ratio of medium to large units is 3:2.
The company analyzes its business model and current consumer
demand and determines that it can benefit from utilizing larger
economies of scale. In other words, it decides to grow its business
based on current economic conditions and plans to build a second,
larger self-storage building. The company’s research indicates that the
new market would benefit from having only two sizes of storage units,
small and large, in the same ratio as its current facility. What ratio of
small to large units should it use?
1:1(A)
3:2(B)
5:3(C)
9:10(D)
151
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
30. The equation shown above represents the following scenario: A
chemical laboratory uses two air purifiers to clean the air of
contaminants emitted while working with hazardous materials. One is
an older model, and the other is a new model that is considerably more
energy efficient. The new model can clean the air of contaminants three
times as quickly as the older model. Working together, the two air
purifiers can clean the air in the lab in 7 hours. Which of the following
describes what the term  in the equation represents?
The portion of the air the new model can clean in 1 hour(A)
The portion of the air the older model can clean in 1 hour(B)
The time it takes the older model to clean the air by itself(C)
The time it takes the older model to clean  of the air by itself(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer1.
152
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
153
154
31. What is the solution to the equation shown?
32. If  what is the value of n?
33. When a thrift store gets used furniture in good condition to sell, it
researches the original price and then marks the used piece down by
40% of that price. On the first day of each of the following months, the
price is marked down an additional 15% until it is sold or it reaches
30% of its original price. Suppose the store gets a piece of used
furniture on January 15th. If the piece of furniture costs $1,848 new,
and it is sold on March 10th of the same year, what is the final selling
price, not including tax? Round your answer to the nearest whole
dollar.
155
34. Many sailboat manufacturers sell kits that include instructions and all
the materials needed to build a simple sailboat. The figure shows the
finished dimensions of a sailboat from such a kit. The instructions
indicate that cos x°  = b , but do not give the value of b. What is the
value of b?
156
35. In the figure shown, line B (not shown) is parallel to  and passes
through the point (0, –1). If line B also passes through the point (2, y),
what is the value of y?
36. Recycling of certain metals has been a common practice dating back to
preindustrial times. For example, there is evidence of scrap bronze and
silver being collected and melted down for reuse in a number of
European countries. Today, there are recycling companies and even
curbside collection bins for recycling. As a general rule, recycling
companies pay for metals by weight. Suppose a person brings in 3
pounds of copper and receives $8.64, and 24 ounces of nickel and
receives $10.08. If another person brings in equal weights of copper
and nickel, what fractional portion of the money would he receive from
the copper?
157
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
Body mass index, or BMI, is one of several measures used by doctors to
determine a person’s health as indicated by weight and height. Low-density
lipoprotein, or LDL cholesterol, known as the “bad” cholesterol, is another
health indicator and consists of fat proteins that clog arteries. Following
are the results of a study showing the relationship between BMI and LDL
for 12 individuals and the line of best fit for the data.
37. How many of the 12 people have an actual LDL that differs by 10 or
more mg/dL from the LDL predicted by the line of best fit?
158
38. A doctor’s patient has a BMI of 25 and an LDL level of 160. The
doctor wants to calculate the percent error of this patient’s data
compared to that predicted by the line of best fit. Suppose the doctor
uses the points (20, 110) and (30, 180), which lie on the line of best fit,
to model the equation. Based on this model, what is the percent error?
Round to the nearest tenth of a percent and ignore the percent sign when
entering your answer.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
159
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
160
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how the author
uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. This passage deals with the issue of compensation for college
athletes.
In the world of college sports, there is growing debate about whether
student athletes should be awarded monetary compensation for their
161
contribution to teams that garner millions of dollars for universities.
Presently, the National Collegiate Athletics Association (NCAA), the
governing body of college sports, doesn’t allow it. Some hold this law
as sacrosanct, saying it keeps college sports from becoming commercial
and corrupting the experience of student athletes, who are in school,
after all, for an education. But the reality is that we are past that point:
college sports are big business, and the system that caps student salaries
at zero is tantamount to wage fixing and collusion. If such practices
happened in the investment market, universities would be fined by the
FTC.
In a labor market, they’d be shut down. Student athletes are being
defrauded and taken advantage of.
So how much money is at stake? Basketball and football are the two
main sports in question. Every year, the month of March becomes
synonymous with a weeks-long basketball bracket that winnows down
64 teams to the single best. In football, a season of stadium-filling
regular season games culminates in half a dozen lucrative “bowl games”
sponsored by some of the biggest corporations in the world: FedEx,
AT&T, and Mobil Oil.
For television networks, advertisers, universities, and local businesses
where the events are held, these games are every bit as big as the NFL’s
162
Super Bowl and the NBA playoffs. In 2011, ESPN and Fox signed
television rights deals worth $3 billion to the Pacific-12 conference.
Forbes magazine reported that CBS and Turner Broadcasting make more
than one billion dollars off the March Madness broadcasts, “thanks in
part to a $700,000 advertising rate for a 30-second spot during the Final
Four.” One study put the value of a Texas A&M home game at $86
million for businesses in Brazos County, where A&M is located.
The dollar figures are indeed vast, and universities get their share. Here
are two examples from schools with top football teams. According to
the most recent federal data, the University of Texas football team netted
a profit of $77.9 million in 2011-2012. Michigan made $61.6 million
from football and $85.2 million in revenue.
Coaches, too, are a big part of the equation. Average salaries for major
college football coaches have jumped more than 70 percent since 2006,
to $1.64 million, according to USA Today. Nick Saban, head coach for
Alabama, makes $7.3 million a year.
And yet, players take home no money. None. How can this be? Because,
like unscrupulous tycoons from a Dickens novel, college presidents,
athletic directors, and conference commissioners set their players’
wages as low as they can get them—zero.
163
According to a recent study, if college football operated under the same
revenue-sharing model as the NFL, each player on the Texas A&M
squad would see a paycheck of about $225,000 per year.
All this talk of money might have you thinking that we should go back to
square one and take the money out of college sports. But money is in
college sports’ DNA. It was conceived that way. It all grew out of the
Morrill Land-Grant College Act of 1862. “As large public institutions
spread into sparsely populated states, the competition for students grew
fierce,” says Allen Sack, a business professor at the University of New
Haven. Football happened to be invented around that time, and schools
took it up as a tool to draw students, and spectators, to campuses. The
1894 Harvard-Yale football game, for example, generated $119,000,
according to the New York Times. That’s nearly $3 million in today’s
dollars.
The historic justification for not paying players is that they are amateur
student-athletes, and the value of their scholarships is payment enough.
But the NCAA’s own study shows that its scholarship limit leaves so-
called “full” scholarship athletes with $3,000 to $5,000 in out-of-pocket
expenses each year. The average shortfall is $3,200. Furthermore, most
scholarships are revokable, so if an athlete doesn’t perform well on the
field, or is injured, he can, in a sense, lose that compensation. A student
athlete devotes 40 hours a week on average towards sport; that’s
164
equivalent to a full-time job. Zero pay and immediate termination with
no recourse? Those are labor conditions that any sensible workforce
would unionize to change. But students are powerless to change. They
are up against the NCAA, the Big 10 commission, university boards, and
the almighty corporate dollar. Someone needs to become their advocate
and get student athletes the compensation they deserve.
Write an essay in which you explain how the author builds an
argument to persuade his audience that student athletes deserve
fair compensation. In your essay, analyze how the author uses
one or more of the features listed in the box that precedes the
passage (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic
and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with the
author’s claims, but rather explain how the author builds an
argument to persuade his audience.
165
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
166
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. C
167
17. D
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. D
40. B
168
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. C
48. D
49. A
50. D
51. A
52. B
169
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
170
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. A
39. D
40. A
171
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. B
172
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
173
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. 15
17. 10.5 or 21/2
18. 4
19. 10
20. 50.5
174
175
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. A
176
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. A
29. D
30. A
31. 9/26 or .346
32. 4
33. 801
34. 2/3 or .666 or .667
35. 3.5 or 7/2
36. 3/10
37. 3
38. 9.4
177
178
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
A Study in Scarlet
1. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers that go against your understanding
of the characters in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The first paragraph explicitly states that
Watson’s curiosity about Holmes “gradually deepened and increased”
(lines 2-3). Choice (A) is the correct answer.
179
2. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each answer choice for “casual” to see
which one makes the most sense in the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Watson is explaining that Holmes’s appearance
is noticeable even to someone who hasn’t seen him very often; therefore,
(D) is correct.
3. C
180
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for clues in the passage about how and why
Holmes studies and learns.
Getting to the Answer: Watson notes that Holmes has not studied
anything “which might fit him for a degree” (lines 21-22). This suggests
that his learning is not motivated by something external, like a degree,
but by his personal interests. Choice (C) reflects Holmes’s motives for
studying.
4. C
181
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that don’t explain why
Holmes studies. A correct answer will allow you to make a logical
guess as to Holmes’s motives for studying.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) provides the best evidence by
illustrating that Holmes pursues topics that he is passionate about rather
than studying for external motivations.
5. D
182
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: The central idea in this passage should reflect the
overall picture the author paints of Sherlock Holmes.
Getting to the Answer: The passage develops Holmes as an unusual
and eccentric character. Watson marvels at Holmes’s failure to pursue a
typical path for an intelligent person, for example, and describes in
detail how Holmes’s behavior deviates from the ordinary. Choice (D) is
the only answer choice that is directly supported by details in the
passage.
6. C
183
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Closely read Holmes’s own statements for clues
about his views.
Getting to the Answer: Holmes clearly suggests that the brain can only
hold a limited amount of information, so one should prioritize the things
that are most important. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
7. D
184
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote in the context of the passage. Find
the one that supports the previous answer by giving evidence of
Holmes’s own ideas about learning.
Getting to the Answer: Of all the answer choices, Holmes’s own
statements about the brain being limited and prioritizing useful facts
most directly support the previous answer. Choice (D) is the correct
answer.
8. B
185
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Use context clues to help you predict the meaning of
the word as it is used in the sentence. In this sentence, the context clues
provide a contrast to the target word.
Getting to the Answer: Watson says Holmes is usually “sharp” and
“hawk-like” and has great “alertness” except when he is in a period of
torpor (lines 7-10). You can predict that the meaning of “torpor” will be
something close to the opposite of sharp and alert. Choice (B) is the
correct answer.
9. A
186
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider what this figurative use of “attic” helps
reveal about the character of Holmes.
Getting to the Answer: The author has Holmes compare the human
brain to an attic to help illustrate Holmes’s beliefs about useful facts
versus those not worth learning. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
10. D
187
Woodrow Wilson Speech
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about what insights the reader gains by having
Watson narrate the story.
Getting to the Answer: The author is able to establish Holmes as an
intriguing character by showing the reader Watson’s thoughts and
reactions to Holmes. Presumably, readers will want to find out more
about Holmes because the narrator depicts him as a fascinating person.
Choice (D) fits this situation.
11. C
188
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Examine the first two paragraphs. Try to paraphrase
the reason Wilson gives for making the speech.
Getting to the Answer: In the first two paragraphs, Wilson anticipates
the end of the war and alludes to the “processes of peace” (lines 1-2).
Although he refers to national sovereignty and conquest, he states that
his purpose is to lay out a program for peace in the world, making (C)
the correct answer.
12. D
189
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will provide
information that directly relates to the answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to the previous question
deals with Wilson’s desire to maintain peaceful relations in the world.
Lines 26-27 read, “The programme of the world’s peace, therefore, is
our programme,” making (D) the correct answer.
13. A
190
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Look for context clues in the surrounding text that
will help you determine the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: In the list of points he presents, Wilson is
defining actions and policies that will promote peace and open
communication between nations. In this context, “frankly” suggests “in
an honest manner,” making (A) the correct answer.
14. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that cannot be inferred by
the information provided in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: It can be inferred that 
in the past, certain nations did indeed form 
secret understandings, or pacts, with one another. Choice (B) is correct.
191
15. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will reference a detail that
provides evidence for the answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In the first paragraph of his speech, Wilson
refers to “secret understandings” that cannot exist anymore if there is to
be peace among nations. Therefore, (A) is correct.
16. C
192
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Pretend the word is a blank in the sentence. Then
predict what word could be substituted for the blank.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that “national armaments
will be reduced to the lowest point consistent with domestic safety.” In
this sense, Wilson aims to assure nations that they will still be able to
place primary importance on their own well-being, reducing armaments
to the extent that is agreeable with the provision of domestic safety.
Therefore, (C) is the correct choice.
17. D
193
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Though the question is asking you about a specific
line, it makes sense to choose an answer that is compatible with the
broader context of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In the excerpted line, Wilson identifies the
“adjustment of all colonial claims” as an item in his program for world
peace. This means that he believes nations must address conflicts
resulting from colonization, itself an imperial pursuit, in order to
safeguard world peace. Choice (D) is correct.
18. C
194
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Locate the three points to which the question refers.
Do not confuse them with other numbered points in the speech.
Getting to the Answer: Points VI through VIII refer to territorial
sovereignty, evacuation of occupied lands, and restoration of lands, and
these points align with the claim that nations have violated one another’s
territorial sovereignty through invasion and occupation. This makes (C)
the correct answer.
19. B
195
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be sure that the answer you choose reflects the
ideology and positions expressed by Wilson in his speech.
Getting to the Answer: In the passage, Wilson expresses that he is in
favor of international cooperation to promote and sustain global peace.
Choice (B) is the correct answer because it describes an approach to
international relations that is analogous to Wilson’s.
20. B
196
Paired Passages—Meditation
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: When asked a question involving the structure of a
passage, consider the text as a whole. Often, the structure is visually
noticeable.
Getting to the Answer: Wilson begins by stating his argument about the
necessity for countries around the world to resolve their differences. He
then follows up with specific examples of how his ideas should be
carried out. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
21. B
197
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Consider what the passage is mostly about, rather
than concentrating on supporting details.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) correctly identifies the central idea
in the passage. The other choices are based on misinformation or are
details.
22. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for information in the passage about each of the
choices. Determine which one can be inferred as true.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is suggested by the passage and is
the most plausible.
198
23. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that do not provide direct
evidence to support your answer to the previous question. The correct
answer will relate specifically to the inference made there.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) supports the inference that some
medical professionals accept meditation as beneficial.
24. C
199
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Remember that you’re analyzing the author’s point of
view on meditation, not Tim Ryan’s.
Getting to the Answer: The fact that the author chose to write about
Tim Ryan and his interest in meditation suggests that he or she values
what meditation can offer. However, there is little evidence that the
author is devoted to meditation. Choice (C) correctly reflects the
author’s point of view.
25. A
200
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the passage and look for clues to Ryan’s
personality. Determine what can be inferred about him from what is
stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. This is
suggested by what Ryan has done.
26. C
201
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that do not provide direct
evidence to support the inference about Ryan. The correct answer will
relate specifically to that inference.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Mr. Ryan shows that he
acts on what he believes by supporting legislation that encourages
meditation, such as the bill supporting the increase in holistic medicine
offered by the Department of Veterans Affairs.
27. C
202
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence and substitute each answer
choice for the target word. The correct answer will relate directly to the
context of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The context of the sentence suggests that only
(C) fits.
28. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence. Then substitute each word for
the target word “secular.” See which word makes sense in the context of
the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In the context of the sentence, “but rather”
indicates that “secular” means the opposite of “religious,” so (A) is the
correct answer.
203
29. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence to determine what connotative
meaning the author suggests through the use of “chatter.”
Getting to the Answer: The word “chatter” has a negative connotation
that suggests background noise or frequent talk. Only (D) fits with this
meaning.
30. B
204
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Look for an answer that fits with the information in
both passages. Avoid choices that are suggested by only one of the
passages.
Getting to the Answer: Both passages talk about how attitudes are
changing regarding the efficacy of mindfulness meditation. Only (B)
reflects this.
31. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Examine the graphic and the two passages to figure
out which answer choice is supported by all three.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows that workers were more
productive and had fewer injuries after being in a meditation program.
Choice (A) is the only one that relates to the information in the graphic.
205
Colony Collapse Disorder Passage
32. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think of what the author wants the reader to learn
about bees. This will help you figure out the passage’s purpose.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the primary purpose of the
passage. It is what the author most wants the reader to become aware of.
33. A
206
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think back to the author’s purpose that you explored
in question 32. Consider what this purpose suggests about the author’s
point of view.
Getting to the Answer: The author seems knowledgeable about honey
bees and very concerned about their loss. The author points out the many
losses humans would have if bees were to disappear. Therefore, (A) is
the correct answer.
34. C
207
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Examine the part of the passage that discusses how
no bees are found after a collapse.
Getting to the Answer: The author wants to stress the fact that research
has shown that pathogens are not the reason for the colony collapse.
Choice (C) is the correct answer.
35. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that do not directly support
your answer to the previous question. The correct answer will relate
specifically to the inference made there.
Getting to the Answer: In the context of its paragraph, lines 31-33
provide evidence to support the inference that the cause of colony
collapse is not pathogens. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
208
36. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Examine the context of the sentence. Substitute each
choice for the target word to determine which one makes the most sense.
Getting to the Answer: In the sentence, “common plights” refers to
pests such as mites, fungus, and bacteria, which farmers are used to
seeing in beehives. In this context, (D), “troubles” is the correct answer.
37. B
209
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Notice that the word “mysteriously” appears toward
the beginning of the passage, when the author is first introducing the
topic.
Getting to the Answer: As the author introduces the topic of colony
collapse disorder in the first paragraph, the word “mysterious” helps
emphasize how puzzling the disorder truly is. Choice (B) is the correct
answer.
38. A
210
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Review the passage and look for clues that would
suggest which statement is most probable.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. Though the author
laments the disappearance of honey bees and says how challenging it is
to solve the problem, the author ends the passage on a cautiously
optimistic note.
39. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that might support an incorrect
answer in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is evidence that the author is
cautiously optimistic about the future of the honey bee.
211
40. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Watch out for answer choices that might sound
plausible but are not explicitly stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct; the last paragraph, states
that some towns and cities are relaxing their regulations about
beekeeping “in response to the honey bee population crisis” (lines 81-
82).
41. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each choice for the target word. Decide
which one makes the most sense in the context.
Getting to the Answer: The context of the sentence rules out all but
(D), the correct answer.
212
Space Debris Passage
42. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for information in the passage that tells what
honey bees and human beings do for each other.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that if honey bees
disappear, people will not have certain foods; even the beef industry
will be affected. Therefore, humans depend on the bees to keep the
environment and economy healthy. Choice (A) is correct.
43. C
213
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Think about the idea that is developed throughout the
passage. Avoid answers that refer only to supporting details.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer because all
the information in the passage relates to the dangers posed by space
debris created by humans.
44. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Look at each quote from the passage and decide
which most clearly supports the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, the author describes how space
debris created by humans is dangerous to spacecraft and the people
inside of them. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
214
45. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the central idea that you identified in
question 43. Identify the central idea of paragraph 2.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is mostly about the dangers
associated with human-made space debris. Paragraph 2 contains details
about the types of human-made space debris orbiting Earth, thus
providing support for the central idea. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
46. A
215
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the information about meteoroids at the
beginning of the passage. Think about how this compares with the
descriptions of space debris in the following paragraphs.
Getting to the Answer: The author says that although there were
concerns about meteoroids in the early days of space travel, scientists
concluded that the risk was small because meteoroids were rare. The
author goes on to explain that space debris created by humans is a
concern, in part because of how much of it exists. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
47. C
216
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: The author’s central claim in the passage is that
space debris left by humans is dangerous. Think about which of the
answer choices most directly supports that claim.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 6, the author describes how
Skylab fell to Earth. This example strengthens the claim, illustrating that
the debris left in space can be dangerous even on Earth. Therefore, (C)
is the correct answer.
48. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers that are synonyms for “obsolete”
but do not make sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: Skylab is no longer in use. In this context,
“obsolete” means “outdated,” so (D) is the correct answer.
217
49. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that cannot be supported
with information found in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 6, the author describes how space
debris can be dangerous on Earth if a large enough piece gets through
the atmosphere without burning up. It is logical, then, that (A) is the
correct answer; warnings could help people avoid areas where impacts
are predicted, thereby decreasing the chance of injury.
50. D
218
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices that provide evidence for
incorrect answers to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer, because in
lines 59-61, the author states that there is nothing to be done about space
debris falling to Earth except to issue warnings.
51. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read each answer in place of “implemented” in the
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, (A) is the correct answer;
“implemented” most nearly means “employed.”
219
52. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Make sure you understand the units and labels in the
graphic before choosing an answer.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows that the highest density of
space debris occurs at an altitude just under 800 kilometers, posing the
greatest risk of the dangers discussed in the passage. It is reasonable to
conclude, therefore, that if NASA were to place a new satellite into
orbit, the agency should choose to avoid the altitude range of 700–900
kilometers. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
220
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
A Sweet Discovery
1. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Determine the noun to which the modifier in this
sentence is referring. Then check the noun’s placement to make sure it is
as close as possible to the modifier.
Getting to the Answer: The modifier is “like most chemists.”
Therefore, the noun it modifies should be a person. Choice (B) correctly
rearranges the sentence so that “chemists” clearly refers to “Constantin
Fahlberg.”
221
2. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: This is the topic sentence of the paragraph. Make
sure that it focuses on the correct subject.
Getting to the Answer: The purpose of this sentence is to discuss
Fahlberg and the circumstances in which he was working. Choice (D)
correctly focuses the sentence on Fahlberg and flows well into the next
sentence, which discusses the specifics of coal tar.
3. B
222
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: The pronoun should agree with the noun to which it
refers. Identify this noun to determine the correct pronoun.
Getting to the Answer: The antecedent of the pronoun here is “coal
tar,” a singular, impersonal noun. Choice (B), “from it,” is therefore the
correct answer.
4. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Determine what meaning the correct word should
convey before choosing an answer.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence suggests that while working,
Fahlberg was so “___” that he forgot to eat lunch. A word that means
“focused on” or “preoccupied with” would be most appropriate. Choice
(C), “engrossed,” conveys this meaning successfully.
223
5. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: The passage is telling a story. Choose the answer that
most effectively makes the transition between the paragraphs while
maintaining a consistent tone with the rest of the story. The correct
answer will relate to the sentences both before and after it.
Getting to the Answer: While answer B may intrigue readers, its tone
is out of place when compared with that of the rest of the passage.
Choice (D) is the correct answer. It tells the next logical step in the
story.
6. D
224
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will clearly present the central
idea of the paragraph. Identify the answer choice that presents the most
important point about the scene being described.
Getting to the Answer: To be effective as a central idea, the sentence
needs to sum up the supporting details in the paragraph and convey their
meaning. Only (D) both explains what happened and describes why it
was significant, which is the central idea of the paragraph.
7. B
225
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Examine the context of the sentence. Notice that it’s
describing a potentially disastrous outcome if conditions have been
different.
Fortunately, he had not worked with anything poisonous or corrosive, or
the story would have had a different ending.
Getting to the Answer: If Fahlberg had been working with poisonous
or corrosive materials, there is no doubt that “the story” would have had
a different—and terrible—ending. The word “might” is too conditional
for this situation; therefore, (B), which includes the word “would,” is
the correct answer.
8. A
226
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Determine which option clearly states the most
important information in this paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The most important fact in this paragraph is
that Fahlberg discovered a new substance accidentally. The rest of this
paragraph provides details about this discovery. Therefore, the correct
answer choice will state that Fahlberg made a discovery. Choice (A)
makes this idea clear.
9. D
227
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look for clues in the rest of the sentence to determine
which verb fits with the exact meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that Fahlberg is making the
saccharin “commercially,” or as part of a business. Choice (D),
“producing,” is correct, as it emphasizes the business nature of his
work.
10. C
228
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Try out each answer choice. What information seems
confusing when not presented in the right order?
Getting to the Answer: Logically, Fahlberg should find the mixture of
chemicals and work to isolate it before he names it and understands its
significance. Therefore, (C) is the most logical place for sentence 4 and
is the correct answer.
11. B
229
René Descartes: The Father of Modern Philosophy
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Specifically state in your own words what the
passage is about. Then read the answer choices to see what fits best.
Getting to the Answer: The passage focuses on the specific moment of
Fahlberg’s discovery, including the significance of the discovery itself
and its applications. Only (B) convincingly ties the sentence to the main
ideas of the passage.
12. B
230
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: A modifier should match its antecedent in number
and gender. Also, be wary of words that sound alike but have different
meanings and uses.
Getting to the Answer: As it stands, the sentence incorrectly uses the
adverb “there.” The correct word is the possessive pronoun “their,”
which is often confused with “there.” Choice (B) is the correct answer.
13. D
231
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read carefully to identify the context of the
underlined word. Then, choose the word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The underlined word modifies “premodern
sources of truth and knowledge,” which in turn refers to “political and
religious tradition and authority.” The context of the sentence indicates
that these were powerful ideas that were being challenged by newer
ideas. Choice (D), “reigning,” conveys the idea that “political and
religious tradition and authority” had monarch-like, or ruling, levels of
power in people’s lives.
14. B
232
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Determine the relationship between the two parts of
the underlined sentence, and then think about which answer choice best
conveys this relationship.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that “foundations of truth
seemed to be crumbling,” and “Descartes’s writings proposed an
alternative foundation.” The two ideas are connected to each other:
Descartes’s writings were a response to this “crumbling.” Choice (B) is
the answer that identifies this relationship.
15. C
233
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the modifying phrase in this
sentence references the correct noun.
Getting to the Answer: If the modifier in this sentence is describing a
person, then the noun that is described by the modifier should also be a
person. Choice (C) correctly matches the modifier (beginning with “an
expert”) to the noun “Descartes.”
16. A
234
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Determine the central claim in the paragraph and then
come back to the question.
Getting to the Answer: The central claim of the paragraph is that
Descartes’s work established the foundation for many modern ideas.
The statement found in (A) provides information that best supports this
claim. Choice (A) is correct.
17. D
235
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Identify whether the sentence consists of two
independent clauses or an independent and a dependent clause. This
will provide you with guidance for punctuating it.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence consists of two independent
clauses (“Descartes arrived …” and “he could only be …”). Therefore,
a semicolon is the best way to join them, and it should be placed outside
of a direct quotation. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
18. B
236
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: In your own words, identify what idea ties together
the ideas presented in the rest of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Sentence 1 states that “modern culture would
come to cherish this.” The question is, what is “this”? The rest of the
paragraph goes into detail about Descartes’s philosophical methods.
Choice (B) identifies Descartes’s general philosophical focus and is,
therefore, the correct answer.
19. B
237
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Look for the answer choice that most clearly helps to
develop the ideas in the surrounding sentences.
Getting to the Answer: The inserted sentence comes after a discussion
of Descartes’s only certainty—that he was thinking. The sentence that
follows it explains that from this, he could build additional knowledge.
The correct answer will develop the idea of certainty and how it can be
used to acquire more knowledge. Choice (B) best conveys this
information and therefore is the correct choice.
20. D
238
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: A grammatically correct sentence will include a verb
whose form makes the sentence an independent clause.
Getting to the Answer: “Propelled by” needs the addition of an
auxiliary verb for this sentence to stand alone. Inserting “were” before
this phrase makes the sentence grammatically complete. Choice (D) is
the correct answer.
21. B
239
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Determine whether there is a way to make the
sentence less wordy without changing its intended meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence, especially in the context of the
paragraph, seems to be saying that it’s difficult to determine exactly
what Descartes did versus what other people at the time did. Both
answer choices C and D change the meaning of the sentence slightly to
say either that Descartes himself could not be separated from his
contemporaries or that what they did was identical. Choice (B) is
correct, because it eliminates the wordiness of the sentence while
maintaining its meaning.
22. C
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The Novel: Introspection to Escapism
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Determine what role this verb has in the sentence.
What is the precise nature of the action it is describing?
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is about how Descartes’s work
began shifts in thinking that critically influenced other developments.
However, the word “begun,” A, does not precisely convey the power
with which this occurred. Choice (C), “initiated,” conveys this meaning
and is the correct answer.
23. C
241
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Reread the surrounding sentences to look for context
clues. Then review the answer choices, paying attention to the meaning
and nuance of each word.
Getting to the Answer: The passage tells us that art is constantly
evolving and changing. The correct answer will represent the opposite
of this meaning. The word “static” means that something does not
change, so (C) is the correct answer.
24. B
242
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and determine whether the parts of
the sentence on either side of the semicolon are independent clauses. If
they are not, identify their function and choose the appropriate
punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: “For better or worse” is not an independent
clause; rather, it is a parenthetical element that adds an opinion to the
main thrust of the sentence. Choice (B) is correct. It uses a dash to set
off this additional information in the sentence.
25. B
243
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To determine the main topic of a paragraph, identify
important details and then summarize them in a sentence or two. Find a
choice that matches your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: Avoid choices like A and C, which include
details about poetry that are not in the paragraph. The details in this
paragraph are about how the writers of the past viewed the novel as a
vital way to record and comment on the human experience. Choice (B)
captures this main topic.
26. B
244
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the surrounding sentences to get a sense of
what the underlined word is meant to convey. Then review the answer
choices to find the one that is closest to this meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The passage suggests that the novel was held
in high regard. The correct answer needs to indicate high regard with a
positive connotation. The word “loftily,” (B), connotes both high regard
and a positive view of the novel as a literary form.
27. A
245
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Look for the answer choice that improves the
sentence by adding important, relevant information.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about the opinions of
acclaimed novelists. Choice (A) adds the information that Joseph
Conrad was also a novelist.
28. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Identify the role of the underlined phrase; then use
this information to determine the necessary punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: “However” is an introductory adverbial
element that modifies the rest of the sentence. It should be followed by a
comma. Choice (A) is correct.
246
29. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Check the placement of dependent clauses set off by
commas. A dependent clause that modifies a noun in a sentence should
be adjacent or as close as possible to the noun it is modifying.
Getting to the Answer: The dependent clause “which are now
available on digital devices” modifies “novels,” not “entertainment
medium.” It should be as close as possible to “novels,” making (B) the
correct answer.
30. A
247
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: A compound sentence should be combined with a
semicolon or a comma with a conjunction. If anything else is used, the
sentence is ungrammatical.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. This keeps the
semicolon, which appropriately separates two related independent
clauses.
31. C
248
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Evaluate the paragraph for the central idea. Then
review the answer choices to find the one that directly supports that
idea.
Getting to the Answer: This paragraph discusses the change from
novels that tackle serious social issues to books that are meant as light
entertainment for mass consumption. Choice (C) is correct. It
emphasizes that readers want novels to be “fun,” providing a means of
escape from their lives.
32. D
249
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: A pronoun needs to match its antecedent. Locate the
antecedent of the pronoun and then predict an answer.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer will match the antecedent
in gender and number. The antecedent is “novelist,” so the answer must
be singular. Choice (D) is correct, as it matches the antecedent in
number and appropriately identifies both gender options, since the
antecedent did not specify gender.
33. A
250
Interning: A Bridge Between Classes and Careers
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Remember that dashes and parentheses act in similar
ways. If the phrase is offering additional information before you get
back to the main thrust of the sentence, then a dash is appropriate.
Getting to the Answer: A dash is an appropriate way to punctuate the
phrase, so (A) is the correct choice.
34. B
251
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph to understand the context
in which the underlined word appears. Be careful to distinguish between
commonly confused words.
Getting to the Answer The paragraph makes it clear that Kelli has
started working at BP as a summer intern. The correct answer will
convey this meaning. Choice A, “excepted,” meaning “excluded from a
group,” is a word that is commonly confused with “accepted,” which
means “to have taken or received something.” In this case, Kelli has
taken the job offer with BP, making (B) the correct choice.
35. C
252
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the entire sentence to determine the context of
the underlined word.
Getting to the Answer: The context implies that the tasks assigned to
interns are low level and meaningless. Choices B, “skilled,” and D,
“challenging,” suggest that the tasks are important, which does not match
the context. Only (C) fits the tone and context of the paragraph and is
more precise than “boring.”
36. A
253
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify the central idea and then review the answer
choices to find the one that best supports it.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about the importance of
gaining a real-world perspective on classroom knowledge. Choice (A)
supports this central idea by showing how Kelli’s internship will allow
her to apply her classroom knowledge to the real world.
37. D
254
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Skim the paragraph to determine what content the
sentences have in common.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph discusses the safety training
Kelli is required to complete and explains how this training will offer
her an advantage over other job applicants. Choice (D) most effectively
establishes the main topic of the paragraph; it introduces the kind of
certification Kelli will earn.
38. A
255
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Analyze the sentence to determine which phrase best
fits the context.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. “Stand out”
means that Kelli will clearly be noticed when compared with other
applicants.
39. D
256
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Examine the structure of the sentence and identify the
pronoun or pronouns that match the antecedent. Use the word
“everyone” in a simple sentence to determine if it’s singular or plural:
for example, “Everyone goes.” “Everyone” is a singular pronoun
referring to a person, so it requires a singular possessive pronoun.
Getting to the Answer: Using the plural “their” is accepted only in
informal usage. Choice (D) is the correct answer because it correctly
matches the antecedent in number and appropriately identifies both
gender options, since the antecedent did not specify a gender.
40. A
257
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine the need for punctuation within the
sentence. “For” and “from” are both prepositions, a clue that both
phrases are correctly set off with commas.
Getting to the Answer: Because both phrases are dependent on the
remainder of the sentence, they are correctly connected with commas.
Choice (A) is correct.
41. B
258
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: In a sentence with a series of actions, make sure all
verbs or verb forms are parallel.
Getting to the Answer: Focusing on the action verbs, it becomes clear
that they should all end in “-ing.” Inconsistencies in this pattern result in
a lack of parallel structure. Choice (B) is correct, as it uses the gerund
form (nouns formed by adding “-ing” to verbs) of all four action verbs.
42. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Identify the subject and predicate of each sentence to
determine if it is a complete sentence or a fragment.
Getting to the Answer: As the sentences are written in A, the first one
is an incomplete sentence, or fragment. Only (D) correctly and concisely
combines the two to eliminate the fragment.
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43. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Often, when a sentence is long, it’s a good idea to
see if there are ways to edit out certain words or phrases to make the
sentence more concise.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. By leaving out the
phrase “though she is losing her summer,” this answer choice conveys
the intended meaning of the sentence with logic and concise language.
44. B
260
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Make sure you understand the information conveyed
by the graphic’s labels before you attempt to choose the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The passage tells you that Kelli’s chosen field
is oil and energy, represented by the bar on the far right of the graphic.
Choice (B) is the correct answer, as it matches the information that the
graphic provides about the number of oil and energy interns per 1,000
hires noted in the y-axis.
261
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
262
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: In a real-world scenario, the slope of a line
represents a unit rate and the y-intercept represents a flat fee or a
starting amount.
Getting to the Answer: The cost of one linear foot is the same as the
unit rate (the cost per linear foot), which is represented by the slope of
the line. Use the grid-lines and the axis labels to count the rise and the
run from the y-intercept of the line (0, 150) to the next point that hits an
intersection of two grid-lines. Pay careful attention to how the grid-lines
are marked (by 5s on the x-axis and by 25s on the y-axis). The line rises
75 units and runs 5 units, so the slope is  dollars per linear foot
of fence. Note that you could also use the slope formula and two points
from the graph to find the unit rate.
2. C
263
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t be tempted—you can’t simply cancel one term
when a polynomial is divided by a monomial. Instead, find the greatest
common factor of both the numerator and the denominator. Factor out the
GCF from the numerator and from the denominator, and then you can
cancel it.
Getting to the Answer: The GCF is 12 x .2
3. C
264
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Corresponding sides of similar triangles are
proportional, so write a proportion (paying careful attention to the order
of the sides) using the sides that you know and the side that you’re
looking for. Then, solve the proportion for the missing side.
Getting to the Answer: Call the missing side x. Write a proportion
using words first, and then fill in the lengths of the sides that you know:
The length of  is 4.
4. A
265
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Recognizing the different forms of a quadratic
equation can save valuable time on Test Day. Each of the answer
choices is given in vertex form, so start by matching the vertex of the
parabola in the graph to the correct equation.
Getting to the Answer: When a quadratic equation is written in vertex
form, y  = a ( x  – h )  + k , the vertex is (h, k). The vertex of the
parabola in the graph is (2, 5); therefore, the equation should look like
y  = a ( x  – 2)  + 5. This means you can eliminate B and C. To choose
between (A) and D, consider the value of a. The parabola in the graph
opens downward, so a must be negative. This means (A) is correct.
2
2
5. B
266
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You can approach this question conceptually or
concretely. Drawing a quick sketch is most likely the safest approach.
Getting to the Answer: Line L shown in the graph rises from left to
right, so it has a positive slope. Once reflected over the x-axis, it will
fall from left to right, so the new line will have a negative slope. This
means you can eliminate C and D. Now, draw a quick sketch of the
reflected line on the coordinate plane in your test booklet and count the
rise (or fall) and the run from one point to the next.
The reflected line falls 2 units and runs 4 units, so the slope is 
which reduces to 
267
6. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Attention to detail is the key to answering this
question correctly. You simply need to combine like terms, being careful
to distribute negative signs where appropriate.
Getting to the Answer: Break the calculation into steps: Find 2p, find
q + r, and then subtract the results. Arranging the terms in descending
order will help keep them organized.
7. A
Difficulty: Medium
268
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: The roots of an equation are the same as its
solutions. Take a peek at the answer choices—they contain radicals,
which tells you that the equation can’t be factored. Instead, either
complete the square or solve the equation using the quadratic formula,
whichever you are most comfortable using.
Getting to the Answer: The equation is already written in the form y  =
ax  + bx  + c  and the coefficients are fairly small, so using the
quadratic formula is probably the quickest method. Jot down the values
that you’ll need: a  = 2, b  = 4, and c  = –3. Then, substitute these values
into the quadratic formula and simplify:
This is not one of the answer choices, so simplify the radical. To do this,
look for a perfect square that divides into 40 and take its square root.
2
269
Be careful—you can’t simplify the answer any further because you
cannot divide the square root of 10 by 2.
8. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Although this question asks where the graphs of the
functions intersect, it is not necessary to actually graph them.
Understanding the connection between graphing the equations and the
algebra behind the graphs will save valuable time on Test Day.
Getting to the Answer: Two graphs intersect at the point where they
have the same x-value and the same y-value. The notations g(x) and h(x)
can both be interpreted as “the y-value at a given value of x,” so set g(x)
270
equal to h(x) and solve for x. Then plug this value into either function to
find the corresponding y-value. Don’t let the fraction intimidate you—
you can write g(x) as a fraction over 1 and use cross-multiplication.
The graphs of the functions will intersect at (6, 13).
9. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When you write an equation in terms of a specific
variable, you are simply solving the equation for that variable. In this
271
question, you’ll need to relate fractional exponents to radicals and
understand how to use negative exponents. Be careful—you’re not just
rewriting the equation, you’re solving it for k.
Getting to the Answer: Raising a quantity to the one-third power is the
same as taking its cube root. Applying a negative exponent to a quantity
is the same as writing its reciprocal. Rewrite the equation using these
properties and then solve for k using inverse operations. Note that the
inverse of taking a cube root of a quantity is cubing the quantity.
10. D
272
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: There are two variables and only one equation, so
you can’t actually solve the equation for c. Instead, recall that an
equation has infinitely many solutions when the left side is identical to
the right side. When this happens, everything cancels out and you get the
equation 0 = 0, which is always true.
Getting to the Answer: Start by simplifying the left side of the
equation. Don’t forget to distribute the negative sign to both terms inside
the parentheses.
Next, quickly compare the left side of the equation to the right side.
Rather than distributing the c, notice that if c were 2, then both sides of
the equation would equal 6 x  − 10, and it would have infinitely many
solutions. Therefore, c is 2.
11. D
273
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question.
Here, the fractions make it look more complicated than it really is, so
start by clearing the fractions by multiplying everything by the least
common denominator, 6.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t need to separate this compound
inequality into pieces. Just remember, whatever you do to one piece, you
must do to all three pieces. Don’t forget to flip the inequality symbols if
you multiply or divide by a negative number.
274
Now, read the inequality symbols carefully. The value of a is between
1.5 and 3, including 1.5, but not including 3, so (D) is the correct
answer.
12. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Some questions cannot be answered using brute
force, but rather by understanding how equations and graphs are related.
The only way a system of inequalities can have no solution is if the
graph consists of two parallel lines with shading in opposite directions
so that there is no overlap.
Getting to the Answer: Start by writing each equation in slope-
intercept form to help you envision what the graphs will look like.
You’ll need to multiply the second equation by –2, so don’t forget to flip
the inequality symbol.
275
Now, think about the graphs. The first equation has a slope of  a y-
intercept of 0, and is shaded below the line. The second equation also
has a slope of  but it has a y-intercept of 2 and is shaded above the
line. This means that no matter what value of k is used (other than 0), the
two lines are parallel and shaded in opposite directions, and thus there
are infinitely many values of k that produce a system with no solution.
13. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When solving a rational equation, start by getting a
common denominator. Then, you can set the numerators equal and solve
for the variable. Don’t forget, however: If the answer produces zero in
any denominator, then it is not a valid answer.
Getting to the Answer: The denominators are almost the same already;
you just need to multiply the top and bottom of the first term by 2, factor
the denominator of the second term, and you’ll be ready to solve the
equation.
276
Now that the denominators are all the same, you can solve the equation
represented by the numerators.
Be careful—this isn’t the correct answer. Because there are variables in
the denominator, you must check the solution to make sure it isn’t
extraneous, or in other words, doesn’t cause a 0 in the denominator of
any term. Unfortunately, if x  = 7, then all of the denominators are zero
(and division by zero is not possible), so the equation has no solution.
14. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Being able to convert equations to different forms is
a valuable skill to master. For example, when the equation of a circle is
2 2 2
277
written in the form ( x  – h )  + ( y  – k )  = r , you can easily find the
center and the radius of the circle.
Getting to the Answer: The shortest distance from A to B is through the
center of the circle, along the diameter, which is twice the radius, so you
need to find r. To do this, complete the square for the x-terms and for the
y-terms. Start by reordering the terms. Then, take the coefficient of the x-
term and divide it by 2, square it, and add the result to the two terms
with x-variables. Do the same with the y-term. Remember, you must also
add these amounts to the other side of the equation. This creates a
perfect square of x-terms and y-terms, and the equation will look more
like a circle.
This means that the radius of the circle is  so the diameter is
10, which is also the distance from A to B. Note that you can do a quick
check of your work by looking at the center; according to the equation,
the center is (–3, 2), which appears to match the location of the center
on the graph.
2 2 2
278
15. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is in having a
conceptual understanding of function notation. Here, the input ( x  – 1)
has already been substituted and simplified in the given function. Your
job is to determine what the function would have looked like had x been
the input.
Getting to the Answer: To keep things organized, let u  = x  – 1, the
old input. This means x  = u  + 1. Substitute this into g and simplify:
This means g ( u ) = 3 u  + 11 u  + 1.
When working with function notation, you evaluate the function by
substituting a given input value for the variable in the parentheses. Here,
if the input value is x, then g ( x ) = 3 x  + 11 x  + 1.
2
2
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16. 15
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, being able to interpret a graph that
models a real-world scenario is enough to answer a question. Just be
sure to read the axis labels carefully.
Getting to the Answer: The equilibrium price occurs when the supply
and demand are equal. Graphically, this means where the two lines
intersect. The lines intersect at the point (6, 15). You can see from the
axis labels that price is plotted along the y-axis, so the equilibrium price
is $15.
17. 10.5 or 21/2
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The key word in this question is linear. In a real-
world scenario that involves a constant rate of change, you almost
always need to find the slope and the initial amount so you can write an
280
equation. The question states that the initial mass of the larva was 10
grams, so all you need to do is find the slope.
Getting to the Answer: Write the information given in the question as
ordered pairs (time, mass) so you can find the slope. At t = 0, the larva
has a mass of 10 grams, so one pair is (0, 10). After 48 hours, the larva
has a mass of 14 grams, so a second pair is (48, 14). Now, use the slope
formula:
The equation is  where y represents the mass of the
larva after x hours. Substitute 6 for x to find the mass after 6 hours:
 grams.
18. 4
281
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The notation (f(g(x)) indicates a composition of two
functions which is read “f of g of x.” It means that the output when x is
substituted in g(x) becomes the input for f(x).
Getting to the Answer: First, use the table on the right to find that g(–
1) is 2. This is your new input. Now, use the table on the left to find f(2),
which is 4.
19. 10
282
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: Multiply the two complex numbers just as you would
two binomials (using FOIL). Then, combine like terms. The question
tells you that  If you square both sides of the equation, this is
the same as i  = –1, which is a more useful fact.
Getting to the Answer:
The question asks for a in a  + bi , so the correct answer is 10.
2
20. 50.5
283
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: This question requires a conceptual understanding of
modeling data and properties of quadratic functions. When a regression
model has a correlation coefficient of 1, it means that the model exactly
fits the data. This tells you that you can use what you know about
quadratic functions to answer the question.
Getting to the Answer: The graph of a quadratic function is symmetric
with respect to its axis of symmetry. The axis of symmetry occurs at the
x-value of the vertex, which also happens to be where the maximum (or
minimum) of the function occurs. The question tells you this value—it’s
x  = 56.25. Because x  = 90 is 33.75 (90 – 56.25 = 33.75) units to the
right of the axis of symmetry, you know that the y-value will be the same
as the point that is 33.75 units to the left of the axis of symmetry. This
occurs at x  = 56.25 – 33.75 = 22.5. Read the y-value from the graphing
calculator screenshot to find the answer, which is 50.5.
284
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: A larger sample size is always likely to result in a
lower margin of error, so you can immediately eliminate A and B.
Getting to the Answer: To reduce the margin of error, the society
should use a larger sample size selected from a better representation of
the population. The target population is all adults, not just those that
have gym memberships. Using only adults with gym memberships is
likely to skew the results because these respondents probably exercise
considerably more than people who do not have gym memberships. This
means (D) is correct.
285
2. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Think about this question conceptually. The box
cannot weigh more than 20 pounds, so start there. If the box cannot
weigh more than 20 pounds, this means it can weigh 20 pounds or less,
so the right half of the inequality you are looking for is ≤20. This means
you can eliminate A and C.
Getting to the Answer: Again, think about the question. A box is made
up of ballpoint pens, b, and mechanical pencils, m. Each pen weighs 0.3
ounces, and each pencil weighs 0.2 ounces. The total weight of the box
would be the number of pens, b, multiplied by their weight, 0.3, added
to the number of pencils, m, multiplied by their weight, 0.2. So the
inequality is 0.3 b  + 0.2 m  ≤ 20.
3. C
286
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Finding an x-intercept is easy when you know the
equation of the line—it’s the value of x when y is 0.
Getting to the Answer: Everything you need to write the equation is
shown on the graph. The y-intercept is 5 and the line falls 1 unit and runs
3 units from one point to the next, so the slope is  This means the
equation of the line, in slope-intercept form, is  Now,
set the equation equal to zero and solve for x:
Line Q will intercept the x-axis at 15.
4. D
287
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding function notation will earn you
valuable points on Test Day. When you see an expression such as f ( x ),
it means to substitute the given value for x in the function’s equation.
When there is more than one function involved, pay careful attention to
which function should be evaluated first.
Getting to the Answer: You are looking for the value of f ( x ) at x  = 3.
Because f ( x ) is defined in terms of g ( x ), evaluate g (3) first by
substituting 3 for x in the expression x  + 5.
g (3) = 3 + 5 = 8
f (3) = 2 g (3) = 2(8) = 16
5. C
288
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units. As you read the
question, decide how and when you will need to convert units.
Getting to the Answer: Work backward—you need to know how many
pages of cards will be printed. To find this number, you first need to
know how many cards will be printed. So, start with the number of
agents (which tells you the number of boxes) and multiply by the number
of cards per box:
Next, use the information about pages to finish the calculations:
6. A
289
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The question is asking about  so think about how
fractions work. Larger numerators result in larger values  for
example, is greater than  and smaller denominators result in larger
values  for example, is greater than 
Getting to the Answer: The largest possible value of  is found by
choosing the largest possible value for x and the smallest possible value
for y: 
7. A
290
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Results from a study can only be generalized to the
population from which the sample was taken. Also, keep in mind that
positive correlations do not prove causation.
Getting to the Answer: The study was conducted by the American
Academy of Pediatrics on children in the United States under three, so
the sample is American children under three, which means conclusions
can only be drawn about this population. Also, because correlations do
not prove causation, the only conclusion that can be drawn is that there
is an association between television time and attention disorders for
American children under three years old.
8. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
291
Strategic Advice: The greatest change (in absolute value) in miles
ridden per week could be an increase or a decrease. Try organizing the
changes in a table (or a simple list).
Getting to the Answer: Make a list to show the changes in miles
ridden per week between each pair of consecutive weeks. You don’t
have to worry about whether the change is positive or negative, so to
keep things simple, always subtract the smaller number from the larger
number. Save yourself some time by skipping weeks that clearly have
smaller changes, such as between weeks 1 and 2 and between weeks 3
and 4.
Weeks 2-3: 72 – 64 = 8
Weeks 4-5: 78 – 70 = 8
Weeks 5-6: 85 – 78 = 7
Weeks 6-7: 85 – 75 = 10
Weeks 7-8: 82 – 75 = 7
Of the differences, the greatest is from week 6 to week 7, which is a
change of 10 miles, making (D) correct.
292
9. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Given two points (even when the coordinates are
variables), the slope of the line is 
Getting to the Answer: You are given a numerical value for the slope
and a pair of coordinate points with variables. To find the value of a,
plug the points into the slope formula, and then solve for a.
10. A
293
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Questions about breaking even usually involve
creating a system of equations (one for cost and one for revenue), setting
the equations equal to each other, and solving for the variable.
Getting to the Answer: Create a system of equations at each price
point using n for the number of bathtub lifts. Then solve each system.
Note that the cost equation will be the same for both systems, and it is
already given to you in the question.
294
At the old price, the company needed to sell 14 lifts to break even. At
the new price, it needs to sell 21 lifts, so it needs to sell 21 − 14 = 7
more lifts at the new price to break even.
11. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: The amount of water needed to create the ice portion
of the exhibit is another way of saying the volume of the ice. So, you
need to find the volume of the entire space and then subtract the volume
of the cylinder that runs through the ice. The volume of a rectangular
prism is given by V  = l  × w  × h , and the volume of a cylinder equals
the area of its base times its height, or π r h .
Getting to the Answer: To determine the volume of the ice, start by
decomposing the figure into two rectangular prisms and adding their
volumes. You can decompose the figure left to right or front to back.
Front to back, it looks like the following figure:
2
295
The prism in the back has a volume of 32 × 11 × 4 = 1,408 cubic ft. The
prism in the front has a length of 15 ft and a height of 4 ft, but the width
is missing. Find the missing width by subtracting 11 from 25, which is
14 ft. So, the volume of the prism in the front is 15 × 14 × 4 = 840 cubic
ft. The total volume of the prisms is 1,408 + 840 = 2,248 cubic ft. Be
careful—that’s not the answer. You still need to find the amount of space
taken up by the glycol pipe and subtract it. The diameter of the pipe is 2
ft, so its radius is 1 foot, and the height (or the length in this question) is
32 ft, so the volume is π(1)  (32) ≈  100.53 cubic ft. This means the
amount of ice needed is 2,248 – 100.53 = 2,147.47, or about 2,150
cubic ft.
2
12. D
296
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question guide you to the answer.
You’ll also need to use the answer you found in the previous question,
which is often the case in questions that are grouped together.
Getting to the Answer: The company will use two hoses, each of
which pumps at a rate of 60 gallons per minute, so the rate is actually
120 gallons per minute. Convert the volume you found earlier from
cubic feet to gallons, and then use the rate to find the time.
The answers are given in hours and minutes, so write 134 minutes as 2
hours and 14 minutes, or about 2 hours and 15 minutes.
13. C
Difficulty: Medium
297
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Making connections between equations and their
graphs will save valuable time on this question. The graph of every
quadratic equation is a parabola, which may or may not cross the x-axis,
depending on where its vertex is and which way it opens. Don’t forget
—if the equation is written in vertex form, y  = a ( x  – h )  + k , then the
vertex is ( h , k ), and the value of a tells you which way the parabola
opens.
Getting to the Answer: The graph of an equation that has no solution
does not cross the x-axis, so try to envision the graph of each of the
answer choices. When a quadratic is written in factored form, the
factors tell you the x-intercepts, which means every quadratic equation
that can be written in factored form (over the set of real numbers) must
have solutions. This means you can eliminate B and D. Now, imagine
the graph of the equation in A: The vertex is (5, 3) and a is negative, so
the parabola opens downward and consequently must cross the x-axis.
This means you can eliminate A, and (C) must be correct. The graph of
the equation in (C) has a vertex of (5, 3) and opens up, so it does not
cross the x-axis and, therefore, has no solution.
You could also graph each of the answer choices in your graphing
calculator, but this is not the most time-efficient way to answer the
2
298
question.
14. A
299
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Questions that involve distance, rate, and time can
almost always be solved using the formula Distance = rate × time.
Getting to the Answer: Use the speed, or rate, of the plane from
Boston, 360 mph, and its distance from Chicago, 864 mi, to determine
when it arrived. You don’t know the time, so call it t.
This means it took 2.4 hours for the plane to arrive. This is more than 2
full hours, so multiply 2.4 by 60 to find the number of minutes it took: 60
× 2.4 = 144 minutes. Now determine how long it took the plane from
Kansas City. It left at 8:30 AM and arrived at 10:34 AM, so it took 2
hours and 4 minutes, or 124 minutes. This means the plane from Kansas
City arrived 144 – 124 = 20 minutes before the plane from Boston.
15. B
300
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into short steps (first part of trip,
second part of trip, circling overhead). Before selecting an answer,
make sure you included the results of each step in your calculations.
Getting to the Answer: To get started, you’ll need to find the distance
for each part of the trip—the question only tells you the total distance.
Then, use the formula Distance = rate × time to find how long the plane
flew at 200 mph and then how long it flew at 450 mph.
301
This means the plane flew for a total of 90 + 120 = 210 minutes. Next,
add the time the plane circled overhead: 210 + 25 = 235 minutes. The
total trip took 235 minutes (3 hours and 55 minutes), which means the
plane landed at 8:30 + 3 hours = 11:30 + 55 minutes = 12:25 PM.
16. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The range of a function is the set of possible outputs,
or y-values on a graph.
Getting to the Answer: For all real values of any number t, the value
of t  cannot be negative. This means the smallest possible value of t  is
0 and, consequently, the smallest possible value of h(t) is
2 2
302
 Thus, the number 1 is not in the range of
the function.
You could also graph the function in your graphing calculator and
examine the possible y-values. The graph follows here:
Notice that the lowest point on the graph is (0, 3), which tells you that
the range of the function is h ( t ) ≥ 3.
17. A
303
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Graphically, the solution to a system of equations is
the point or points where the graphs intersect. Whenever a graph with no
grid-lines or axis labels is shown, you are usually interested primarily
in the sign of the coordinates of a point, not the actual values.
Getting to the Answer: The graphs intersect in Quadrant 2 of the
coordinate plane, so the x-value of the point of intersection (or a) is
negative, and the y-value (or b) is positive. The question states that a  =
–3 b , so you can eliminate B right away—the coordinates would have to
be equal if their sum was 0. Now try Picking Numbers. Let b  = 1,
which means a  = –3 and the sum of a  + b  is –2, which is not one of
the answer choices. Try another pair: If b  = 2, then a  = –6, and the sum
is –4. This is still not one of the answer choices, but you should see a
pattern—the x-coordinate will always overpower the y-coordinate,
resulting in a negative sum, so the correct answer must be (A).
18. B
304
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: When comparing two data sets for consistency,
consider both the data center (mean or median) and the spread (standard
deviation or range).
Getting to the Answer: Each set of data has a median of 0, and
Thermostat A also has a mode of 0. Both of these measures indicate
good test results. However, Thermostat A has a greater range of data. If
the company chooses this thermostat, the cooling fan is likely to engage
anywhere from –9 degrees below the target temperature to 10 degrees
above the target temperature. Although this is within the safe
temperature range, it is not as consistent as Thermostat B, which
engaged the fan within 6 degrees on either side of the target temperature.
This means (B) is correct.
19. C
305
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: When a quadratic function is written in factored
form, you can find its zeros by setting each factor equal to 0 and solving
for the variable. Knowing this will save valuable time on Test Day.
Getting to the Answer: Each of the answer choices is written in
factored form, so mentally solve each one by asking yourself what
number would make each factor equal to 0. Then find the sum of the
results:
Choice A: 3 + (−3) ≠ −3. Eliminate.
Choice B: 4 + (−1) ≠ −3. Eliminate.
Choice C: 1 + (−4) = −3, so (C) is correct.
Choice D: 6 + (−3) ≠ −3. Eliminate.
20. D
306
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: A constant added or subtracted inside a function will
shift the function left or right, while a constant added or subtracted from
the outside will shift the function up or down.
Getting to the Answer: Be careful—you’re looking for the value of
p(0), but the graph shows p ( x ) – 4, which means the original graph has
been shifted down 4 units. You’ll need to find the y-value of the graph
when x  = 0, then add 4 to get back up to the original function. The graph
passes through the point (0, 7), so p (0) – 4 = 7. Add 4 to both sides of
the equation to get p (0) = 7 + 4 = 11.
21. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Sometimes writing an equation is the quickest route
to answering a question. Assign a variable to the unknown, write the
equation in words, and then translate from English into math.
307
Getting to the Answer: The unknown in this question is the number of
times Geraldine can wrap the wire around the prism. Call this n. Now,
write an equation in words: Total amount of wire equals distance around
the prism times the number of wraps plus the extra on the ends. To fill in
the numbers, you’ll need to make a few calculations. Because the
dimensions of the prism are given in inches, convert the amount of wire
to inches as well: 18 ft = 18 × 12 = 216 inches. Next, figure out the
distance around the prism using the picture. Don’t forget, you have to go
all the way around: 1.5 + 3.5 + 1.5 + 3.5 = 10 inches. Finally, read the
question again to determine that the extra on the ends is 3 + 3 = 6
inches. Now you’re ready to translate from English into math to write
your equation, and then solve it.
Geraldine can wrap the wire around the prism 21 times.
22. A
308
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: A data set is skewed to the left if the tail (the part
that gets smaller and smaller) is longer on the left, and it is skewed to
the right if the tail is longer on the right. An outlier is a data point that
is set apart from the rest of the data.
Getting to the Answer: The tail of the data shown in the graph is
longer on the left side, so the data is skewed to the left. This means you
can eliminate C and D. The first bar on the left side of the graph clearly
represents outliers, since it is set apart from the rest of the data. To
choose between (A) and B, recall that in a histogram, the heights of the
bars tell you how many data points fit in the given category. The height
of the bar is 2, so the data has two outliers, which means (A) is correct.
23. D
309
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Try adding numbers to the graph.
Getting to the Answer: Add reasonable numbers to the graph to help
you answer the question. An example follows:
Use the numbers to help you evaluate each statement. It took Liam and
Arianna each 30 minutes to walk home, so A and B are incorrect.
Arianna walked 3 miles in 30 minutes, while Liam only walked 2 miles
in 30 minutes; their rates are not the same, so C is also incorrect. This
means (D) must be true. Arianna started out farther away than Liam, so
she must have walked at a faster rate to arrive at home in the same
amount of time.
310
24. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The slopes between sets of points that lie on the
same line are equal. You can find the slope between points using the
slope formula or by looking for patterns.
Getting to the Answer: Before immediately jumping to the slope
formula, take a peek at the answer choices—all the x-coordinates of the
points are multiples of 4, so looking for a pattern is the quickest way to
answer this question. It may help to put all the points in a table
(including those given in the question stem), with the x-coordinates
arranged from smallest to largest, and then see which point doesn’t fit
the pattern.
311
x y
−4 −8
0 −5
4 −1
8 1
12 4
16 7
Notice that all the x-coordinates increase by 4, while most of the y-
coordinates increase by 3. For the slope between each pair of points to
be equal, the y-coordinate at x  = 4 would need to be –2, not –1, so the
point given in (B) does not lie on the line.
25. A
312
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Identify which pieces of information from the table
you need. The question asks for the probability that a randomly chosen
person from the study is employed and has a college degree, so you need
the total of both females and males with college degrees who are
employed compared to all the participants in the study.
Getting to the Answer: There are 188 employed females with a
college degree and 177 employed males with a college degree for a
total of 365 employed people with a college degree out of 800
participants, so the probability is  which reduces to 
26. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Translate from English into math: The number of
cells in the original sample means the value of the function at 0 hours, or
313
f(0). The first x-value on the graph is 4, not 0, so you’ll need to use the
values shown in the calculator screenshot to write an equation for the
model.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that the y-values in the calculator
screenshot double as the x-values increase by 1. This means that the
model is an exponential growth function of the form .
Choose a point from the calculator screenshot such as (4, 136),
substitute the values into the function, and solve for f (0):
The y-axis title tells you that the numbers are given in thousands, so
there were 8,500 white blood cells per microliter in the original
sample.
You could also work backward from the calculator screenshot by
dividing by 2 four times (from 4 hours to 3 hours, 3 hours to 2 hours, 2
hours to 1 hour, and 1 hour to before the patient contracted the disease).
The result is 136 ÷ 2  = 136 ÷ 16 = 8.5, which in thousands is 8,500.4
314
27. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Drawing a sketch is the key to answering this
question.
Notice that two radii and an arc form each section, so the amount of
steel needed for one section is the length of the radius times 2, plus the
length of the outer arc. Once you know this, you can simply multiply by
4.
Getting to the Answer: You are given the total area, which means you
can find the radius by substituting 64π for A in the area formula, A  = π r
.2
315
For auctions, the arena is divided into 12 equal sections through the
center, so divide 360 by 12 to find that the central angle measure for
each section is 30°. Now use the arc length formula:
The amount of steel needed for one section is 
so the amount needed for all four sections is
28. A
316
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: To write the equation of a line, you need two things
—the starting amount (y-intercept) and the rate of change (slope).
Substitute these values into slope-intercept form of a line ( y  = mx  +
b ), and you have your equation.
Getting to the Answer: The initial amount of water in the tank on
Saturday is 70 gallons, so you already know b. To find m, you’ll need to
use the information given in the question to write two data points.
The amount of water in the tank depends on how long Lena has been
filling it, so the number of gallons is the dependent variable and time is
the independent variable. This tells you that the data points should be
written in the form (time, gallons). At time = 0 on Saturday, the number
of gallons is 70, so the data point is (0, 70). After 1 hour and 50
minutes, which is 60 + 50 = 110 minutes, the tank is full (400 gallons),
so another data point is (110, 400). Now, use the slope formula to find
that the rate of change is  gallons per minute.
Substituting m and b into slope-intercept form results in the equation y
= 3 x  + 70, so (A) is correct.
317
29. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Read the question, organizing important information
as you go. You need to find the ratio of small units to large units. You’re
given two ratios: small to medium and medium to large.
Getting to the Answer: Both of the given ratios contain medium size
units, but the medium amounts (5 and 3) are not identical. To directly
compare them, find a common multiple (15). Multiply each ratio by the
factor that will make the number of medium units equal to 15.
small to medium: (3:5) × (3:3) = 9:15
medium to large: (3:2) × (5:5) = 15:10
Now that the number of medium units needed is the same in both ratios,
you can merge the two ratios to compare small to large directly:
9:15:10. Therefore, the proper ratio of small units to large units is 9:10.
318
30. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Think of the rate given in the question in terms of the
constant term you see on the right-hand side of the equation. Working
together, the two air purifiers can clean the air in 7 hours. This is
equivalent to saying that they can clean  of the air in 1 hour.
Getting to the Answer: If  is the portion of the air the two purifiers
can clean together in 1 hour, then each term on the left side of the
equation represents the portion that each purifier can clean individually
in one hour. Since the new model is 3 times as fast as the older model,
 represents the portion of the air the new model can clean in 1 hour,
and  represents the portion of the air the older model can clean in 1
hour.
31. 9/26 or .346
319
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question.
Distribute the fractions because the numbers inside each set of
parentheses are evenly divisible by the denominators of the fractions by
which they are being multiplied.
Getting to the Answer:
32. 4
320
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When solving any type of equation, you should
always think of inverse operations. The inverse of raising a quantity to
the  power is raising it to the  power.
Getting to the Answer: Eliminate the exponent using inverse
operations and then go from there.
Now, you have two choices—you can enter this value into your
calculator as 32 (̂2/5) or you can evaluate the number using rules of
exponents:
321
33. 801
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Draw a chart or diagram detailing the various price
reductions for each 30-day period.
Getting to the Answer: You’ll need to make several calculations, so
don’t round until the final answer.
Date % of Most Recent Price Resulting Price
Jan. 15 100 – 40% = 60% $1,848 × 0.6 = $1,108.80
Feb. 1 100 – 15% = 85% $1,108.80 × 0.85 = $942.48
March 1 100 – 25% = 85% $942.48 × 0.85 = $801.108
You can stop here because the item was sold on March 10th. Before
gridding in your answer, check that $801 is not less than 30% of the
original price: 0.30 × $1,848 = $554.40. It’s not, so the final selling
price, rounded to the nearest whole dollar, was $801.
322
34. 2/3 or .666 or .667
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: Trig functions usually apply to right triangles, so
draw in the altitude of the triangle to get a better picture of which parts
of the triangle are useful. Then use the identity 
Getting to the Answer: Two angles of the triangle have equal
measures, so the triangle is isosceles, which means that drawing an
altitude from the top to the base will bisect the base, resulting in two
smaller right triangles as shown here:
Now, use the identity  so  which
can be simplified to 
323
35. 3.5 or 7/2
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Remember that parallel lines have the same slope.
Use the slope formula  to find the slope of .
Getting to the Answer:  passes through the points (0, 0) and (2,
4.5), so its slope is  Line B has the same slope and
passes through (0, –1), so you can use the slope formula again to find the
y-coordinate of the given point, (2, y).
The y-coordinate of the point is 3.5.
36. 3/10
324
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Whenever rates are given in different units, start by
converting to the same units. In most cases, converting to the smaller unit
avoids fractions and decimals.
Getting to the Answer: Start with nickel because the weight is already
in ounces: $10.08 ÷ 24 = $0.42 per ounce. Now find the per-ounce rate
for copper. There are 16 ounces in one pound, so three pounds is 48
ounces: $8.64 ÷ 48 = $0.18 per ounce. So, if a person were to bring in
equal amounts of each, he would receive $0.18 per ounce of copper and
$0.42 per ounce of nickel. To find the fractional portion he would
receive from the copper, set up a comparison between the amount
received for copper and the total amount received, $0.18 + $0.42 =
$0.60. The portion of the total amount he receives from copper would
be  which reduces to 
37. 3
325
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: This question takes just a bit of patience and careful
reading and interpretation of the graph.
Getting to the Answer: Each grid-line along the vertical axis
represents 5 units, so look for points that are at least two grid-lines
away from the line of best fit. The people who have BMIs of 20, 25, and
28 have LDLs that are 10 or more mg/dL greater than the LDLs
predicted by the line of best fit. This represents 3 people.
38. 9.4
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Percent error shows the deviation of an actual value
from an expected value. The formula for percent error is
 To find the expected value, you’ll need to
find the equation of the line of best fit using the data points given in the
question.
326
Getting to the Answer: First, determine the equation of the line of best
fit. The slope is
So far, the equation looks like y  = 7 x  + b . Next, use either of the two
points to find b:
The equation is y  = 7 x  – 30, so the expected value for a person with a
BMI of 25 is 7(25) – 30 = 145.
The doctor’s patient had an LDL of 160, so the percent error is
Be sure to follow directions. Rounded to the nearest tenth of a percent,
the correct answer is 9.4.
327
328
SAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text.
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
329
3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task.
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors.
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
330
2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task.
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors.
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
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1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text.
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show control of the conventions of standard written
English, resulting in certain errors that detract from
the quality of the writing.
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text.
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
332
Sample Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
Anyone who watches NFL football every Sunday is most likely aware
that the athletes on the field make a significant amount of money for their
efforts. The NFL generates a lot of income from television contracts,
corporate sponsors, and advertisers, and the teams themselves benefit
from ticket and merchandise sales. The players in turn are paid market-
appropriate salaries. Anyone who watches college football games on
Saturday will see similar, if slightly younger athletes, yet how much are
those players making? The author of this article correctly notes these
players don’t earn a salary, and that’s something he would like to
correct. His argument? College athletes deserve compensation for their
work just like any other employee.
The author begins by detailing how much money corporations, athletic
conferences, and universities make from advertising and sponsor
revenue. The Pacific-12 conference, for example, “signed television
rights deals worth $3 billion.” Speaking of television, CBS and Turner
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show control of the conventions of standard written
English, resulting in numerous errors that undermine
the quality of the writing.
333
Broadcasting made a lot of money as well—thirty seconds of
commercial advertising during the Final Four cost $700,000. Schools
with successful programs also do well. The article points out that the
University of Texas football program netted $77.9 million in 2011–
2012.
The author uses this evidence to portray corporations, athletic
conferences, and universities as the “unscrupulous tycoons from a
Dickens novel.” Those familiar with Dickens can picture more than one
wealthy character who doesn’t care for the working poor left eking out
miserable lives in relative poverty. And who are these working poor?
Student athletes, of course! The author uses the Dickens metaphor to
convince the reader that corporations, athletic conferences, and
universities do not have the student athletes’ interests at heart. He then
pivots to how much the athletes make for their efforts on behalf of the
“unscrupulous tycoons”—absolutely nothing.
How much is the average student scholarship worth? According to the
author, most leave a few thousand dollars in yearly out-of-pocket
expenses to the student in spite of an average “forty hours a week”
dedicated to their sport. And if an athlete is unable to play due to injury,
even that scholarship money can be revoked. The author uses this
information to compare a student athlete with an employee who benefits
from federal and state labor laws. The comparison is painfully clear and
334
made even more so when the author points out that student athletes do
not have the right to unionize.
Throughout his essay, the author has effectively painted a Dickensian
picture in which student athletes literally sweat, strain, and toil under
the watchful eye of their universities, while those in power rake in
millions of dollars. The evidence presented convincingly leads the
reader to one conclusion: that student athletes deserve to be
compensated.
Sample Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
Anyone who watches NFL football Sunday knows that those players
make a lot of money. They make so much money because the teams and
the league make money from television and advertising. But what about
college football players or other college athletes? They don’t make any
money at all. The author thinks that isn’t right. He argues that student
athletes should get paid for their work just like anyone else.
The author talks about how much money schools, conferences, and
corporations make off of college sports. It’s a lot of money. For
example, a television deal was worth $3 billion for the Pacific-12
conference, and it cost $700,000 for a television commercial during the
Final Four basketball tournament. The author includes this to make the
335
point that other people make a lot of money, but student athletes don’t.
This helps the reader feel some sympathy for the players and supports
the author’s argument that they should be paid.
The author then turns to a comparison of student athletes and employees.
Student athletes don’t earn salaries. They do get a scholarship, but that
still leaves many of them short of money to pay the bills. They work
forty hours a week. If they are hurt, then they may lose their scholarship
because they can’t play. The author talks about this to compare how
student athletes earn money with how typical employees earn money.
Employees have legal rights, but student athletes don’t really have any.
This is a good comparison, and it makes the reader believe that student
athletes should be paid like employees, which is the author’s concluding
point.
336
SAT Practice Test 2 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
337
338
339
340
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
Three Men in a Boat
341
The following passage is adapted from the nineteenth-century novel
Three Men in a Boat. In this scene, George, William Samuel, Harris,
Jerome, and a dog named Montmorency take a typical boating holiday of
the time on a Thames River camping skiff. Jerome, the narrator, shares
the story of how the journey with his friends began.
George had towed us up to Staines, and we had
taken the boat from there, and it seemed that we
were dragging fifty tons after us, and were walking
forty miles. It was half-past seven when we were
through, and we all got in, and sculled up close to(5)
the left bank, looking out for a spot to haul up in.
We had originally intended to go on to Magna
Carta Island, a sweetly pretty part of the river,
where it winds through a soft, green valley, and to
camp in one of the many picturesque inlets to be(10)
found round that tiny shore. But, somehow, we did
not feel that we yearned for the picturesque nearly
so much now as we had earlier in the day. A bit of
water between a coal-barge and a gas-works would
have quite satisfied us for that night. We did not(15)
want scenery. We wanted to have our supper and
go to bed. However, we did pull up to the point—
“Picnic Point,” it is called—and dropped into a
very pleasant nook under a great elm-tree, to the
342
spreading roots of which we fastened the boat.(20)
Then we thought we were going to have supper
(we had dispensed with tea, so as to save time), but
George said no; that we had better get the canvas
up first, before it got quite dark, and while we could
see what we were doing. Then, he said, all our work(25)
would be done, and we could sit down to eat with
an easy mind.
That canvas wanted more putting up than
I think any of us had bargained for. It looked so
simple in the abstract. You took five iron arches,(30)
like gigantic croquet hoops, and fitted them up
over the boat, and then stretched the canvas over
them, and fastened it down: it would take quite ten
minutes, we thought.
That was an under-estimate.(35)
We took up the hoops, and began to drop them
into the sockets placed for them. You would not
imagine this to be dangerous work; but, looking
back now, the wonder to me is that any of us are
alive to tell the tale. They were not hoops, they were(40)
demons. First they would not fit into their sockets
at all, and we had to jump on them, and kick them,
and hammer at them with the boat-hook; and,
when they were in, it turned out that they were the
343
wrong hoops for those particular sockets, and they(45)
had to come out again.
But they would not come out, until two of us
had gone and struggled with them for five minutes,
when they would jump up suddenly, and try and
throw us into the water and drown us. They had(50)
hinges in the middle, and, when we were not look-
ing, they nipped us with these hinges in delicate
parts of the body; and, while we were wrestling
with one side of the hoop, and endeavouring to
persuade it to do its duty, the other side would(55)
come behind us in a cowardly manner, and hit us
over the head.
We got them fixed at last, and then all that was
to be done was to arrange the covering over them.
George unrolled it, and fastened one end over the(60)
nose of the boat. Harris stood in the middle to take
it from George and roll it on to me, and I kept by
the stern to receive it. It was a long time coming
down to me. George did his part all right, but it
was new work to Harris, and he bungled it.(65)
How he managed it I do not know, he could
not explain himself; but by some mysterious
process or other he succeeded, after ten minutes of
superhuman effort, in getting himself completely
344
rolled up in it. He was so firmly wrapped round(70)
and tucked in and folded over, that he could not get
out. He, of course, made frantic struggles for free-
dom… and, in doing so, knocked over George.…
1. The men change their minds about their destination because
the weather is turning bad.(A)
they are too tired to go farther.(B)
they have lost interest in scenery.(C)
the supplies are running low.(D)
2. As used in line 22, “dispensed with” most nearly means
administered.(A)
distributed.(B)
served.(C)
skipped.(D)
3. From paragraphs 1-3, it can be reasonably inferred that the men are
345
thirsty and sore.(A)
tired and hungry.(B)
panicked and frantic.(C)
curious and content.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-4 (“George had … forty miles”)(A)
Lines 13-15 (“A bit of water … for that night”)(B)
Lines 16-17 (“We wanted … to bed”)(C)
Lines 25-27 (“Then, he said, … easy mind”)(D)
5. What theme does the passage communicate through the experiences of
its characters?
It’s important to plan in advance.(A)
Conflicts among friends should be avoided.(B)
False confidence can lead to difficulties.(C)
Every group benefits from a leader.(D)
346
6. It can be reasonably inferred that which of the following is true?
None of the men were skilled boaters.(A)
Some of the men were skilled boaters.(B)
The narrator is the only one with boating experience.(C)
George is the only one with boating experience.(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 23-25 (“we had better … doing”)(A)
Lines 28-29 (“That canvas … bargained for”)(B)
Lines 58-59 (“We got … over them”)(C)
Lines 70-72 (“He was so … get out”)(D)
8. As used in line 30, “in the abstract” most nearly means
in summary.(A)
in the directions.(B)
in the ideal.(C)
in theory.(D)
347
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Kennedy Speech
The following passage is adapted from President John F. Kennedy’s 1962
speech, which has come to be called “We Choose to Go to the Moon.”
9. In paragraph 7, the main rhetorical effect of the author’s descriptions of
the hoops is to
convey anger through the use of hyperbole.(A)
convey humor through the use of personification.(B)
convey severity through the use of understatement.(C)
convey confidence through the use of active verbs.(D)
10. The tone of the passage is primarily one of
fear and panic.(A)
comic reflection.(B)
arrogant frustration.(C)
mockery and disgust.(D)
348
Kennedy delivered the speech at Rice University in Texas.
We meet at a college noted for knowledge, in a
city noted for progress, in a State noted for strength,
and we stand in need of all three, for we meet in an
hour of change and challenge, in a decade of hope
and fear, in an age of both knowledge and igno-(5)
rance. The greater our knowledge increases, the
greater our ignorance unfolds.…
No man can fully grasp how far and how fast we
have come, but condense, if you will, the 50,000 years
of man’s recorded history in a time span of but a(10)
half-century. Stated in these terms, we know very little
about the first forty years, except at the end of them
advanced man had learned to use the skins of animals
to cover them. Then about ten years ago, under this
standard, man emerged from his caves to construct(15)
other kinds of shelter. Only five years ago man learned
to write and use a cart with wheels. Christianity began
less than two years ago. The printing press came this
year, and then less than two months ago, during this
whole fifty-year span of human history, the steam(20)
engine provided a new source of power.
Newton explored the meaning of gravity. Last
month electric lights and telephones and auto-
349
mobiles and airplanes became available. Only last
week did we develop penicillin and television and(25)
nuclear power, and now if America’s new spacecraft
succeeds in reaching Venus, we will have literally
reached the stars before midnight tonight.
This is a breathtaking pace, and such a pace
cannot help but create new ills as it dispels old,(30)
new ignorance, new problems, new dangers. Surely
the opening vistas of space promise high costs and
hardships, as well as high reward.
So it is not surprising that some would have us
stay where we are a little longer to rest, to wait. But(35)
this city of Houston, this State of Texas, this coun-
try of the United States was not built by those who
waited and rested and wished to look behind them.
This country was conquered by those who moved
forward—and so will space.(40)
William Bradford, speaking in 1630 of the
founding of the Plymouth Bay Colony, said that all
great and honorable actions are accompanied with
great difficulties, and both must be enterprised and
overcome with answerable courage.(45)
If this capsule history of our progress teaches
us anything, it is that man, in his quest for knowl-
edge and progress, is determined and cannot be
350
deterred. The exploration of space will go ahead,
whether we join in it or not, and it is one of the(50)
great adventures of all time.…
This generation does not intend to founder in
the backwash of the coming age of space. We mean
to be a part of it—we mean to lead it. For the eyes
of the world now look into space, to the moon and(55)
to the planets beyond, and we have vowed that we
shall not see it governed by a hostile flag of con-
quest, but by a banner of freedom and peace. We
have vowed that we shall not see space filled with
weapons of mass destruction, but with instruments(60)
of knowledge and understanding.
Yet the vows of this nation can only be fulfilled if
we in this nation are first.… In short, our leader-
ship in science and in industry, our hopes for peace
and security, our obligations to ourselves as well(65)
as others, all require us to make this effort … to
become the world’s leading space-faring nation.
We set sail on this new sea because there is new
knowledge to be gained, and new rights to be won,
and they must be won and used for the progress of(70)
all people.…
There is no strife, no prejudice, no national conflict
in outer space as yet. Its hazards are hostile to
351
This is a college sports reference. Kennedy’s audience (at Rice University) would have understood
the University of Texas at Austin to be the challenging athletic opponent of Rice.
us all. Its conquest deserves the best of all mankind,
and its opportunity for peaceful cooperation may(75)
never come again. But why, some say, the moon?
Why choose this as our goal? And they may well
ask why climb the highest mountain? Why,
thirty-five years ago, fly the Atlantic? Why does
Rice play Texas?(80) 1
We choose to go to the moon. We choose to go
to the moon in this decade and do the other things,
not because they are easy, but because they are
hard, because that goal will serve to organize and
measure the best of our energies and skills.…(85)
1
11. What is Kennedy’s purpose for giving this speech?
To present a chronology of human achievements(A)
To explain the threat that other countries pose to the United States(B)
To encourage students to support the United States in the race to
reach the moon
(C)
To promote increased funding for NASA and space exploration(D)
352
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 8-11 (“No man … half-century”)(A)
Lines 46-49 (“If this … deterred”)(B)
Lines 49-51 (“The exploration … all time”)(C)
Lines 81-85 (“We choose … skills”)(D)
13. As used in line 44, “enterprised” most nearly means
undertaken.(A)
funded.(B)
promoted.(C)
determined.(D)
14. What does Kennedy suggest about the motivations of other countries
attempting to reach the moon?
They wish to embarrass the United States by reaching the moon first.(A)
They are trying to advance technology for the good of humanity.(B)
They want to use the moon for hostile military actions.(C)
They lack the scientific knowledge to accomplish their goals.(D)
353
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 24-28 (“Only last … tonight”)(A)
Lines 29-31 (“This is … new dangers”)(B)
Lines 58-61 (“We have … understanding”)(C)
Lines 68-71 (“We set … all people”)(D)
16. As used in line 52, “founder” most nearly means
begin.(A)
innovate.(B)
dissolve.(C)
sink.(D)
17. According to Kennedy, what is true of progress?
It creates new problems as it solves old ones.(A)
It was minimal until the invention of written language.(B)
It must be accomplished cooperatively with other countries.(C)
It leads to an increase in global hostilities.(D)
354
18. The statement in lines 63-67 (“In short, … space-faring nation”) is
important to the overall argument in its suggestion that
the monetary rewards for space exploration are too great to pass up.(A)
the U.S. military will never use space for strategic operations.(B)
the United States is better equipped than other nations to ensure that
space remains a peaceful frontier.
(C)
the space race is an opportunity to solidify the position of the United
States as a military superpower.
(D)
19. Based on the information in the passage, to what group can Kennedy’s
audience best be compared?
Soldiers who were drafted for service and bravely served their
country
(A)
Farmers who have worked in the field for months and now see their
harvest
(B)
Students who are studying and preparing for graduation(C)
Pioneers who are about to embark on a difficult but important
journey
(D)
20. Kennedy most likely included paragraphs 2 and 3 in order to
355
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passages and
supplementary material.
Paired Passages—Viking Longboats
Passage 1
persuade the audience to fund the race to the moon.(A)
frame space exploration as a logical next step in human progress.(B)
warn of the potential hazards of technological advances.(C)
encourage audience members to be leaders of their generation.(D)
At the end of the eighth century, the
Scandinavians known as the Vikings took to the
seas, traveling to areas including Iceland, Greenland,
England, Ireland, France, and Russia, and even reach-
ing the shores of America some 500 years before(5)
Columbus. The Vikings’ innovations in shipbuilding
were central to constructing their empire. They relied
on the superior ships conjured in the minds of master
shipwrights for travel and exploration. Using vessels
such as the longboat, these fascinating seafarers(10)
opened up new connections. The great longboat itself
356
attests to their outstanding maritime skills.
Before archaeologists discovered ships buried in
the muck of Danish fjords, Viking travel was a mys-
tery, but ship reconstruction has provided some(15)
answers. Their ships were designed and built with
uncommon ingenuity to serve the Vikings’ purpos-
es. The secret of the signature Viking ship is found
in its unique construction. The invention of the
longboat meant Vikings could travel vast distances(20)
over treacherous open water. In contrast to modern
sailboats, the longboat was riveted together with
enough spacing so that the boat was flexible.
It could bend as it rode over waves instead of taking
the full impact of a swell. Incredibly, simple tools(25)
such as axes, hammers, and scrapers were all that
carpenters used to frame a ship.
Additionally, the sleek longboat was an exceed-
ingly streamlined vessel. One kind of longboat
could ride high by skimming the waves to swiftly(30)
transport a crew of about 30. This fast ship had a
draft of as little as 20 inches, allowing navigation in
extremely shallow water.
While its shallow draft and ease of construction
made the Viking longboat a superior seafaring vessel,(35)
the seamanship of the Norsemen was the most deci-
357
Passage 2
sive factor in the success of their boats. For example,
Vikings navigated by looking at the sky through
a crystal, which was known as a sunstone. The
composition of the crystal was recently identified as(40)
a transparent calcite common in Iceland.
The Vikings’ outstanding talents in ship con-
struction, coupled with their superlative skills as
navigators, greatly impacted Scandinavia. In turn,
through their explorations, the Vikings influenced(45)
the rest of the world.
The Gokstad ship was excavated in 1880 and
dates to around AD 890; discovery of this Viking
ship revealed innovations in construction. Aptly
named “longboats,” such ships were long and(50)
narrow and could travel on the open sea as well as
along rivers. The Gokstad ship is considered the
best preserved of the Viking longboats. It reveals
the technical achievements of the Vikings because
the shape was different from the norm.(55)
The Gokstad ship owes nothing to earlier boat
designs, including those of the Egyptians and
Romans. The longboat was developed specifically
for Arctic waters. Its shallow draft, plus its ability to
358
change direction quickly, was a tremendous asset to(60)
the Vikings. The Gokstad ship is 78 feet long with
two high, pointed ends. Constructed out of sturdy
oak, it features a low freeboard  and is therefore1
fast, the kind of ship used to carry Vikings on raids
across the North Sea.(65)
The ship has been restored to reveal the Gok-
stad’s original shape. With holes for 16 oars
along each side of the ship, the crew would have
numbered about 34, counting 32 oarsmen plus a
steerman and lookout. Oars were typically 17 to(70)
19 feet long, constructed of pine with a narrow
blade that made each oar both efficient and light-
weight. In addition, the Gokstad features a mast
near the center that carried a large rectangular sail.
The Gokstad is different from earlier boat(75)
designs in its planking, or framing out, as well; its
carvel planking made the ship watertight. Carvel
planking involves attaching wooden planks to a
frame and having the planks butt up edge to edge,
providing support from the frame and forming a(80)
smooth surface.
Contrary to popular belief, the Vikings were
not just warriors; they were also coastal farmers,
fishers, hunters, and craftsmen. Their lands were
359
freeboard: the distance between the level of the water and the upper edge of the side of a boat
harsh, however, and increases in their population(85)
forced some men to search for other opportunities.
Vikings, therefore, turned to trade and sea raiding.
Their swift sailing ships, already perfect for coastal
fishing, enabled Vikings to attack ports and towns,
making these seamen effective as both raiders and(90)
traders.
Truly, the Gokstad ship is representative of a
great leap in seafaring, for this finest expression of
technical achievement could serve many purposes.
In 1982, its swiftness and seaworthiness was proven(95)
when a copy, the Hjemkomst, journeyed from the
United States to Norway.
1
360
21. The central idea of Passage 1 is that Vikings
361
excelled at shipbuilding and navigation.(A)
had a passion for global exploration.(B)
helped map the known world of their time.(C)
led European peoples in technological innovation.(D)
22. The introductory paragraph of Passage 1 most strongly suggests that
which of the following is true?
The Vikings depended on sea trade and fishing to survive.(A)
The Vikings expanded cultural interactions through seafaring.(B)
The Vikings relied on colonization to support a growing population.(C)
The Vikings sustained their economic development through sea
raids.
(D)
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-3 (“At the end … to the seas”)(A)
Lines 7-9 (“They relied … exploration”)(B)
Lines 9-11 (“Using vessels … connections”)(C)
Lines 11-12 (“The great longboat … skills”)(D)
362
24. The author of Passage 2 most likely chose to write about the Gokstad
ship because it
contradicts prevailing beliefs about modern shipbuilding.(A)
gives insight into various seafaring economic activities.(B)
stands out as a unique example of early shipbuilding.(C)
was a recent maritime archaeological discovery.(D)
25. Passage 2 strongly suggests that the Vikings
adapted to their geography by moving often.(A)
became seafarers to grow their civilization.(B)
learned shipbuilding from other peoples.(C)
used raiding as a means of livelihood.(D)
26. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 56-58 (“The Gokstad … Romans”)(A)
Lines 82-84 (“Contrary to … craftsmen”)(B)
Lines 84-86 (“Their lands … opportunities”)(C)
Lines 95-97 (“In 1982 … Norway”)(D)
363
27. As used in line 29 of Passage 1, “streamlined” most nearly means
contoured.(A)
efficient.(B)
simplistic.(C)
slight.(D)
28. As used in line 93 of Passage 2, “expression” most nearly means
adaptation.(A)
embodiment.(B)
sentiment.(C)
simplification.(D)
29. In lines 92-94 of Passage 2 (“Truly, the Gokstad … many purposes”),
the author uses the phrase “a great leap” to emphasize
the technological progress that Vikings made.(A)
the distance that Vikings traveled.(B)
the strong faith and traditions on which Vikings relied.(C)
the widespread influence of Viking culture.(D)
364
30. Which generalization about the Vikings is supported by both passages?
Devoted to warfare, the Vikings built an empire that reshaped the
map of Europe.
(A)
Innovations in shipbuilding and navigation saved the Vikings from
decline and extinction.
(B)
The Vikings were noble warriors and farmers who sought to better
understand the world.
(C)
Through their seafaring skills and abilities, the Vikings expanded
and changed the world.
(D)
31. Which inference from the two passages is supported by the information
in the timeline on page 100?
The Vikings endeavored to relocate surplus population through
colonization.
(A)
The Vikings hoped to expand their cultural influence through
economic exchange.
(B)
The Vikings traveled far and wide to launch sea raids and conduct
trade.
(C)
The Vikings were compelled to abandon their homelands because of
scarcity.
(D)
365
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passage.
Plant Fossils Passage
Fossil tree resin, commonly known as amber, has
the ability to encase and preserve things for extensive
periods of time. Researchers in Kaliningrad, Russia,
have recently discovered fossilized carnivorous
plants for the first time. Encased in the variety(5)
of amber commonly found in the Baltic region,
leaves from these rare and interesting plants have
been preserved for what scientists estimate to be
between 35 and 47 million years.
Amber is often confused with sap because of(10)
its sticky, liquid form. It is chemically different,
though, and hardens to such an extent that it can
immaculately preserve what it encases. As a result,
researchers often encounter insects and other
animals preserved in amber for long periods of(15)
time. Considered a type of fossil, these findings are
incredibly useful, as the animals found in amber
are not usually found elsewhere in the fossil record.
Plants, on the other hand, are rarely seen preserved
this way. This new discovery, along with amber-(20)
366
encased animals, provides scientists with a more
comprehensive view of life in earlier times.
The newly discovered plant fossils are also
groundbreaking for two more specific reasons:
They are the only fossilized carnivorous plant(25)
traps ever found, as well as the only fossilized
evidence of the plant family Roridulaceae. The
Roridulaceae plant has been seen only in seed
form until now. While the seeds did offer scientists
valuable information, the trapping mechanism of(30)
the plant’s leaves was left to conjecture. In these
newly discovered fossils, the leaves of the plants are
fully intact and contain organic animal matter that
had been captured in the leaves’ tentacles when the
plant was living.(35)
Geologists and botanists in Germany published
these findings in the Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences, noting that the leaves look
similar to a genus of carnivorous plants called
Roridula, which, until now, were considered endemic(40)
to Africa, where they still thrive. Unlike Venus
flytraps, which are known to catch and dissolve
insects using a digestive mechanism, all Roridula
plants (and their newly discovered ancestor) absorb
nutrients secondhand through a symbiotic rela-(45)
367
tionship with an insect known as Pameridea. The
Pameridea insect generates a greasy film, which
allows it to live on Roridula’s leaves without being
ensnared in the plant’s tentacles. The insect then
captures and digests its prey while still on the leaves(50)
of the plant, and then passes nutrients to the plant
through its feces. This way of ingesting nutrients is
the major link between this insect and the
Roridulaceae family of plants.
The new fossil discovery in Russia completely(55)
challenges the conclusions that scientists had previ-
ously drawn about the paleobiogeography of the
species. Roridulaceae was previously thought to
originate from the prehistoric Pangaean supercon-
tinent called Gondwana, which included modern-(60)
day Africa, South America, India, Antarctica, and
Australia. However, recent findings suggest that the
shared ancestors of these plant species had a much
wider distribution. Researchers will need to con-
tinue to search for plant matter preserved in amber(65)
to fill in more of the blanks in the fossil record.
32. The primary purpose of this passage is to
368
explain how scientists use new technology to explore old findings.(A)
contrast the differences among various types of fossil tree resin.(B)
inform the reader about new plant fossils discovered in amber.(C)
encourage the reader to learn more about the plant fossil record.(D)
33. Based on the information in the passage, the reader can infer that the
author
was part of the research team that discovered the new fossils.(A)
considers the discovery of the plant fossils in amber scientifically
valuable.
(B)
thinks the conclusions drawn by the scientists in Germany are
flawed.
(C)
does not expect scientists to find many more fossils in amber.(D)
34. The author claims that animal fossils found in amber are important to
scientists because they
369
are immaculately preserved samples of ancient life forms.(A)
contain remains of life forms not otherwise found in the fossil
record.
(B)
are easier to study than fossils found buried in rock formations.(C)
contain DNA that resembles various types of animals living today.(D)
35. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 5-9 (“Encased … million years”)(A)
Lines 11-13 (“It is chemically … encases”)(B)
Lines 16-18 (“Considered … record”)(C)
Lines 23-27 (“The newly discovered … Roridulaceae”)(D)
36. As used in line 13, “immaculately” most nearly means
correctly.(A)
innocently.(B)
perfectly.(C)
purely.(D)
370
37. In line 7, the author uses the phrase “rare and interesting plants” to
emphasize the importance of
the discovery of the fossilized carnivorous plants.(A)
the study of paleontology and geology.(B)
the preservation of the existing fossil record.(C)
the continued exploration in the Baltic region.(D)
38. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
scientists will begin to find Roridula plants in warm regions outside
of Africa.
(A)
future discoveries could change current theories about plant
evolution.
(B)
plants fossilized in amber can only be found in the Baltic region of
Russia.
(C)
the Venus flytrap is the only plant with a symbiotic relationship with
insects.
(D)
39. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
371
Lines 36-41 (“Geologists … thrive”)(A)
Lines 43-46 (“all Roridula … Pameridea”)(B)
Lines 55-58 (“The new fossil … species”)(C)
Lines 58-64 (“Roridulaceae was … distribution”)(D)
40. According to information in the passage, the Pameridea insect is able
to live on Roridula’s leaves without being eaten by the plant because
the insect secretes a substance that prevents it from getting caught in
the plant’s tentacles.
(A)
the plant does not need to eat the insect because it gets its energy
from photosynthesis.
(B)
the insect does not stay on the plant’s leaves long enough to get
caught in its sticky leaves.
(C)
the plant only ingests insects that have already died and begun to
decompose.
(D)
41. As used in line 41, “thrive” most nearly means
372
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Sunspots Passage
advance.(A)
develop.(B)
flourish.(C)
succeed.(D)
42. Which choice best describes how the discovery of the ancestor of the
Roridulaceae plant changed scientists’ thinking?
They realized that the fossilized plants are more closely related to
the Venus flytrap than previously thought.
(A)
They realized that the fossilized plants did not have a symbiotic
relationship with the Pameridea insect.
(B)
They realized that the fossilized plants ingested insects directly
rather than secondhand like modern Roridula plants.
(C)
They realized that the Roridulaceae plant family was more widely
distributed than previously believed.
(D)
373
Sunspots are relatively cool areas on the surface
of the sun, formed by changes in the sun’s magnetic
field. The sun’s surface is very hot, approximately
10,000°F, while the center of a sunspot is compara-
tively cool at about 6,000°F. Scientists do not know(5)
exactly what causes sunspots, but the magnetic
field within a sunspot is about 100 times stronger
than it is on the rest of the sun’s surface. Normally,
hot gases flow from the interior of the sun to the
surface, maintaining the high temperature. Within(10)
a sunspot, however, the concentrated magnetic field
inhibits the movement of the gases, causing the
surface of the sunspot to cool.
Galileo and other astronomers started recording
the sunspots they viewed through telescopes in the(15)
early 1600s, although sunspots had been observed
and recorded without telescopes for over 2,000 years.
When another astronomer, Samuel Schwabe,
plotted the number of sunspots recorded each year,
he found that the number increased and decreased(20)
in a cyclic pattern. Approximately every 11 years,
the number of sunspots reaches a maximum. A
graph of sunspots over the years has a fairly regular
pattern of peaks and valleys, with about 11 years
between peaks. Most recently, the sunspot cycle(25)
374
peaked around the middle of 2013, and it will reach
its nadir around 2020.
Scientists use the 11-year cycle to predict solar
flares, which cause changes in Earth’s atmosphere.
When two or more sunspots having magnetic(30)
fields with opposite directions are near each other,
the magnetic fields can interact with plasma on
the surface between the sunspots. The interaction
between the fields sends a burst of plasma away
from the surface, forming the solar flare. The(35)
flares quickly heat to several million degrees
and release as much energy as several hundred
million atomic bombs. Strong magnetic fields and
x-rays travel from the flares to Earth, resulting in
geomagnetic storms. If these storms are strong(40)
enough, they have the potential to disrupt power
and radio communications on Earth. Satellites
are particularly susceptible to disruption by solar
flares, thus causing interference with GPS, weather
prediction, and mobile phone communication. A(45)
positive effect of these storms is that the increased
energy and plasma particles interact with Earth’s
atmosphere, enhancing the auroras, also known as
the Northern (and Southern) Lights.
Sunspots do not always follow the 11-year solar(50)
375
cycle; there was almost no sunspot activity between
around 1645 and 1715. This minimum, which was
named the Maunder Minimum after the husband
and wife team who discovered patterns in the
location of sunspots during the 11-year solar cycle,(55)
occurred during a period of lower-than-normal
global temperatures known as the Little Ice Age.
Scientists mostly agree that the lack of sunspot
activity did not contribute very much, if at all, to
the lowered temperatures.(60)
Sunspot activity has been decreasing during the
last few cycles, and it is possible we will see another
minimum in the next 20 years. The strength of
the magnetic field in the sunspots also seems to
be diminishing, which could be another sign of(65)
a minimum in our future. If we do experience a
minimum, scientists will be able to learn more
about the effect of sunspots on Earth’s climate, in
addition to learning more about the sun, its surface,
and its magnetic fields.(70)
376
43. The central idea of this passage is primarily concerned with
how solar activity can affect the climate on Earth.(A)
the history of methods used by astronomers to study the sun.(B)
scientists’ current understanding of sunspots and solar flares.(C)
the 11-year cycle of solar flare activity.(D)
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
377
Lines 5-10 (“Scientists … high temperature”)(A)
Lines 14-17 (“Galileo … years”)(B)
Lines 50-52 (“Sunspots do not … 1715”)(C)
Lines 58-60 (“Scientists mostly agree … temperatures”)(D)
45. The author refers to the enhanced auroras resulting from solar flares
mostly to
provide contrast with the negative effects of solar flares described.(A)
illustrate the powerful effects of solar flares on Earth’s atmosphere.(B)
suggest that solar flares might cause more damage than previously
believed.
(C)
give an example of how the solar flares affect Earth’s climate.(D)
46. Which choice best describes what scientists currently understand about
how solar flare activity affects the Earth?
378
Low solar flare activity can cause lower temperatures on Earth.(A)
High solar flare activity can lead to disruptions of communication on
Earth.
(B)
Low solar flare activity can cause an enhancement of the auroras on
Earth.
(C)
High solar flare activity can lead to increased severe weather on
Earth.
(D)
47. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strengthen the
author’s line of reasoning?
Details added to paragraph 1 about features other than sunspots on
the sun’s surface and how they affect Earth
(A)
Information added to paragraph 2 about how astronomers Galileo
and Schwabe made their observations
(B)
Examples in paragraph 3 of problems caused by disruption to
communication caused by solar flares
(C)
Examples in paragraph 5 of other periods in history during which the
sun exhibited a decrease in observed sunspot activity
(D)
48. As used in line 34, “burst” most nearly means
379
breach.(A)
eruption.(B)
force.(C)
fracture.(D)
49. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following
statements is accurate?
Although scientists have observed patterns in sunspot activity, it is
not always possible to predict when sunspot activity will occur.
(A)
Scientists will not be able to solve the mystery of what causes
sunspots until technology allows astronauts to travel to the sun.
(B)
Unless scientists find a way to control sunspot activity, radio and
satellite communication on Earth will continue to be interrupted.
(C)
The next minimum could interfere with weather prediction and cause
drastic changes in the climate on Earth.
(D)
50. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
380
Lines 18-21 (“When another … pattern”)(A)
Lines 33-35 (“The interaction … flare”)(B)
Lines 50-51 (“Sunspots … cycle”)(C)
Lines 66-70 (“If we … fields”)(D)
51. As used in line 48, “enhancing” most nearly means
developing.(A)
enlarging.(B)
improving.(C)
intensifying.(D)
52. Which lines from the passage are supported by the evidence in the
graphic?
Lines 14-16 (“Galileo … early 1600s”)(A)
Lines 25-27 (“Most recently … 2020”)(B)
Lines 51-52 (“there was … 1715”)(C)
Lines 61-63 (“Sunspot activity … 20 years”)(D)
381
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
382
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
383
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
384
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
In Defense of Don Quixote
Before the holiday, the World Literature professor assigned the ’
next novel, Don Quixote.
“Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra wrote Quixote in Spanish,” he boomed
over the end-of-class shuffle of notebooks and bags. “Find a good
translation, start reading—and class?”  their
attention. “Do more than read it; prepare to defend why you spent your
holiday break reading a thousand pages of turn-of-the-seventeenth-century
Spanish literature. Read the experts, check the data: Why does the book
still matter?”
Class dismissed, the students entered break feeling uneasy at the
prospect of this hefty early-modern novel, but each soon found in its pages
classes
1
All motion stopped he had
2
385
a captivating story, beautiful and strange.  with paradoxes of sane
and insane, tragic and comic, ideal and real, the novel surprised its newest
set of readers with intellectual complexity as well as deeply human—and
charmingly —characters.
As the students gradually finished their copies of Quixote, most felt the
defense the professor had requested was somewhat unnecessary: It was a
literary masterpiece. But research  required, so they
dutifully opened laptops and visited libraries.
For Monday’s post-holiday class, students presented  short defenses
of Quixote. Most began with their personal appreciation of the novel and
the enduring  of questions it raised. Several students then
mentioned scholars’ praise for Quixote’s ideological impact on culture,
challenging worldviews and highlighting ambiguities between reality and
perception. Quixote, some noted, not only changed the literary imagination
by expanding the possibilities of what a novel could intellectually
Clarified
3
adverse
4
will have been
5
its
6
triviality
7
386
accomplish, but also offered important early contributions to the relatively
recent conversations of psychology and women’s rights.
To illustrate the book’s importance, many students cited a famous 2002
survey of authors worldwide and the ensuing compilation of the world’s
“100 Best Books.” This survey, students found, listed every qualifying
“best” book at equal ranking, isolating only one as undeniably first: Don
Quixote. 8
After the last presentation was completed, the professor explained that 
“Some call it the first great novel; many call it the greatest novel of all
time, but superlatives aside, the true reason it’s worth reading is somewhat
indescribable, isn’t it? 
the university curriculum required students to read Quixote for World
Literature.
9
It changed you it moved you you were drawn to its beauty its ugliness or
some confusion of the two.
10
387
So it goes with great literature: The defense for its permanence is hidden in
the piece itself.”
Opening  books with a fondness like old friendship, the class
began to discuss Quixote together.
their
11
1. 
NO CHANGE(A)
class’(B)
class’s(C)
classes(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
All motion stopped: he had(B)
All motion stopped, and had(C)
All motion stopped. Had(D)
3. 
388
NO CHANGE(A)
Deprived(B)
Peppered(C)
Littered(D)
4. 
NO CHANGE(A)
averse(B)
bazaar(C)
bizarre(D)
5. 
NO CHANGE(A)
is(B)
was(C)
will be(D)
6. 
389
NO CHANGE(A)
it’s(B)
their(C)
they’re(D)
7. 
NO CHANGE(A)
pertinence(B)
irrelevance(C)
inertia(D)
8. Which sentence adds supporting information to the paragraph?
390
Most students also discovered that Quixote was second only to the
Bible in its number of translations and publications across history,
signifying its paramount global influence.
(A)
Students learned that around 100 well-known authors participated in
the survey to identify the “most meaningful book of all time,”
organized by editors in Oslo, Norway.
(B)
Authors noted in the survey were few and far between but included
Doris Lessing, Salman Rushdie, Chinua Achebe, and Toni Morrison.
(C)
The survey, although often cited by literary critics, has not been
repeated since 2002.
(D)
9. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
NO CHANGE(A)
Quixote has touched the far reaches of the literary world.(B)
he disagreed with experts regarding the literary value of Quixote.(C)
he was pleased with the students’ performance.(D)
10. 
391
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Women’s Ingenuity
NO CHANGE(A)
It changed you it moved you, you were drawn to its beauty, or its
ugliness or some combination of the two.
(B)
It changed you it moved you, you were drawn to its beauty or its
ugliness or some combination of the two.
(C)
It changed you; it moved you; you were drawn to its beauty, its
ugliness, or some combination of the two.
(D)
11. 
NO CHANGE(A)
there(B)
it’s(C)
our(D)
392
Until about 1840, only twenty-one patents for inventions were issued to
women in the United States. 
What spurred this increase of women as inventors?
[1]The secret lies partly in the stories of individual female inventors.
[2] Some inventors—men and women—worked in teams, but many worked
alone. [3] The most famous nineteenth-century female inventor became part
of this patentee explosion. [4] She wasn’t the first, but over her lifetime,
Margaret Knight earned some twenty-six patents. [5] Her machine that
made flat-bottomed paper bags is still in use. 13
Knight spent her life working and inventing. As a child, she worked in
the cotton mills and  she was employed by the
Columbia Paper Bag Company. While at the paper bag company, Knight
perfected an idea for an automated machine that would cut, fold, and paste
Yet by 1870, the number of patents granted to women had more than
doubled.
12
many years later in her life,
14
393
paper bags.  when a man stole her idea, Knight fought for her
rights. In the Knight v. Annan dispute of 1871, she won  victory for
women. The Patent Office eventually issued the patent to her. Knight’s
 inventions included a rotary engine and a shoe-cutting machine.
[1] In Knight’s case, her profession helped her perceive the demand for
an invention. [2] Plus, she acquired the skills to become a trailblazer.
During the Industrial Age, many women, like Knight, were able to secure
jobs in  in their higher labor market participation. 
19
 improved
women’s rights and provided greater access to education also contributed
to women’s ingenuity. By 1998, some ten percent of all patents issued were
to American women. 
However,
15
an odd
16
alternate
17
factories, this resulted
18
The progress of feminism in the twentieth century that
20
Nevertheless, Dr. Carol B. Muller founder of a nonprofit that promotes
women in science states,
21
394
“Until women are fully represented in the fields of science and engineering,
society is losing out on the talents of a vast number of potential
contributors.”
In the future, if women can attain more university research positions,
graduate-level degrees in science and engineering, and leadership
positions in high-tech companies, the result may well be more participation
as patentees.
22
395
12. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic on page 113?
396
NO CHANGE(A)
Yet by 1865, the number of patents granted to women had more than
doubled.
(B)
Yet by 1870, the number of patents granted to women had surpassed
those granted to men.
(C)
Yet by 1866, the number of patents granted to women had fallen
short of the 1840 count.
(D)
13. Which sentence should be eliminated to improve the paragraph’s focus?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 5(D)
14. 
NO CHANGE(A)
many years later on,(B)
later,(C)
later on in her life,(D)
397
15. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Furthermore,(B)
Also,(C)
Therefore,(D)
16. 
NO CHANGE(A)
an inconceivable(B)
a trivial(C)
a rare(D)
17. 
NO CHANGE(A)
subsequent(B)
former(C)
ultimate(D)
18. 
398
NO CHANGE(A)
factories, because this resulted(B)
factories; this resulted(C)
factories, but resulted(D)
19. Which choice most effectively supports the claim made in sentence 1?
Knight’s first invention was for a device that would stop machinery
from injuring workers.
(A)
At least some of this can be attributed to her own qualities rather
than social conditions.
(B)
This is obvious when one considers the impressive rate of her
creations.
(C)
This was a quality few women had at the time, as it was considered
unfeminine.
(D)
20. 
NO CHANGE(A)
The progress of feminism in the twentieth century, which(B)
The progress of feminism in the twentieth century,(C)
The progress of feminism in the twentieth century, it(D)
399
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Nevertheless, Dr. Carol B. Muller, founder of a nonprofit that
promotes women in science states
(B)
Nevertheless Dr. Carol B. Muller, founder of a nonprofit that
promotes women in science, states,
(C)
Nevertheless, Dr. Carol B. Muller, founder of a nonprofit that
promotes women in science, states,
(D)
22. Which sentence would most effectively conclude the paragraph?
Given that we all benefit from new inventions that improve the
quality of our lives, let us hope this becomes reality.
(A)
Recent social changes have had a positive impact on today’s women
inventors.
(B)
Unfortunately, women today are barely doing better than in Knight’s
day.
(C)
The patent system is alive and well in the twenty-first century, thanks
to women trailblazers such as Margaret Knight.
(D)
400
Working from Home: Too Good to Be True?
It can be hard to break into your desired field, whether that’s
advertising, medicine, or technology. New graduates usually have to start at
entry-level positions, where salaries are low. Meanwhile, the cost of rent
can be  and if you live with your parents to save on rent, perhaps in the
suburbs, then you might have a costly commute.
It may be tempting to take a position that promises high income for
working at home. But don’t be tempted. Many of these advertised “work-
from-home” positions are outright scams. Of the 8,192  filed
with Federal Trade Commission (FTC) in 2010 involving work-at-home
business opportunities, the FTC estimates that only 1 in every 55 cases
involved any real business. 25
The scams come in many forms, but one thing they have in common is
the promise of thousands of dollars per week, with no skills, experience, or
high,
23
compliants
24
401
degree required. That sounds too good to be true—precisely because it is.
The other thing  in common is that they require a fee for the materials
to get you started, everything from lists of phone numbers to registration
with bogus agencies.
27 . The 
 fee is supposed to get you marketing materials, software, and a
training session. But once the company has your money, the training
sessions are postponed indefinitely, and the materials never arrive. You
don’t earn a cent.
 are all schemes
that promise easy dollars for performing simple work. In each case, the
company collects your setup fee and never provides any work. There is no
service  and there are no
refunds.
it has
26
Victims often find the paperwork difficult to complete
certification
28
Stuffing envelopes, assembling crafts, and entering data
29
department (with which to lodge complaints),
30
402
The lure of money is very powerful, but people entering the job market
for the first time need to understand that earning a substantial income is
something that comes from skill, education, and hard work.  are no
shortcuts in life or in business, and anyone who thrills at the thought of
getting something for nothing, or who loves the idea of working in pajamas,
should learn that fast tracks to wealth are .
Besides, you’ll get more satisfaction out of performing real work that
uses real skills than you would stuffing envelopes. 
 and skills will earn you
bigger dividends in the future. That’s a guarantee that no work-from-home
scam can match.
They’re
31
a distortion
32
Starting in a career field, building your experience
33
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
high(B)
high:(C)
high—(D)
403
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
complaints(B)
compliments(C)
complements(D)
25. Which sentence adds supporting information to this paragraph?
Victims of scams should contact their local or state consumer affairs
agency.
(A)
Sadly, most cases are not covered by fraud protection policies
offered by banks.
(B)
Therefore, work-from-home opportunities have increased over the
last decade.
(C)
That means that 98 percent of the time, these “opportunities” are
traps set to steal your cash.
(D)
26. 
NO CHANGE(A)
they have(B)
one has(C)
it has(D)
404
27. Which choice provides the most effective topic sentence for this
paragraph?
NO CHANGE(A)
Training sessions are often long and tedious.(B)
One scam involves a fee to process insurance claims for doctors.(C)
Many people are naive enough to believe that fraud can’t happen to
them.
(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
registration(B)
conclusion(C)
termination(D)
29. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Envelope stuffing, assembling crafts, and data entry(B)
Envelope stuffing, craft assembly, and entering data(C)
Stuffing envelopes, craft assembly, and entering data(D)
405
30. 
NO CHANGE(A)
department—with which to lodge complaints,(B)
department with which to lodge complaints,(C)
department, with which to lodge complaints,(D)
31. 
NO CHANGE(A)
They(B)
Their(C)
There(D)
32. 
NO CHANGE(A)
an impression(B)
an illusion(C)
an apparition(D)
33. 
406
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Is Gluten-Free the Way to Be?
Most of these people, however, are not doing so because of medical
necessity. Gluten is not , so no one is harmed
by following a gluten-free diet. In fact, it may be a good idea to try going
gluten-free, as it may reveal some health issues that might have gone
undiagnosed.
NO CHANGE(A)
Just starting in a career field, building experience(B)
If starting in a career field, building your experience(C)
When you are starting in a career field, building your experience(D)
A lot of people suffer from celiac disease and find it hard to control the
symptoms.
34
an absolutely essential nutrient
35
407
Studies indicate that about 1 percent of Americans have celiac disease,
meaning that eating even  amounts of gluten will make them ill.
Gluten is a protein composite found in 
, and it contains amino
acid sequences that trigger immune responses in people with celiac
disease. Tissues in the small intestine react as if the protein belonged to a
harmful virus or  This inflammation
prevents nutrients from being properly absorbed in the small intestine,
resulting in a variety of serious conditions. It also causes gas and bloating,
cramps, and diarrhea or constipation.
[1] Although a small percentage of Americans have celiac disease, a
much higher percentage report that they try to eat a gluten-free diet or are
trying to eat less gluten.  [2] 
[3] Why are so many people following, or trying to follow, a gluten-free
standard
36
wheat, barley, rye and a few other related grains
37
bacteria. They become inflamed.
38
39According to one survey, some 20 percent of people are trying to avoid or
cut back on gluten.
408
diet if they have not been diagnosed with celiac disease? [4] In some
cases, they might feel better on the diet because they have celiac disease
but have never been diagnosed. [5] People who suspect they have celiac
disease because a gluten-free diet made them feel better still need to get
diagnosed, but they might never have suspected they had the disease if
going gluten-free had not become so popular. 40
A lot of people who have been found not to have celiac disease still
feel better when they follow a gluten-free diet. Researchers have carefully
tested groups of these people, giving them a diet that omitted gluten and
then adding gluten back into their diet in  no difference
when gluten was added back into their diets. Some, , were
affected by gluten, which suggests that there might be other health
conditions related to gluten besides celiac disease. These conditions affect
only a small percentage of people, so the conditions might not have been
noticed and studied if gluten-free diets had not become so popular.
pill form, some felt
41
moreover
42
409
Although it will not necessarily improve the health of everyone who
tries it, a gluten-free diet does no harm and definitely  more
people than doctors and researchers originally .
benefiting
43
studied
44
34. Replacing the first sentence with which of the following best introduces
the main topic of the paragraph?
410
NO CHANGE(A)
Today, many people try different diets to see which ones they like the
best.
(B)
Gluten can cause gastric trouble if people who eat it are allergic to
it.
(C)
More and more people are trying to remove gluten from their diet.(D)
35. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the very most essential(B)
an essential nutrient(C)
a very essential nutrient(D)
36. 
NO CHANGE(A)
nonexistent(B)
strong(C)
trace(D)
37. 
411
NO CHANGE(A)
wheat, barley, rye, and a few other related grains(B)
wheat barley, rye and a few other related grains(C)
wheat, barley, rye, and, a few other related grains(D)
38. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined
portion?
bacteria as they become inflamed.(A)
bacteria and become inflamed.(B)
bacteria, however they become inflamed.(C)
bacteria; become inflamed.(D)
39. Which choice revises the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic?
412
NO CHANGE(A)
According to one survey conducted in 2012, over 28 percent of
people were trying to cut back or avoid gluten.
(B)
According to one survey conducted in 2011, about 25 percent of
people were trying to cut back or avoid gluten in 2011.
(C)
According to one survey, just under 29 percent of people are trying
to cut back or avoid gluten.
(D)
40. Which sentence, if added after sentence 4, would best support the claim
made in sentence 4?
A recent study estimates that many Americans with celiac disease do
not know they have it.
(A)
A recent study estimates that Americans do not always know they
have celiac disease.
(B)
A recent study estimates that about 5 out of every 6 Americans with
celiac disease do not know they have it.
(C)
A recent study estimates that a high percentage of Americans with
celiac disease do not know they have it.
(D)
41. 
413
NO CHANGE(A)
pill form. Some felt(B)
pill form some felt(C)
pill form consequently some felt(D)
42. 
NO CHANGE(A)
despite(B)
however(C)
for instance(D)
43. 
NO CHANGE(A)
benefits(B)
is benefiting(C)
did benefit(D)
44. 
414
NO CHANGE(A)
wanted(B)
tested(C)
suspected(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
415
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
416
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
417
Number of
Runs
Total Number of People Who Have Ridden the
Swings
2 28
3 42
5 70
1. The giant swings in an amusement park are run only when completely
full to maintain a fairly even distribution of weight. The number of
times the swings have been run, along with a cumulative rider count, is
recorded in the table above. Based on the information, how many
people will have ridden the giant swings when they have been run eight
times?
98(A)
112(B)
140(C)
224(D)
2. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to 
418
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. A publishing company ships books to schools, some of which are
hardback textbooks and some of which are paperback workbooks. Each
shipping box can hold a maximum of 20 textbooks or 64 workbooks.
Each textbook takes up 192 cubic inches of space, and each workbook
takes up 60 cubic inches of space. One box can hold a maximum of
3,840 cubic inches. The shipping department is packing a box
containing both types of books. Which of the following systems of
inequalities can the department use to determine how many textbooks, t,
and workbooks, w, can be shipped in one box?
419
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. A nutritionist is studying the effects of nutritional supplements on
athletes. She uses the function P  (a) to represent the results of her
study, where a represents the number of athletes who participated in the
study, and P  represents the number of athletes who experienced
increased performance while using the supplements over a given
period of time. Which of the following lists could represent a portion
of the domain for the nutritionist’s function?
i
i
420
{…−100, −75, −50, −25, 0, 25, 50, 75, 100…}(A)
{−100, −75, −50, −25, 0, 25, 50, 75, 100}(B)
{0, 2.5, 5, 7.5, 10, 12.5, 15…}(C)
{0, 15, 30, 45, 60, 75…}(D)
5. Which of the following does not represent a linear relationship?
x −1 −4 −7 −10 −13
y 8 6 4 2 0
(A)
x −3 −1 1 3 5
y 5 3 1 −1 −3
(B)
x 1 2 3 4 5
y −5 −5 −5 −5 −5
(C)
x −2 −1 0 1 2
y 4 1 0 1 4
(D)
421
6. If the graphs of the lines in the system of equations above intersect at
(4, −1), what is the value of 
−3(A)
(B)
(C)
2(D)
422
7. Which of the following equations could represent the graph in the
figure?
y  = x  − 4 x  − 4(A) 2
y  = x  + 4 x  − 4(B) 2
y  = x  − 8 x  + 16(C) 2
y  = x  + 8 x  + 16(D) 2
8. What is the area of the shaded sector of the circle shown in the figure
above?
423
2π(A)
6π(B)
12π(C)
36π(D)
9. Which of the following expressions has the same value as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
424
10. The figure above shows the rate at which a textile machine can produce
a wool-polyester blend fabric. To produce a 100% polyester fabric, the
same machine can produce 40 square yards per hour. Given that the
company needs to fill an order for 2,400 square yards of each type of
fabric, which of the following statements is true?
425
It will take half as long to make the blended fabric as the 100%
polyester fabric.
(A)
It will take twice as long to make the blended fabric as the 100%
polyester fabric.
(B)
It will take 20 more hours to make the blended fabric than the 100%
polyester fabric.
(C)
It will take 20 fewer hours to make the blended fabric than the 100%
polyester fabric.
(D)
11. Given the polynomial 6 x  + 2 x  − 8 x  − c , where c is a constant, for
what value of c will  have no remainder?
4 2
−120(A)
−60(B)
60(C)
120(D)
426
12. Which of the following systems of inequalities could be represented by
the graph shown?
427
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
428
13. The figure above shows part of the path of a planned roller coaster hill.
What is the sum, in feet, of the vertical height and the horizontal
distance that the roller coaster will travel while on this particular hill?
220(A)
300(B)
460(C)
900(D)
429
14. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to the complex
number  (Note that )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
430
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
15. Which of the following piecewise functions could have been used to
generate the graph above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
1.
431
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
432
433
16. If 0.2 x  + 1.8 = 3 − 0.6 x , what is the value of x?
434
Equation 1
x y
5 −8
4 −5
3 −2
2 1
17. The tables above represent data points for two linear equations. If the
two equations form a system, what is the x-coordinate of the solution to
that system?
18. What value of x satisfies the equation above?
435
19. The figure above shows a fish tank with sand in the bottom. If the water
level is to be 3 inches below the top, how many cubic inches of water
are needed to fill the tank?
20. If g ( x ) = 2 x  − 5 x  + 4 x  + 6, and P is the point on the graph of g(x)
that has an x-coordinate of 1, then what is the y-coordinate of the
corresponding point on the graph of g ( x  − 3) + 4?
3 2
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
436
437
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
438
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real
number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
439
1. The Florida Department of Wildlife caught and tagged 10 adult female
alligators as part of an effort to protect this endangered species. They
took various measurements and readings related to body size and
health. The total body length is plotted against the tail length in the
scatterplot shown above, along with a line of best fit. Which of the
following equations best models the data?
y  = 0.5 x(A)
y  = 2 x(B)
y  = 0.4 x  + 1(C)
y  = 0.6 x  − 1(D)
440
2. Which of the following lists correctly orders the lines in the figure
above according to their slopes, from least to greatest?
R, T, S, U(A)
S, U, R, T(B)
S, R, U, T(C)
U, S, R, T(D)
441
3. Which of the following is a solution to the system of inequalities shown
in the figure above?
(−5, 2)(A)
(−2, 5)(B)
(2, 5)(C)
(5, 2)(D)
442
Selection Method Number of States
Election 22
Gubernatorial appointment 11
Legislative appointment 2
Missouri Plan 15
4. The American political system is largely a two-party system. In fact,
only six candidates who were not associated with either the Republican
or the Democratic Party have been elected governor in any state since
1990. In one such election, the ratio of votes received for the
Independent candidate to the Democratic candidate to the Republican
candidate was approximately 19:18:13. If 510,000 votes were cast in
the election, how many more votes were cast for the Independent
candidate than for the Republican candidate?
6,000(A)
10,200(B)
61,200(C)
193,800(D)
443
5. There are four ways in which state judges are selected for their
positions. One is by election, another is appointment by the governor
(usually with the confirmation by the state legislature), and a third is
appointment by the state legislature. The final way is a hybrid of the
last two, called the Missouri Plan, in which a nonpartisan legislative
committee recommends a list of candidates and the governor chooses
from this list. The table above shows the number of states that engage in
each process for the highest court of the state, usually called the state
Supreme Court. What percent of states select judges using the Missouri
Plan?
17%(A)
30%(B)
33%(C)
43%(D)
444
6. A botanist collects and models some data and is able to determine that
the number of germinated seeds of a certain plant is linearly correlated
to the amount of rainfall during the previous month, according to the
equation s  = 28.5 r  + 83. In this equation, s is the number of seeds
germinated, and r is the amount of rainfall in inches. In a certain
geographic region that the botanist is studying, 197 seeds germinated.
Approximately how many inches of rainfall did that area receive during
the previous month?
3.1(A)
4(B)
7(C)
9.8(D)
7. A dendrologist (a botanist who studies trees exclusively) is examining
the way in which a certain tree sheds its leaves. He tracks the number
of leaves shed each day over the period of a month, starting when the
first leaf is shed. He organizes the data in a scatterplot and sees that the
data can be modeled using an exponential function. He determines the
exponential model to be f ( x ) = 6(1.92) , where x is the number of
days after the tree began to shed its leaves. What does the value 1.92 in
the function tell the dendrologist?
x
445
The number of leaves shed almost doubles each day.(A)
The number of leaves shed almost doubles every six days.(B)
The number of leaves left on the tree is reduced by about 92% each
day.
(C)
The number of leaves left on the tree is reduced by about 92% every
six days.
(D)
8. Which inequality symbol would make the above statement true?
≤(A)
≥(B)
<(C)
>(D)
446
Price per Pencil Projected Number of Units Sold
$0.20 150,000
$0.25 135,000
$0.30 120,000
$0.35 105,000
$0.40 90,000
$0.45 75,000
9. Generally, the price of an item is a good indicator of how many units of
that item will be sold. The lower the price, the more units will be sold.
A marketing department develops a table showing various price points
and the projected number of units sold at that price point. Which of the
following represents the linear relationship shown in the table, where x
is the price and y is the number of units sold?
y  = 0.03 x  + 150,000(A)
y  = 300,000 x  + 75,000(B)
y  = −300,000 x  + 90,000(C)
y  = −300,000 x  + 210,000(D)
447
10. A mailing supply store sells small shipping boxes in packs of 8 or 20.
If the store has 61 packs in stock totaling 800 small shipping boxes,
how many packs have 20 boxes in them, assuming all the packs are
full?
26(A)
32(B)
35(C)
40(D)
11. Given that  which of the following is equivalent to the sum
i  + i ?125 125
i(A) 14
i(B) 250
2i(C) 45
2i(D) 250
12. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression above?
448
(A)
(B)
(C)
3 x  (−3 x  − x  + 5)(D) 8 2
449
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
Plants are capable of cross-pollinating with related but different plants.
This creates a hybrid plant. Sometimes, a hybrid plant is superior to the
two different plants from which it was derived. This is known as “hybrid
vigor.” Scientists can examine the DNA of a plant to see if it is a hybrid.
This can be valuable information because if the plant appears superior, it
would be beneficial to develop more of these hybrids. An agricultural
13. The graph above shows a delivery truck’s distance from the company’s
warehouse over a two-hour period, during which time the delivery
people made two deliveries and then returned to the warehouse. Based
on the graph, which of the following statements could be true?
Each delivery took 30 minutes to complete, not including driving
time.
(A)
The location of the second delivery was about 70 miles from the
warehouse.
(B)
The truck traveled about 18 miles from the time it left the warehouse
until it returned.
(C)
The second delivery was about 18 miles farther from the warehouse
than the first delivery.
(D)
450
scientist examines an orchard that has several types of apple trees and
orange trees to see which ones are hybrids. Some of the information she
collected is shown in the table below.
Apple Trees Orange Trees Total
Hybrid 402
Non-hybrid 118
Total 628
14. Based on the data, if 45% of the apple trees are not hybrids, how many
apple trees are hybrids?
50(A)
132(B)
226(C)
240(D)
15. The scientist wants to study the orange trees to check for hybrid vigor.
If she chooses one orange tree at random, what is the probability that it
will be a hybrid?
451
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. What is the result of dividing the two expressions above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
452
x y
−1 7
0 5
1 3
2 1
17. If graphed, the ordered pairs in the table above would form a line.
Where would this line intersect the x-axis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
5(D)
453
18. Mount Fuji in Japan was first climbed by a monk in 663 AD and
subsequently became a Japanese religious site for hundreds of years. It
is now a popular tourist site. When ascending the mountain, tourists
drive part of the distance and climb the rest of the way. Suppose a
tourist drove to an elevation of 2,390 meters and from that point
climbed to the top of the mountain, and then descended back to the car
taking the same route. If it took her a total of 7 hours to climb up and
back down, and she climbed at an average rate of 264 vertical meters
per hour going up and twice that going down, approximately how tall is
Mount Fuji?
1,386 meters(A)
2,772 meters(B)
3,776 meters(C)
5,172 meters(D)
19. If (x, y) is a solution to the system of equations above, what is the value
of x ?2
454
12(A)
20(B)
60(C)
144(D)
20. If M  = 3 x  + 9 x  − 4 and N  = 5 x  − 12, then what is 2(M − N)?2 2
−2 x  + 9 x  + 8(A) 2
−4 x  + 18 x  − 32(B) 2
−4 x  + 18 x  + 16(C) 2
8 x  + 9 x  − 16(D) 2
455
21. The Lake Pontchartrain Causeway Bridge in Louisiana is the longest
bridge in the United States, at 23.83 miles long. The histogram above
shows the distribution of the lengths, in miles, of 28 of the longest
bridges in the United States, including Lake Pontchartrain Causeway
Bridge. Which of the following could be the median length of the 28
bridges represented in the histogram?
5.9(A)
7.9(B)
9.2(C)
9.9(D)
22. In the United States, the original full retirement age was 65. The
retirement age has since been pushed to 66 and will soon move to 67,
as life expectancies go up. The Social Security Administration
periodically conducts studies regarding retirement age. One such study
focused on whether or not retiring early lowers a person’s life
expectancy. The study found a weak positive correlation between
retirement age and life expectancy. If data from the study were graphed
in a scatterplot, which of the following statements would be true?
456
The slope of the line of best fit would be a large positive number.(A)
The slope of the line of best fit would be a negative number close to
0.
(B)
The data points would follow, but not closely, an increasing line of
best fit.
(C)
The data points would be closely gathered around an increasing line
of best fit.
(D)
23. A student is doing a scale drawing of a woolly mammoth on a piece of
poster board for her presentation on the last ice age. She was surprised
to find that the woolly mammoth, reaching a height of only about 10
feet, 6 inches, was actually smaller than today’s African elephant. Even
more surprising is the fact that the woolly mammoth’s tusks averaged
11.5 feet in length. If the student draws the mammoth 14 inches tall on
her poster, approximately how many inches long should she make the
tusks?
12.78(A)
15.0(B)
15.33(C)
16.1(D)
457
24. Johanna picked 3 pounds of strawberries at a “pick-your-own” patch.
At this particular patch, the cost is $1.50 for the pail and $3.99 per
pound of strawberries picked. If a linear equation is created to
represent the situation and written in the form y = mx + b, which piece
of the equation would the value 13.47 in this scenario most likely
represent?
b(A)
m(B)
x(C)
y(D)
25. In an effort to decrease reliance on fossil fuels, some energy producers
have started to utilize renewable resources. One such power plant uses
solar panels to create solar energy during the day and then shifts to
natural gas at night or when there is cloud cover. One particularly
bright morning, the company increases the amount of its power
typically generated by solar panels by 60%. During a cloudy spell, it
decreases the amount by 30%, and then when the sun comes back out, it
increases the amount again by 75% before shutting the panels down for
the night. What is the net percent increase of this company’s reliance on
solar panels during that day?
458
75%(A)
96%(B)
105%(C)
165%(D)
26. Zoos use various methods for determining how to feed different
animals. Sometimes they use age, weight, or, usually in the case of
snakes, length. If a snake that is 2 feet, 6 inches long receives 12 grams
of frog mash per feeding, how many grams should a snake that is 1
meter in length get? (Use the approximate conversion 1 foot = 0.3
meters.)
5(A)
13(B)
14.5(C)
16(D)
459
27. Which of the following gives the length of chord DF in the figure
above?
2cos(1.7)(A)
2sin(1.7)(B)
4cos(0.85)(C)
4sin(0.85)(D)
28. If y = 12 − x and  what is the value of 
460
−1(A)
(B)
(C)
33(D)
29. If a quadratic equation is used to model the data shown in the
scatterplot above, and the model fits the data exactly, which of the
following is a solution to the quadratic equation?
461
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
28(A)
32(B)
34(C)
36(D)
30. If h is a function defined over the set of all real numbers and h ( x  − 4)
= 6 x  + 2 x  + 10, then which of the following defines h(x)?2
h ( x ) = 6 x  − 2 x  + 114(A) 2
h ( x ) = 6 x  − 46 x  + 98(B) 2
h ( x ) = 6 x  + 2 x  + 98(C) 2
h ( x ) = 6 x  + 50 x  + 114(D) 2
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
462
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If is entered into the grid as , it will be interpreted
as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
463
464
31. The Bar Exam is a test given in each state to determine whether or not a
law school graduate is competent to practice law. The American Bar
Association surveyed 3,000 law school graduates across the country
who passed the bar exam in 2000. Of those surveyed, 720 were not
practicing law in 2012. If 55,200 graduates passed the bar in 2000,
about how many of them were practicing law in 2012, assuming the
sample was a good representation of the population of law school
graduates who passed the bar in 2000? Round to the nearest thousand
and enter your answer in terms of thousands. (For example, enter
18,000 as 18.)
465
32. In recent years, car manufacturers have started producing hybrid
vehicles, which run on both electricity and gasoline, resulting in a
significantly higher gas mileage. Suppose the odometer of a hybrid car,
which shows how many miles the car has traveled, reads 4,386 miles.
If the car averages 48 miles to the gallon of gas and currently has 12
gallons in the tank, what should the odometer reading be when the tank
is empty?
33. If the equation of the graph shown above is y  = 2( x  + 3)  + 10, what is
the y-intercept of the graph?
2
466
34. Many cities try to work “greenspaces” into their city planning because
living plants help filter the city’s air, reducing the effects of pollution.
The figure above shows the plans for a new greenspace around City
Hall, which will be created by converting portions of the existing
parking lots. If the width of each parking lot is the same as the width of
the City Hall building, how many thousands of square feet of
greenspace will there be after the conversion? Round to the nearest
thousand and enter your answer in terms of thousands. (For example,
enter 14,000 as 14.)
467
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
Mercury is a naturally occurring metal that can be harmful to humans. The
current recommendation is for humans to take in no more than 0.1
microgram for every kilogram of their weight per day. Fish generally carry
high levels of mercury, although certain fish have higher mercury content
than others. Fish, however, are healthy sources of many other nutrients, so
nutritionists recommend keeping them in the human diet. The figure below
shows the average mercury content of several types of fish.
35. Rasha volunteers at a charity that helps feed the homeless. He collects
donations and then uses the money to buy food for care packages. This
week, he collected $145. Each care package will include canned
vegetables and bags of rice in the ratio 3:1. The cans cost $0.89 each,
and the bags of rice cost $3.49 each. Using the given ratio, what is the
maximum number of complete vegetable/rice care packages Rasha can
make?
468
36. If a person weighs 82 kilograms, how many grams of snapper can he
safely consume per day? Round your answer to the nearest gram.
37. Suppose in a week, a person regularly eats one portion of each type of
the fish shown in the bar graph, except the fish with the highest mercury
content. What is this person’s average daily mercury consumption, in
micrograms, assuming a portion size of 100 grams? Round your answer
to the nearest microgram.
469
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
470
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
471
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how President
Truman uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from President Harry S. Truman’s Annual Message to the
Congress on the State of the Union, January 7, 1948, Washington,
DC.
We are here today to consider the state of the Union.
472
On this occasion, above all others, the Congress and the President
should concentrate their attention, not upon party but upon the country;
not upon things which divide us but upon those which bind us together—
the enduring principles of our American system, and our common
aspirations for the future welfare and security of the people of the
United States.
The United States has become great because we, as a people, have been
able to work together for great objectives even while differing about
details.…
The United States has always had a deep concern for human rights.
Religious freedom, free speech, and freedom of thought are cherished
realities in our land. Any denial of human rights is a denial of the basic
beliefs of democracy and of our regard for the worth of each individual.
Today, however, some of our citizens are still denied equal opportunity
for education, for jobs and economic advancement, and for the
expression of their views at the polls. Most serious of all, some are
denied equal protection under laws. Whether discrimination is based on
race, or creed, or color, or land of origin, it is utterly contrary to
American ideals of democracy.
473
The recent report of the President’s Committee on Civil Rights points
the way to corrective action by the federal government and by state and
local governments. Because of the need for effective federal action, I
shall send a special message to the Congress on this important subject.
…
Our second goal is to protect and develop our human resources.
The safeguarding of the rights of our citizens must be accompanied by an
equal regard for their opportunities for development and their protection
from economic insecurity. In this Nation the ideals of freedom and
equality can be given specific meaning in terms of health, education,
social security, and housing.
Over the past twelve years we have erected a sound framework of
Social Security legislation. Many millions of our citizens are now
protected against the loss of income which can come with
unemployment, old age, or the death of wage earners. Yet our system has
gaps and inconsistencies; it is only half finished.
We should now extend unemployment compensation, old age benefits,
and survivors’ benefits to millions who are not now protected. We
should also raise the level of benefits.
474
The greatest gap in our Social Security structure is the lack of adequate
provision for the Nation’s health. We are rightly proud of the high
standards of medical care we know how to provide in the United States.
The fact is, however, that most of our people cannot afford to pay for the
care they need.…
Another fundamental aim of our democracy is to provide an adequate
education for every person.
Our educational systems face a financial crisis. It is deplorable that in a
Nation as rich as ours there are millions of children who do not have
adequate schoolhouses or enough teachers for a good elementary or
secondary education. If there are educational inadequacies in any State,
the whole Nation suffers. The Federal Government has a responsibility
for providing financial aid to meet this crisis.
In addition, we must make possible greater equality of opportunity to all
our citizens for education. Only by so doing can we insure that our
citizens will be capable of understanding and sharing the
responsibilities of democracy.
The Government’s programs for health, education, and security are of
such great importance to our democracy that we should now establish an
executive department for their administration.…
475
Our third goal is to conserve and use our natural resources so that they
can contribute most effectively to the welfare of our people.
The resources given by nature to this country are rich and extensive. The
material foundations of our growth and economic development are the
bounty of our fields, the wealth of our mines and forests, and the energy
of our waters. As a Nation, we are coming to appreciate more each day
the close relationship between the conservation of these resources and
the preservation of our national strength.
We are doing far less than we know how to do to make use of our
resources without destroying them. Both the public and private use of
these resources must have the primary objective of maintaining and
increasing these basic supports for an expanding future.
476
Write an essay in which you explain how President Truman
builds an argument to persuade his audience that continued
investment in the nation’s collective welfare is based on the
ideals of American democracy. In your essay, analyze how he
uses one or more of the features listed in the box that precedes
the passage (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the
logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your
analysis focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Truman’s
claims, but rather explain how he builds an argument to
persuade his audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
477
478
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. D
479
17. A
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. C
33. B
34. B
35. C
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. A
480
41. C
42. D
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. B
49. A
50. C
51. D
52. C
481
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. D
482
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. C
483
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. D
484
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
485
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. 3/2 or 1.5
17. 0
18. 12
19. 3600
20. 11
486
487
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. C
488
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. 42
32. 4962
33. 28
34. 60
35. 23
36. 1.75023
37. 50
38. 23
489
490
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
Three Men in a Boat
1. C
491
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: For some questions, like this one, the correct answer
is stated directly in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In lines 7-8, the narrator says that they “had
originally intended to go on to Magna Carta Island.” Later, however,
they change their minds; the narrator says in lines 11-13 that “we did not
feel that we yearned for the picturesque nearly so much now as we had
earlier in the day.” Choice (C) is the correct answer, as it reflects this
idea.
2. D
492
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph and consider why the men are
dispensing with tea. Then identify a synonym for this verb.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the men “dispensed
with tea, so as to save time.” Foregoing, or skipping, tea would result in
saving time, so (D) is the correct answer.
3. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Consider what the narrator states about the events of
the day and how they have affected the men.
Getting to the Answer: The first three paragraphs establish that it has
been a tiring but basically uneventful day. The men are essentially calm,
but they want food and sleep. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
493
4. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Carefully read the answer choices within the
passage. Identify the sentence that best supports your answer to question
3.
Getting to the Answer: The men’s thoughts are not on a difficult
struggle ahead, but on basic needs like food and sleep. Choice (C) is
correct.
5. C
494
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: In your own words, describe what the narrator wants
the reader to take away from the story.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is a comedy of errors, in which
one minor difficulty piles on another. The whole situation is set in
motion by the men’s false belief that their task will be simple. Choice
(C) best reflects this idea and is the correct answer.
6. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: When making an inference, remember that you must
draw a logical conclusion based on details in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. There is no indication
that any of the men knew much about the tasks involved in boating.
495
7. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread your answer to the previous question.
Identify the answer choice that most strongly supports your answer.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to question 6 concludes
that none of the men knew much about boating. Choice (B) supports this,
as it indicates that the men did not anticipate what was going to happen
with the canvas.
8. D
496
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Without reading the answer choices, try to determine
the meaning of “in the abstract” using context clues provided in the
paragraph in which the phrase appears. Then compare your answer with
the choices provided.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence reads “It looked so simple in the
abstract” (lines 29-30), followed by a fairly straightforward description
of how one would set up the canvas. Then everything goes wrong. In this
context, “in the abstract” means “in theory,” as opposed to reality.
Choice (D) is the correct answer.
9. B
497
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the question stem and note that it’s asking you
about the description of the hoops in paragraph 7. Decide what overall
effect this description has on you as a reader.
Getting to the Answer: The description of the hoops makes use of
extensive personification: “they would jump up suddenly, and try and
throw us into the water and drown us” (lines 49-50), “when we were
not looking, they nipped us with these hinges” (lines 51-52), and “while
we were wrestling with one side of the hoop, and endeavouring to
persuade it to do its duty, the other side would come behind us in a
cowardly manner, and hit us over the head” (lines 53-57). In doing this,
the author adds humor to the characters’ predicament, implying that the
hoops were capable of outsmarting the men. Choice (B) is the correct
answer.
10. B
498
Kennedy Speech
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the emotional state of the narrator
throughout the passage. With what attitude or feeling are events
conveyed?
Getting to the Answer: Clues throughout the passage make it clear that
the narrator is looking back and that there is no current fear, frustration,
or disgust involved in recalling events. Instead, the tone is one of
understated comic reflection at the foibles encountered by the group of
friends. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
11. C
499
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Examine the language used in the speech. Consider
the emotions Kennedy wants his audience to feel and why.
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy uses emotional and inspiring
language so the audience of college students will understand the
importance of reaching the moon. He does this in an attempt to gain
support for the lunar mission. Choice (C) conveys this idea and is the
correct answer.
12. D
500
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Carefully review your answer to the previous
question. Which answer choice best relates to the primary purpose of
Kennedy’s speech?
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy explains how important the space
race is throughout his speech. He emphasizes the knowledge that can be
gained, the prestige of being first, and the security reasons for
prioritizing the race to the moon. He ends his speech by giving a final
justification for supporting America’s quest to reach the moon. Choice
(D) is correct because it reiterates Kennedy’s reasons that students
should support the race to the moon.
13. A
501
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues about what
Bradford thought must be done with “great difficulties.”
Getting to the Answer: Bradford suggests that “great difficulties” (line
44) must be faced and overcome. The only answer choice that suggests
facing the challenges is “undertaken.” Choice (A) is the correct answer.
14. C
502
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Follow Kennedy’s rhetoric about world views on
space exploration. What contrast does Kennedy draw between
American goals and possible foreign goals?
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy remarks that the United States will
not see a “hostile flag of conquest” placed on the moon (lines 57-58).
He suggests that other countries may wish to act in a hostile manner and,
therefore, Americans are obligated to prevent this by reaching the moon
first. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
15. C
503
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Carefully reread the part of the passage that
addresses world views on the space race. Identify the specific claims it
makes.
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy states that the world is looking to
explore space. He goes on to say that the United States is obligated to
prevent “weapons of mass destruction” (line 60) from being placed on
the moon. Choice (C) is the correct answer because it suggests that other
countries may have negative motives for lunar exploration.
16. D
504
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Analyze the target sentence and the sentence that
follows it, paying attention to the contrast between the two. Paraphrase
what Kennedy is saying.
Getting to the Answer: In these sentences, Kennedy contrasts “does
not intend” (line 52) with “we mean to lead” (line 54) to state that the
United States will not be left behind but will lead the world in space
exploration. The meaning of “founder” must match the connotation of the
phrase “backwash of the coming age” (line 53), conveying the notion of
capsizing or being left behind. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
17. A
505
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Search the passage for Kennedy’s comments on the
pace and effects of progress. What claims does he make?
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy comments on the “breathtaking pace”
(line 29) of progress and states that this progress “cannot help but create
new ills as it dispels old” (line 30). He encourages the race to the moon
but cautions the audience to expect hardships and conflicts as part of
these advances. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
18. C
506
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the question stem. It’s asking you to analyze
how a particular statement functions in the overall argument presented
by Kennedy.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. In the quoted sentence,
Kennedy outlines the positive attributes he believes the United States
has that make it the best nation to take the lead in space exploration, thus
providing evidence to strengthen his claim.
19. D
507
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about Kennedy’s attempts to rally support from
the group. What theme does he repeatedly return to when speaking about
the space race?
Getting to the Answer: Kennedy frequently mentions that the race to
the moon is necessary, but that it will be filled with hardship and
challenges. He emphasizes a need to be first and lead the way. Choice
(D) is correct, as it expresses the idea of people leading the way on a
difficult but necessary excursion.
20. B
508
Paired Passages—Viking Longboats
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread paragraphs 2 and 3 and consider their
relationship to the other paragraphs in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: These paragraphs offer a “capsule history” of
human advances to set the stage for Kennedy’s claim that space
exploration is a natural extension of human progress. Choice (B) is the
correct answer.
21. A
509
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Try to paraphrase the central idea of the passage in
your own words. Then read each answer choice. The correct choice
will most nearly match your idea.
Getting to the Answer: Passage 1 explores the shipbuilding abilities
and the navigation skills of the Vikings. It discusses how these skills
enabled the Vikings to travel, explore, and extend their civilization, but
the central idea is that the Vikings had exceptional abilities in
shipbuilding and navigation. The correct answer is (A).
22. B
510
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the introductory paragraph of Passage 1 and
consider the implications suggested by the information provided. The
correct answer will suggest an idea not directly stated but supported by
the given information.
Getting to the Answer: In the first paragraph of Passage 1, the author
suggests that the Vikings traveled far and wide, encountering other
peoples and thereby engaging in cultural interactions. The concepts
mentioned in the various answer choices, such as surviving via sea trade
in A, supporting a growing population in C, and sustaining economic
development through sea raids in D, are not supported in this paragraph.
The correct answer is (B).
23. C
511
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread the answer to the previous question. The
correct choice will provide evidence that directly supports, or even
restates, that idea.
Getting to the Answer: Only (C) suggests the cultural interaction of the
Vikings with other peoples through the phrase “opened up new
connections.”
24. C
512
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Determine the overarching topic of Passage 2. Then
ask yourself why the author wrote specifically about the Gokstad ship in
relation to that topic. The correct answer will explain why the Gokstad
ship offers an interesting perspective on the broader topic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. By focusing on the
Gokstad ship, the author can illustrate the advanced technical abilities of
the Viking shipbuilders.
25. D
513
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for information that relates to each answer
choice. The correct answer will be supported by facts and opinions
stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In Passage 2, the author puts the Viking raids in
the context of other means of livelihood, such as farming, fishing, and so
on. It is logical to infer that raiding was one more way of making a
living. Choice (D) is correct.
26. C
514
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Consider what reasoning led you to select the answer
choice to the previous question. Read the lines in each answer choice.
The correct answer will support your reasoning.
Getting to the Answer: Only lines 84-86 (“Their lands…
opportunities”) explain the relationship between the geography and the
economic needs of the Vikings and support the idea that the Vikings
turned to sea raiding as an economic livelihood. Choice (C) is correct.
27. B
515
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence in which the word appears as
well as the sentences that follow to get a sense for the meaning of the
word in context. Before reviewing the answer choices, write a
definition in your own words. The correct answer will most nearly
match your definition.
Getting to the Answer: The author explains that the ship was able to
ride high, skim the waves, swiftly transport a large crew, and navigate
shallow waters. The implication is that the streamlined design affected
the vessel’s performance, making it more efficient in a variety of
seafaring situations. Choice (B) is correct.
28. B
516
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Think about the different meanings of “expression.”
Read the sentence in which the word appears and predict which
meaning of the word best applies to that usage.
Getting to the Answer: In the sentence, the author uses “expression” to
show that the Gokstad embodies, or brings together, the best of Viking
technical achievements. Therefore, (B) is correct.
29. A
517
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the figurative, rather than literal,
meaning of the phrase “a great leap.” This will help you answer the
question.
Getting to the Answer: The author applies the phrase to seafaring and
goes on to reference the technical achievements of the Vikings. Thus,
(A) is correct.
30. D
518
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: In order to make a generalization based on two
different sources, compare the ideas presented by each. Determine what
ideas the two sources have in common.
Getting to the Answer: Both passages deal with the shipbuilding and
navigation abilities of the Vikings, and both highlight how those abilities
led to the expansion of Viking civilization beyond Scandinavia. This
expansion had economic, social, and cultural impacts on other peoples.
Therefore, (D) is correct.
31. C
519
Plant Fossils Passage
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer must synthesize
information in both passages and in the timeline.
Getting to the Answer: Several events in the timeline describe places
that the Vikings “raided,” “invaded, “settled,” and so on. The passages
both suggest that the Vikings used their seafaring skills to travel
throughout Europe and across the Atlantic. Passage 2 specifically cites
trade and sea raids. Choice (C) is correct, as it connects several events
described in the timeline with the ideas contained in both passages.
32. C
520
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider which answer choice most accurately
describes the purpose of the entire passage. Do not be distracted by
choices that might sound appropriate but are not the best statement of
purpose.
Getting to the Answer: The author’s purpose is to inform readers of
new plant fossil discoveries. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
33. B
521
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the main points the author makes throughout
the passage. The correct answer will be directly related to these points,
even if it is not directly stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Throughout the passage, the author uses words
such as “groundbreaking” (line 24) and “incredibly useful” (line 17) to
describe the discovery of the new plant fossils. This suggests that the
author considers these discoveries valuable. Therefore, (B) is the
correct answer.
34. B
522
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Skim through the passage, looking for the author’s
description of amber and its role in scientific research. This will help
you choose the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The author explains that animal fossils found in
amber are important because these animals are not typically found in the
fossil record. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
35. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each of the answer choices in the passage.
The correct answer will provide direct support for the answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer, as it reflects
the correct statement of the author’s claim in the previous question.
523
36. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Replace “immaculately” with each of the answer
choices. Select the answer that makes the most sense in context and does
not change the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “immaculately” most nearly
means “perfectly.” Choice (C) is the correct answer.
37. A
524
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread paragraph 1. Identify the central idea of the
paragraph and consider how the phrase “rare and interesting plants”
supports the idea.
Getting to the Answer: The author’s use of the phrase “rare and
interesting plants” supports the claim that the discovery of the fossilized
carnivorous plants is important. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
38. B
525
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Remember that with an Inference question, the
correct answer is not explicitly stated in the passage. You must draw a
logical conclusion based on the information provided.
Getting to the Answer: Throughout the passage, the author discusses
how the discovery of these plants fossilized in amber has challenged
conclusions previously drawn by scientists. It is reasonable to infer,
therefore, that future discoveries could change current theories. Choice
(B) is the correct answer.
39. C
526
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers that provide evidence for incorrect
answers to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 5, the author explains how the
new discoveries challenge conclusions previously drawn by scientists.
This is the best support for the answer to the previous question, making
(C) the correct answer.
40. A
527
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Skim the passage and look for details about how the
Pameridea insect and Roridula plant interact.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. In paragraph
4, the author explains that the Pameridea insect is able to live on the
Roridula plant because the insect makes a “greasy film” that prevents it
from getting trapped by the plant.
41. C
528
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: All of the answer choices are close in meaning. To
choose the correct answer, substitute each choice for “thrive.”
Determine which one provides the appropriate nuance of meaning for
this context.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that the plant fossils
resemble the Roridula, a kind of plant that currently thrives, or grows
vigorously, in Africa. In this context, “thrive” means “flourish.” Choice
(C) is the correct answer.
42. D
529
Sunspots Passage
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Review the passage, looking for details about how
scientists’ understanding of the plant changed.
Getting to the Answer: The fact that the fossilized Roridulaceae were
discovered in Russia made scientists realize that the plant family,
originally thought only to be found in Africa, had a much wider
distribution across the world. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
43. C
530
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers like B and D that include details but
do not describe the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: Throughout the passage, the author includes
information related to what scientists know about sunspots and solar
flares. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
44. A
531
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Detail / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer choice in the passage and think
about whether it provides support for the correct answer to the previous
question.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea of the passage is concerned
with what scientists know about sunspots and solar flares. Lines 5-10
refer to what scientists do and do not currently understand about
sunspots, so (A) is the correct answer.
45. A
532
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider how the details about the enhanced auroras
relate to the central idea of the paragraph in which they are discussed.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, the author describes the
negative effects of solar flares on Earth. In the last sentence, the author
describes a positive effect, the enhanced auroras, to provide a contrast
with these negative effects. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
46. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Skim through the passage, looking for details about
the consequences of solar activity on Earth.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, the author explains that solar
flares can cause disruption to satellites and radio transmissions used for
communication. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
533
47. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the central idea of each paragraph
mentioned in the answer choices. The correct answer will improve the
paragraph by providing solid support for the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: The author explains in paragraph 3 that solar
flares can cause disruptions to satellites and other technologies used in
communications. An example of how these disruptions affect people on
Earth would strengthen this claim. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
48. B
534
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read each answer choice into the sentence to find the
one that makes the most sense. The correct answer should be able to
replace “burst” without changing the overall meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In the context of plasma suddenly exploding
from the sun’s surface, the correct answer is (B), “eruption.”
49. A
535
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for clues in the passage that suggest which
statement is most likely true. Make a logical guess based on these clues.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. For much of the
passage, the author refers to an 11-year cycle for sunspots. However, the
passage also states that sunspots do not always follow an 11-year cycle.
It is reasonable to infer that it is not always possible to predict when
sunspot activity will occur.
50. C
536
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each of the answer choices in the passage.
Decide which one provides the best support for the answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In the previous question, the correct answer
dealt with how sunspot activity is not always predictable. In paragraph
4, the author states that “sunspots do not always follow the 11-year solar
cycle.” This makes (C) the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question.
51. D
537
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Think about the context of the sentence in which the
word appears. Decide which synonym for “enhancing” provides the
appropriate nuance of meaning in light of this context.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence in which “enhancing” appears
talks about auroras, the unusual light displays that appear near the North
and South Poles. In the context of these light displays, the most accurate
synonym for “enhancing” is (D), “intensifying.”
52. C
538
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Carefully examine the graphic to see which answer
choice has a direct relationship with information provided in the
graphic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C), which describes the lack of
sunspot activity between 1645 and 1715, is clearly depicted in the
graphic.
539
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
In Defense of Don Quixote
1. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the choice should be singular or
plural. Then ask yourself if the noun is meant to show possession and
what, if any, punctuation is required.
Getting to the Answer: There is only one class being discussed, so a
singular choice that shows ownership of the novel, (C), is correct.
540
2. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Examine the underlined sentence and identify the
subjects and verbs. Based on your findings, is the sentence
grammatically correct?
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is a run-on, as it contains two
separate independent clauses. Because the second part of the sentence
provides an explanation for the first part, a colon is the correct
punctuation to be added between the two clauses. Choice (B) is correct.
3. C
541
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look for context clues to establish how the word is
used in the sentence. Then test each choice for appropriateness.
Getting to the Answer: The passage describes a novel filled with
opposites. “Clarified” implies that the content of Quixote is made clear,
but the paragraph describes the novel as being filled with
contradictions. “Peppered” is used here as a verb meaning scattered
throughout. Choice (C) is correct.
4. D
542
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Make a prediction about the best meaning for the
targeted word based on the content of the entire paragraph. Then test
each answer choice against your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph describes the novel as
“beautiful and strange,” so you can predict that the characters will likely
exhibit one or both of these qualities. “Adverse” is an adjective
indicating a sense of harm, which doesn’t make sense in the context of
this paragraph. “Bazaar” is a Middle Eastern marketplace, while
“bizarre” means “strange.” Therefore, (D) is correct.
5. C
543
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Examine the verb forms used throughout the
paragraph. Look for inappropriate shifts in verb tense in the sentence.
Test each choice by comparing it with the surrounding verbs.
Getting to the Answer: “Will have been” is future perfect tense and is
used to express action that will be completed in the future. “Was” is the
only past-tense choice that matches the past-tense verbs in the
paragraph: “finished,” “felt,” “opened,” and “visited.” Choice (C) is
correct.
6. C
544
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Be sure to correctly identify the pronoun’s antecedent
and whether it is singular or plural.
Getting to the Answer: The pronoun refers to “students,” which is
plural, so you can narrow down the choices to “their” and “they’re.”
“They’re” is a contraction meaning “they are.” “Their” expresses
possession, and the defenses that will be presented in class belong to the
students. Choice (C) is correct.
7. B
545
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: As you examine the answer choices, apply your
knowledge of roots, prefixes, and suffixes to determine meanings. Also,
look for context clues in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The use of the word “enduring” in the sentence
is a clue that “triviality,” as written in the passage, is not consistent with
the sentence’s meaning. “Pertinence” means “relevance,” so (B) is
correct.
8. A
546
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Closely examine the topic sentence and the
supporting details to identify the central idea of the paragraph. What
piece of information enhances this idea?
Getting to the Answer: The focus of the paragraph is the global
importance of Cervantes’s masterpiece. Choice (A) is the only option
that adds supporting information regarding the significance of the novel
rather than the structure of the survey.
9. B
547
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify the central idea of the paragraph by
summarizing the details of the sentences that follow.
Getting to the Answer: The supporting sentences in this paragraph
praise Cervantes’s novel. Choice (B) is the only one that fits by saying
the novel has “touched the far reaches of the literary world.”
10. D
548
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether there are multiple elements of the
sentence requiring punctuation to separate them from one another.
Getting to the Answer: Without punctuation, this sentence becomes a
run-on. It has three distinct clauses that need to be separated by
semicolons. In the last clause, “beauty, “ugliness,” and “combination”
are part of a series requiring commas to separate them. Choice (D) is
correct.
11. A
549
Women’s Ingenuity
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Recall that a pronoun must agree with its antecedent
in number and in gender. Examine the other words in the sentence to find
context clues.
Getting to the Answer: A collective noun such as “class” may be
either singular or plural. It is singular when it refers to the group as a
unit and plural when it refers to the individual members of the group.
Because the passage refers to how the members of the “class began to
discuss Quixote together,” the correct pronoun choice is “their.” Choice
(A) is correct.
12. A
550
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: When analyzing a graphic, study what is being
represented by each axis. Then reread the passage sentence you’re being
asked to connect to the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. According to
the graphic, it is accurate that by 1870, the number of patents granted to
women had more than doubled from the 1840 count of just twenty-one.
13. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Carefully read the paragraph to determine what
information is extraneous to the main idea of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about the accomplishments of
female inventors, with a particular focus on Margaret Knight. Sentence 2
diverges from this topic, making (B) the correct answer.
551
14. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: See whether any redundant words can be eliminated
from this phrase to make the sentence flow more smoothly.
Getting to the Answer: The phrase as it currently stands is wordy and
redundant. Editing the phrase down to “later” still conveys the intended
meaning. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
15. A
552
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: The correct answer should make clear the
relationship between this sentence and the previous one.
Getting to the Answer: The event described in this sentence, the man’s
theft of Knight’s idea, is not an event one would expect, having read the
previous sentence. Therefore, the connecting transition word should
show a relationship of contrast. As written, “however” accomplishes
this. Choice (A) is, therefore, the correct answer.
16. D
553
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look for a word that makes the qualities of the
“victory” clear to readers. It should also match the tone of the rest of the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The quality the sentence is trying to convey
about Knight’s victory is how unusual it was, given her gender and the
time period. Therefore, both “rare” and “inconceivable” might fit the
expected meaning, but only “rare” conveys the appropriate academic
tone. Choice (D) is correct.
17. B
554
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider the context of the entire paragraph and think
about what the underlined word should convey. Then eliminate any
incorrect choices.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about Knight’s inventions
over her lifetime and is structured chronologically. Choice (B),
“subsequent,” is correct because it expresses that these inventions came
later, which is the only meaning that can be directly inferred from the
paragraph.
18. C
555
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Remember that a compound sentence must be joined
either with a conjunction or with appropriate punctuation; a comma is
not sufficient.
Getting to the Answer: As written, the sentence joins a compound
sentence with a comma but no conjunction, resulting in a comma splice.
Choice (C) is the correct answer; it correctly uses a semicolon to join
the two clauses and maintains the meaning of the original sentence.
19. A
556
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Consider which answer choice describes a way in
which Knight perceived—and met—a demand.
Getting to the Answer: Sentence 1 states that Knight’s profession
“helped her perceive the demand for an invention.” Choice (A) provides
direct support for this claim, citing an invention that was inspired by
Knight’s workplace. The other choices provide opinions rather than
concrete evidence. Choice (A) is correct.
20. B
557
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Be careful to note the relationship between the
different parts of this sentence. Different types of clauses are joined in
different ways.
Getting to the Answer: The part of the sentence that follows “The
progress of feminism in the twentieth century” is a subordinate clause
that describes the kind of progress achieved. It is nonrestrictive and
should therefore be separated by commas and begin with “which.”
Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
21. D
558
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Remember that an appositive is a word or phrase
that identifies or renames a noun that comes right before it; when an
appositive adds extra information, it is set off with commas.
Getting to the Answer: The phrase that follows “Dr. Carol B. Muller”
is an appositive and should be set off with commas. Therefore, (D) is
the correct answer.
22. A
559
Working from Home: Too Good to Be True?
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and then read each of the
choices. Decide which one is a fitting conclusion for the rest of the
information in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: In the previous sentence, the author states that
if women can attain educational and leadership opportunities in science
and technology, more patents by women will result. It is in keeping with
the idea and tone of this sentence to conclude the paragraph with (A), a
sentence that expresses hope for this to occur.
23. A
560
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Decide whether the second part of the sentence
indicates a sharp break in thought or is a continuation of the previous
thought. Then, examine the answer choices to find the one with the
correct punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is a continuous thought. Because
no sharp break in content exists, only a comma is needed, and no colon
or dash separation is necessary. Choice (A) is correct.
24. B
561
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Ask yourself how the word is used in the sentence;
try substituting each choice in its place. Use the other words in the
sentence to provide context clues.
Getting to the Answer: “Compliant” is an adjective meaning
“obedient.” “Complaint” is a noun expressing dissatisfaction. The
paragraph depicts the negative aspects and false promises of work-
from-home advertisers, so (B) is the correct answer.
25. D
562
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Closely examine the topic sentence and the
supporting details; identify the central idea of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph explains that most of these
business opportunities give false promises. Choice (D) is the only
option that adds supporting evidence, proving that most work-from-
home opportunities are scams.
26. B
563
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Identify the subject of the paragraph and determine
its number; look for pronoun clues in the surrounding sentences.
Determine whether the adjacent pronouns are singular or plural.
Getting to the Answer: A pronoun must agree in number with its
antecedent. The antecedent, “scams,” appears in the first sentence of the
paragraph. The pronoun “they” is the only choice that is plural;
therefore, (B) is correct.
27. C
564
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Based on the supporting sentences, identify the
central idea of the paragraph. In other words, identify what the sentences
have in common.
Getting to the Answer: All the sentences in this paragraph refer to the
fees required and the loss of the investment, so (C) is correct.
28. B
565
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look for context clues to establish how the word is
used in the sentence and consider the content of the entire paragraph.
Then, test each choice for appropriateness.
Getting to the Answer: The passage describes the fees as being
required before work can begin. “Certification” is a noun that means “a
state of being certified or endorsed” and is inappropriate here. Choice
(B), “registration,” is a noun meaning “the act of enrolling in a
program,” so it is the correct choice.
29. A
566
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Examine the grammatical forms used in the sentence.
A sentence reads smoothly when the writer takes the time to put parallel
ideas in the same grammatical form. For example, a series of nouns
mixed with gerunds creates an awkward sentence.
Getting to the Answer: “Data entry” and “craft assembly” are noun
phrases that should not be mixed with gerund phrases such as “stuffing
envelopes.” The gerunds “stuffing,” “assembling,” and “entering”
express each activity in the same grammatical form. Choice (A) is
correct.
30. C
567
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the underlined phrase is essential
or nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. Essential elements should
not be set off by punctuation; nonessential elements must be set off by
punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: The phrase “with which to lodge complaints”
is an essential element of the sentence because it is needed to explain
the type of service department being described. No punctuation should
be used, and the addition of parentheses or dashes complicates the
sentence. Choice (C) is correct.
31. D
568
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Test the choices individually. Look for other words
in the sentence that might provide context clues.
Getting to the Answer: “They” is a pronoun, and “They’re” is a
contraction meaning “they are.” “Their” expresses possession. None of
these words makes sense in the context of the sentence. Choice (D),
“There,” is correct.
32. C
569
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Examine the sentence in relation to other sentences in
the paragraph; think about the content of the paragraph and the passage
as you test each choice in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph warns against the false belief
that it is possible to gain something from nothing. The noun “distortion”
means “a warping of the truth” and may seem like a good choice.
However, (C), “illusion,” means “a false belief.” It is more precise and
is therefore correct.
33. D
570
Is Gluten-Free the Way to Be?
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language /Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Modifiers are words or phrases intended to make
meanings more specific. They are placed as near as possible to the
words they modify. Misplaced or dangling modifiers make the writer’s
meaning difficult to comprehend. Try to identify the missing word or
phrase that will make the sentence clear and sensible.
Getting to the Answer: “Starting in a career field” needs to be
changed to an adverb clause by adding “When you are” so that it is clear
that “you” will earn the dividends. Choice (D) is correct.
34. D
571
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the central idea of a paragraph, read through
it and get the general idea of the paragraph’s focus. Then, summarize
what seems to be the central idea. Select the choice that is the closest to
your summary.
Getting to the Answer: This opening paragraph is mostly about people
trying gluten-free diets. Choice (D) is an opening sentence that sums up
what the paragraph is mostly about and is therefore the correct answer.
35. C
572
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that are extremely wordy or
that change the meaning of what is being communicated. It is better to be
as direct and simple as possible.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the most concise and effective
way of stating the information, so it is the correct answer.
36. D
573
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Pretend the underlined word is a blank in the
sentence. Predict what word could be substituted for the blank. Then,
choose the word closest in meaning to your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The word “even” helps you identify the correct
answer choice. You might come up with the word “little,” and “trace”
would be a synonym for your choice. Choice (D) has the correct
connotation and fits within the context of the sentence.
37. B
574
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Study the words in a series, looking for where a
comma might need to be inserted or eliminated.
Getting to the Answer: Recall that the SAT requires lists of three or
more items to have commas after all items before the word “and.”
Choice (B) has the correct punctuation.
38. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that may have incorrect
transition words.
Getting to the Answer: The word “and” joins the sentences concisely
and correctly. Choice (B) is correct.
575
39. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: The graphic gives specific information about how
many of those people surveyed were trying to cut back or avoid gluten in
their diet during specific years. Study the graphic in order to select the
correct answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) accurately reflects the information
in the graphic. None of the other choices presents a valid interpretation
of the data.
40. C
576
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: First, reread sentence 4 to identify the claim. Then,
look for the answer choice that supports this claim with specific details.
Getting to the Answer: Sentence 4 claims that some people on a
gluten-free diet feel better “because they have celiac disease but have
never been diagnosed.” Choice (C) best supports this claim because it
provides specific numbers from a study about celiac disease.
41. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Two complete thoughts should be two separate
sentences. Be careful of inappropriate transition words.
Getting to the Answer: A period and a capital letter will divide the
two complete thoughts correctly. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
577
42. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Look for the relationship between this sentence and
the previous one. This will help you choose the appropriate transition
word.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) shows the relationship between the
two sentences by emphasizing that some people were affected by the
gluten pill.
43. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Verbs that have the same level of importance in a
sentence must be in parallel form. Check to see if this is true here.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. The verb
“does” is in the singular present tense, and so is “benefits.”
578
44. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: The context of the sentence suggests the word that
would have the best fit.
Getting to the Answer: “Suspected” reflects the idea that this is what
doctors and researchers thought was true at first. Choice (D) is correct.
579
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Determine from the table the number of people who
ride the swings on a single run (the unit rate, or slope). Then, multiply
this number by 8.
Getting to the Answer: If 28 people have ridden the swings after it has
been run 2 times, this means 28 ÷ 2 = 14 people ride the swings each
time. Therefore, when the swings have been run 8 times, 14 × 8 = 112
people will have ridden them.
2. A
580
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: A variable with a fraction exponent can be written as
a radical expression by writing the numerator of the fraction as the
power of the radicand and the denominator as the degree (also called
the index) of the root. For example, 
Getting to the Answer: Start by reducing the fraction in the exponent:
 The variable a is being raised to the  power, so rewrite the
term as a radical expression with a 3 as the degree of the root and 1 as
the power to which a is being raised.
3. C
581
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Use the Kaplan Method for Translating English into
Math. The clue “holds a maximum” means it can hold exactly that much
or less, so use the symbol ≤. This means you can eliminate B.
Getting to the Answer: The box can hold a maximum of 20 textbooks,
so the first inequality is t  ≤ 20. The box can hold a maximum of 64
workbooks, so the second inequality is w  ≤ 64 (eliminate D). The third
inequality deals with the size of each book. The box can fit t textbooks
multiplied by the size of the textbook, 192 cubic inches, and w
workbooks multiplied by the size of the workbook, 60 cubic inches. The
box can fit a maximum of 3,840 cubic inches total, so the last inequality
is 192 t  + 60 w  ≤ 3,840.
4. D
582
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The domain of a function represents the possible
values of x, or the input values. In this function, x is represented by a,
which is the number of athletes who participated in the study.
Getting to the Answer: This is a real-world scenario, so you cannot
simply use rules of functions to determine the domain. Because there
cannot be a negative number of athletes or a fraction of an athlete, the
list in (D) is the only one that could represent a portion of the function’s
domain.
5. D
583
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Check to see whether the change in the y-values
compared with the change in the x-values is constant for each pair of
values.
Getting to the Answer: The table in (D) does not represent a linear
relationship because the x-values change by +1 each time, while the y-
values change by −3, then −1, then +1, then +3. A linear relationship has
a constant rate of change, which means it is either always increasing or
always decreasing by the same amount. This data clearly changes
direction and is therefore not linear.
6. D
584
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: If the graphs intersect at (4, −1), then the solution to
the system is x  = 4 and y  = −1. This means you can substitute these
values into both equations and go from there.
Getting to the Answer: Substitute the values of x and y into each
equation and solve for A and B. Then, divide B by A.
Therefore, 
7. B
585
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Factoring the quadratic equations could give you
information about the x-intercepts, but upon inspection, A and (B) can’t
be factored. As an alternate strategy, find the axis of symmetry using the
formula  (the quadratic formula without the radical part) to
determine in which quadrant the vertex lies. You are looking for an
equation whose graph has its vertex in the third quadrant.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct because
 and when −2 is substituted into the equation
y  = (−2)  + 4(−2) − 4 = −8, it puts the vertex at (−2, −8), which is in the
third quadrant and matches the graph.
2
8. B
586
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: The area of a sector is equal to the area of the circle
times the fraction of the circle represented by the sector.
Getting to the Answer: Start by finding the area of the whole circle:
The diameter of the circle extends along the x-axis from −7 to 5, which
is 12 units, which means the radius is 6. Substitute this into the area
formula:
There are 360 degrees in a whole circle, so the fraction of the circle
represented by the sector is  The area of the sector is
 square units.
9. D
587
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Use the rules for radicals to simplify the product.
Don’t actually try to find the value of each answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: When two radical expressions with the same
degree root are multiplied, you can multiply the numbers under the
radicals, leaving the product inside. The root stays the same. Writing
0.25 as  may make finding the product easier:
It’s not proper to leave a radical in the denominator (and this is not one
of the answer choices), so rewrite the expression by multiplying the top
and bottom by  to get 
10. C
588
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Start by finding the rate at which the blended fabric
is produced according to the graph. To do this, find the slope by picking
two points and using the formula  Pay careful attention to
how the grid-lines are labeled.
Getting to the Answer: Using the points (0, 0) and (2, 60), the slope is
 which means the machine produces 30 square
yards of the blended fabric per hour. The question states that the
machine can produce the 100% polyester fabric at a rate of 40 square
yards per hour. Now, determine how long it would take the machine to
produce 2,400 yards of each fabric:
Blended: 2,400 ÷ 30 = 80 hours
100% polyester: 2,400 ÷ 40 = 60 hours
This means it will take 20 more hours to make the blended fabric than
the 100% polyester fabric, which matches (C).
589
11. D
590
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t bother with trial and error; it will take far too
long. Use polynomial long division and your reasoning skills instead.
Getting to the Answer: Use long division to divide the two
expressions. Don’t forget to fill in 0 as a placeholder for the missing x
term.
To make sure there is no remainder, c would have to be 120.
3
591
12. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The system in the graph shows shading on opposite
sides of two parallel lines, which means there is no solution to the
system. This means you’re looking for two equations with the same
slope, different y-intercepts, and different inequality symbols.
Getting to the Answer: The equations are all given in standard form
( Ax  + By  = C ). It would be very time-intensive to convert all four
systems to slope-intercept form, so look for ways to eliminate choices
more quickly. Each line in the graph falls 1 unit and runs 3 units, so you
need to find two lines that have a slope of  Use the trick 
to quickly determine the slopes. The lines in A have a slope of 
so eliminate A; the lines in B have a slope of  so eliminate B;
the lines in C have a slope of  so eliminate C (pay attention to
the sign). This means (D) must be correct. The lines in (D) have a slope
of  which matches the graph. You don’t have to check the
shading because none of the other slopes were a match.
592
13. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Make sure you read the axis labels and the question
carefully. You’ll also need to rely on your knowledge of quadratic
equations.
Getting to the Answer: The question asks for the sum of the vertical
height and the horizontal distance that the roller coaster will travel
above ground. The data points follow a parabolic (U-shaped) path,
which means you can use properties of quadratic equations to find the
solution. The vertical height is fairly straightforward—the vertex of the
parabola is located at (110, 80), so the vertical height that the roller
coaster reaches is 80 yards (notice the units). To find the horizontal
distance, think about symmetry. Because the vertex occurs at a distance
of 110 feet, the total horizontal distance that the roller coaster will
travel is twice that, or 220 feet. Convert 80 yards to feet and add the
result to 220 to arrive at the correct answer, 80 × 3 = 240 and 240 + 220
= 460 feet.
14. A
593
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: Fractions with complex numbers are no different
from any other fraction. You must find a common denominator before
adding them.
Getting to the Answer: Find a common denominator by multiplying the
second term by i + 6. You’re given that  but a more useful
fact is that i  = −1, so be sure to make this substitution as you go. Once
you have found the common denominator, you can simply add like terms.
2
594
15. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Graphing piecewise functions can be tricky. Try
describing the graph in words first and then find the matching function.
Use words like “to the left of” (which translates as less than) and “to
the right of” (which translates as greater than).
Getting to the Answer: First, notice that both pieces of the graph either
start or stop at 0, but one has a closed dot and the other has an open dot.
This means you can eliminate C right away because the inequality
symbol in both equations would lead to open dots on the graph. To
choose among the remaining answers, think about parent functions and
transformations. To the left of x  = 0, the graph is a line with a slope of
 and a y-intercept of −4, so you can eliminate D because the slope
of the line is incorrect. Now, look to the right of x = 0—the graph is a
square root function that has been moved down 1 unit, so its equation is
 This means (A) is correct. (The square root portion of C
would have been moved to the left 1 unit rather than down 1.)
16. 3/2 or 1.5
595
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t waste time trying to combine decimal
numbers. Instead, multiply all of the numbers in the equation by 10 to get
rid of the decimals. The resulting equation is much easier to solve.
Getting to the Answer: Multiplying each term in the equation by 10
moves the decimal one place to the right, which eliminates all the
decimals.
17. 0
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
596
Strategic Advice: The solution to the system is the point that both tables
will have in common, but the tables, as given, do not share any points.
You could use the data to write the equation of each line and then solve
the system, but this would use up valuable time on Test Day. Instead,
whenever data is presented in a table, look for patterns that can be
extended.
Getting to the Answer: In the table on the left, the x-values decrease
by 1 each time and the y-values increase by 3. In the table on the right,
the x-values increase by 2 each time and the y-values increase by 1. Use
these patterns to continue the tables.
Equation 1
x y
5 −8
4 −5
3 −2
2 1
1 4
0 7
597
Equation 2
x y
−8 3
−6 4
−4 5
−2 6
0 7
2 8
The point (0, 7) satisfies both equations, so the x-coordinate of the
solution to the system is 0.
18. 12
598
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Solving an equation that has a fractional exponent
can be very intimidating, so rewrite that part of the equation using a
radical instead. Then, solve the equation the same way you would any
other: Isolate the variable using inverse operations, one step at a time.
Getting to the Answer: After rewriting the equation using a radical,
start by subtracting 18 from both sides. Next, multiply both sides of the
equation by −2. Then, square both sides to remove the radical. Finally,
divide both sides by 3.
599
19. 3600
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Determine the dimensions of the tank in which there
will be water. Then, use the formula for finding the volume of a
rectangular prism: Volume = length × width × height.
Getting to the Answer: The tank is 30 inches long, 15 inches tall, and
12 inches wide. The sand and the space left at the top of the tank do not
affect the length or the width, only the height of the water. There are 2
inches of sand in the bottom and 3 inches of space left at the top, which
means the height of the water is 15 − 2 − 3 = 10 inches. Use the formula
Volume = l  × w  × h  = 30 × 12 × 10. To multiply the numbers without a
calculator, multiply 3 × 1 × 12 = 36 and then add two zeros to get 3,600
cubic inches of water.
20. 11
600
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: This question is, for the most part, conceptual. Start
by finding the y-coordinate of P in the original equation. Then, perform
the transformation on the coordinates (rather than the function) to save
yourself valuable time.
Getting to the Answer: Substitute 1 for x in the original equation.
Graphically, the resulting value of g(1) is the y-coordinate of the point.
The point on the graph of g(x) is (1, 7). Now, the question asks for the y-
coordinate of the corresponding point on the transformed graph. When
performing transformations, the operations grouped with the x are
performed on the x-coordinate, and the operations not grouped with the
x are performed on the y-coordinate. So, add 4 to 7 to find that the y-
coordinate of the point on the transformed graph is 11.
601
602
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Don’t get bogged down in the contextual information
in this question. You’re looking for the equation that best matches the
line drawn through the data points.
Getting to the Answer: The best-fit line begins at the origin, which
means the y-intercept is 0 (the b in the equation y  = mx  + b ), so you
can eliminate C and D. Now, find the slope of the line. Between (0, 0)
and (8, 4), the line rises 4 units and runs 8 units, so the slope is 
which is equivalent to 0.5. This means (A) is correct.
603
2. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: A horizontal line has a slope of 0. Lines that slant
downward from left to right have a negative slope, and lines that slant
upward from left to right have a positive slope.
Getting to the Answer: Only one line has a negative slope, S, so it
should come first in the list. This means you can eliminate A and D.
Next comes the horizontal line with a slope of 0, which is line U. You
can now eliminate C, which means (B) must be correct. To confirm
(which isn’t absolutely necessary), there are two lines with positive
slopes: R and T. Line T has a steeper slant than line R, which means line
T has a greater slope; therefore, the correct ordering is S, U, R, T.
3. C
604
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Algebraically, the solution to a system of inequalities
is an ordered pair that satisfies both inequalities. Graphically, this
means the ordered pair falls within the intersection (overlap) of the two
shaded regions.
Getting to the Answer: The point (2, 5) lies within the intersection of
the two shaded regions, so it is a solution to the system. None of the
other points lie within the intersection.
4. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Don’t let the three-way ratio confuse you. You can
answer this question just like any other ratio question. Before selecting
your answer, make sure you answered the right question (how many
605
more votes for the Independent candidate than for the Republican
candidate).
Getting to the Answer: Set up an equation using parts: 19 parts of the
vote were cast for the Independent candidate, 18 parts for the Democrat,
and 13 parts for the Republican. You don’t know how big a part is, so
call it x. Now, write and solve an equation:
This means each part is equal to 10,200 votes. Now, you could multiply
19 by this number and 13 by this number, and then subtract. Or, you
could recognize that the Independent received 19 − 13 = 6 more parts of
the vote than the Republican, or 6(10,200) = 61,200 more votes.
5. B
606
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Don’t spend too much time reviewing the context of
the question. Focus on the last couple of sentences, which tell you what
you’re looking for.
Getting to the Answer: You need to find the percent of states that use
the Missouri Plan. There are 15 states that use the Missouri Plan and 50
states total, so use the formula Whole × percent = part. The whole is 50,
the percent is unknown so call it x, and the part is 15, resulting in the
equation 50 x  = 15. Use division to find that x is 15 ÷ 50 = 0.3 = 30%.
6. B
607
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t let all the science confuse you. The way in
which the variables are defined tells you exactly what to do.
Getting to the Answer: All you need to do is substitute 197 (number of
seeds) for s and solve for r (rainfall) using inverse operations.
7. A
608
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: The dendrologist uses an exponential function to
model the data. When an exponential equation is written in the form of
f ( x ) = ab , a is the starting amount and b is the rate of growth or
decay.
Getting to the Answer: Read the question carefully. The dendrologist
is studying the number of leaves shed, not the number of leaves left on
the tree, so you can eliminate C and D. Remember, a is the starting
amount, not the unit of time, so it can’t represent the number of days,
which means you can also eliminate B. Choice (A) is correct because
1.92 is b in the equation, which represents the growth rate, so it tells the
dendrologist that the number of leaves shed almost doubles (192% is
very close to 200%) each day.
x
8. D
609
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: There is an open dot on the number line, which
means the sign must be < or >, so you can eliminate A and B.
Getting to the Answer: To decide between C and (D), you don’t even
need to solve the equation. Instead, look at the shading. The graph is
shaded to the left, which means the graph shows a  < −4. However,
there is a negative sign in front of the a term, so the inequality will be
reversed at some point in the solution, which means the original
inequality sign must have been >. The correct answer is (D). You can
check your answer by solving the inequality using the sign you chose. If
you chose correctly, your answer should match the graph.
9. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Take a quick peek at the answer choices. The
equations are given in slope-intercept form, so start by finding the slope.
610
Getting to the Answer: Find the slope by substituting two pairs of
values from the table (try to pick easy ones, if possible) into the slope
formula,  Keep in mind that the projected number of units
sold depends on the price, so the price is the independent variable (x)
and the projected number is the dependent variable (y). Using the points
(0.2, 150,000) and (0.4, 90,000), the slope is
This means you can eliminate A and B because the slope is not correct.
Don’t let B fool you—the projected number of units sold goes down as
the price goes up, so there is an inverse relationship, which means the
slope must be negative. To choose between C and (D), you could find
the y-intercept of the line, but this is a fairly time-intensive process.
Instead, choose any pair of values from the table, such as (0.2, 150,000),
and substitute into C and (D) only. Choice (D) is correct because
150,000 = −300,000(0.2) + 210,000 is a true statement.
10. A
Difficulty: Medium
611
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Create a system of linear equations where e
represents the number of packs with 8 boxes and t represents the number
of packs with 20 boxes. Before selecting your final answer, make sure
you answered the right question (the number of packs that have 20
boxes).
Getting to the Answer: The first equation should represent the total
number of packs, e  + t  = 61. The second equation should represent the
total number of boxes. Because e represents packs with 8 boxes and t
represents packs with 20 boxes, the second equation should be 8 e  +
20 t  = 800. Now, solve the system using substitution. Solve the first
equation to find that e  = 61 − t . Then, substitute the result into the
second equation:
612
We assigned the variable t to the number of packs with 20 boxes, so 26
packs have 20 boxes. This is what the question asks for, so you don’t
need to find the value of e.
11. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: To evaluate a high power of i, look for patterns and
use the definition  which, when written in a more useful form,
is i  = −1.
Getting to the Answer: Write out enough powers of i for you to see the
pattern:
2
613
Notice that the pattern (i, −1, −i, 1, i, −1, −i, 1) repeats on a cycle of 4.
To evaluate i , divide 125 by 4. The result is 31, remainder 1, which
means 31 full cycles and then back to i . This means i  is equivalent to
i , which is i. Because i  + i  = 2 i , you are looking for the answer
choice that is also equivalent to 2i. Choices (C) and D look tempting
(because of the 2), so start with them: (C) is correct because 45 ÷ 4 =
11, remainder 1, which means i  is equivalent to i and 2i  is equal to
2i.
125
1 125
1
45 45
12. A
614
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Find the greatest common factor (GCF) that can be
divided out of all of the terms in the expression. You need to find the
greatest number and the variable to the highest power that each term has
in common. To make finding the GCF easier, ignore the 2s in the
denominators until you’ve decided on a GCF and then put the 2 back in.
Getting to the Answer: The greatest number that 9, 3, and 15 have in
common is 3, so the GCF (with the 2 back in the denominator) is  All
terms in the expression have at least x , so you can also factor out x
from each term.
Unfortunately, this isn’t one of the answer choices. However, in (A),
 has been factored out, and all of the signs of the terms are reversed.
This answer is equivalent to the one found above and is therefore
correct.
8 8
615
13. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the axis labels as you read
the answer choices. Time is graphed on the x-axis, and distance is
graphed on the y-axis.
Getting to the Answer: Compare each answer choice to the graph,
eliminating false statements as you go.
Choice (A): The truck is stopped when it is making a delivery. This
means its distance is not changing, and the graph should be flat. Both flat
sections of the graph span 30 minutes (20 to 50 and 70 to 100), so each
delivery took 30 minutes. Choice (A) is correct. If you’re confident in
your answer, move on to the next question. If not, you can quickly check
the other answer choices to be sure.
Choice B: The second delivery starts at (70, 18), which means it was
about 18 miles away from the warehouse, not 70.
Choice C: When the truck arrived at the first delivery, it was about 8
miles from the warehouse, and when it was at the second delivery, it
616
was about 18 miles from the warehouse. Then, it had to travel 18 miles
back to the warehouse, so it traveled a total of 36 miles, not 18.
Choice D: The second delivery took place 18 miles from the warehouse,
and the first delivery took place 8 miles from the warehouse, which
means the second delivery was about 10 miles farther from the
warehouse, not 18.
14. B
617
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Start by filling in any cells in the table that you can,
using the information provided in the table itself (kind of like a sudoku
puzzle).
Getting to the Answer: Because there are 628 trees total and 402 are
hybrids, you know that 628 − 402 = 226 are not hybrids. Then, because
118 orange trees are not hybrids, you know that 226 − 118 = 108 apple
trees are not hybrids. Now, you’ve reached the point at which the table
can’t help you anymore. So, look at the question. It says that 45% of the
apple trees are not hybrids. Use the formula Percent × whole = part to
arrive at the equation 0.45 w  = 108. Then, solve for w by dividing: 108
÷ 0.45 = 240, which tells you there are 240 apple trees in total. This
means there are 240 − 108 = 132 apple trees that are hybrids.
15. D
618
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Start by completing the rest of the table. Use the
information you found in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Because there are 402 hybrids in total, there
are 402 − 132 = 270 orange trees that are hybrids, which means there
are 270 + 118 = 388 orange trees in total. Now, find the probability that
if the scientist selects one orange tree, it will be a hybrid. There are 388
orange trees total, and of those, 270 are hybrids, so the probability of
picking a hybrid is 
16. C
619
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Division and factoring are interchangeable, so think
of factoring out the x. Then, instead of dividing by  you can multiply
by its reciprocal, 2. Using these two strategies will make solving a
question like this considerably easier.
Getting to the Answer: First, divide (factor) out the x by subtracting 1
from each exponent: The result is
Now, multiply each term by 2 to get this:
17. C
620
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Be careful—the 0 in the table is an x-value, which
means it shows the y-intercept, not the x-intercept. You are looking for
the point at which y  = 0.
Getting to the Answer: You could use two of the points in the table
and the slope formula to find the equation of the line, then substitute 0
for y and solve for x. However, this would use up valuable time.
Instead, look for a pattern in the table. If you continue the pattern, the
next ordered pair would be (3, −1), which would mean the line has
dropped below the x-axis. This means the graph of the line crosses the
x-axis somewhere between the x-values of 2 and 3. The only answer
choice that is between 2 and 3 is (C).
18. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
621
Strategic Advice: There are a few ways to answer this question, but the
quickest way is to average the tourist’s climb rate over the 7 hours.
Getting to the Answer: The distance going up and back down is the
same (because she uses the same route), so find the average of the
tourist’s speed over both the ascent and the descent. She climbed 264
meters per hour going up and twice that, 528 meters per hour, going back
down, so her average climb rate was 264 + 528 = 792 ÷ 2 = 396 meters
per hour. It took her 7 hours. Use the formula Distance = rate × time to
find the distance:
But remember, this amount represents both up and down the mountain, so
divide by 2 to find that the vertical distance between the point where she
started climbing and the top of the mountain is 1,386 meters. Be careful
—this is not the answer! The question asks how tall Mount Fuji is, so
don’t forget to add the vertical distance she drove, 2,390 meters, to get
2,390 + 1,386 = 3,776 meters.
19. A
622
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Even though one of the equations in this system isn’t
linear, you can still solve the system using substitution.
Getting to the Answer: You already know that y is equal to 3x, so
substitute 3x for y in the second equation. Don’t forget that when you
square 3x, you must square both the coefficient and the variable.
The question asks for the value of x , not x, so there is no need to take
the square root of 12 to find the value of x. The answer is (A).
2
20. C
623
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Adding polynomials is typically safer than
subtracting them, because you may forget to distribute the negative sign
when subtracting more than one term.
Getting to the Answer: To find M  − N , multiply each term of N by −1
and then add the two polynomials by combining like terms.
Don’t forget to multiply the resulting expression by 2 to get 2(−2 x  +
9 x  + 8) = −4 x  + 18 x  + 16.
2
2
21. B
624
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The median of a data set is the middle value when
the data points are arranged from least to greatest (or greatest to least).
When there is an even number of data points, the median is the average
of the two middle values.
Getting to the Answer: The histogram represents the lengths of 28
bridges, so the median length is the average of the 14th and 15th longest
bridges. Because the number of bridges that are less than 6 miles long is
12, and the number of bridges that are less than 9 miles long is 12 + 8 +
20, the median length of the 28 bridges must be between 6 and 9 miles
(because 14 and 15 lie between 12 and 20). Of the choices given, only
(B) matches this criterion.
22. C
625
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: It’s a good idea to get comfortable with the
vocabulary used in statistics questions. Correlation simply means
relationship. The word weak refers to the strength of the relationship,
which has no effect on slope, but rather on how closely the data points
follow the line of best fit.
Getting to the Answer: Be careful not to confuse slope and strength.
Simply because a data set shows a weak correlation does not mean the
slope will be close to zero. The data can still be gathered around a steep
line of best fit. So, you can eliminate A and B. Also, keep in mind that
the terms weak and positive are not related but rather are two
independent descriptors of the correlation. So, the fact that the rate of
change is positive has nothing to do with the strength of the correlation.
In a weak correlation, the data points will follow the line of best fit, but
not as closely as in a strong correlation, which means (C) is correct.
23. C
626
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units. You need to convert
all of the dimensions to inches and then find the scale factor.
Getting to the Answer: There are 12 inches in one foot, so the height
of the woolly mammoth was 10 × 12 = 120 + 6 = 126 inches. The tusk
length was 11.5 feet, or 11.5 × 12 = 138 inches. The student plans to
draw the mammoth 14 inches tall, so find the scale factor of the two
heights by writing them as a fraction:  This means the scale
factor is  Multiply this by the length of the real mammoth’s tusks to
find the scaled length:  This means the student
should make the tusks 15.33 inches long.
24. D
627
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When a real-world scenario is modeled using a
linear equation, b is a flat fee or starting amount, m is a unit rate, x
represents the number of units, and y represents a total amount.
Getting to the Answer: Write the equation in words first, adding the
variables as you go. The total cost, y, is equal to the cost per pound, m,
multiplied by the number of pounds, x, and added to the cost of the pail,
b. You can eliminate A and B because b is 1.50 (the cost of the pail) and
m is 3.99 (the cost per pound). You can also eliminate C because
Johanna picks 3 pounds, so x is 3. Choice (D) is correct because the
total cost of picking 3 pounds is 3.99(3) + 1.50 = 13.47. This means
13.47 most likely represents the total cost, y.
25. B
628
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Start by determining what the question is asking. You
need to find the net percent change in the power reliance on solar panels
over the course of a day. To do this, you need to know how much the
solar panels were relied on at the beginning of the day and how much at
the end (neither of which is given).
Getting to the Answer: Whenever you aren’t given a concrete starting
point, pick one yourself. The best number to use when dealing with
percents is 100. First, find how much power was derived from the solar
panels after the first increase: 100 × 0.6 = 60. So, the company
increased power from the solar panels to 100 + 60 = 160. Next, find the
amount after the decrease: 160 × 0.3 = 48, so the solar panels then
provided 160 − 48 = 112 units of power. Finally, find the amount after
the last increase: 112 × 0.75 = 84, so the plant ended the day at 112 + 84
= 196, which is 196 − 100 = 96 more than it started the day with. To
find the percent change, use the formula
 to get 
629
26. D
630
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: A question like this requires a simple proportion.
However, you need to convert the units so they are the same. You can
convert feet to meters or meters to feet—it doesn’t matter which you
choose, as long as the lengths end up in the same unit of measure.
Getting to the Answer: Because the conversion given at the end of the
question is feet to meters, convert the first snake length to meters by
multiplying it by 0.3. Remember, 2 feet, 6 inches is the same as 2.5 feet:
2.5 feet × 0.3 meters per foot = 0.75 meters. Now, set up a proportion
and solve. Let g be the number of grams of feed needed for a snake that
is 1 meter long. Write the proportion in words first to keep the pieces
organized:
A snake that is 1 meter long should receive 16 grams of frog mash.
631
27. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: This is a very difficult question involving arc length
given in radians and answer choices that involve trig functions. If you’re
not familiar with these topics, you should guess and move on to the next
question. (Don’t forget—there is no penalty for wrong answers on the
new SAT!)
Getting to the Answer: Take a peek at the answer choices—the angles
of the trig functions are given in radians, rather than degrees (you know
this because there is no degree symbol). This means you’ll need to use
the radian formula for finding arc length: arcL  = θ × r , where θ is the
central angle of the arc in radians and r is the radius of the circle. This
will allow you to determine the measure of the central angle, half of
which becomes one of the angles of a right triangle (CDE, for example).
You know both the arc length (3.4) and the radius (2), so solve for the
central angle.
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This means that ∠DCF has a measure of 1.7 radians, and consequently,
∠DCE has a measure of half that, or 0.85 radians. Add this measure to
the triangle, or draw a quick right triangle off to the side like the one
below:
Now, if you can find the length of side DE, you can double it to find the
length of chord DF. Side DE is opposite the angle measure that you
found and you know the hypotenuse of the triangle; so, use the ratio
 to find the length of side DE:
Multiply by 2 to find that DF  = 2 × 2sin(0.85) = 4sin(0.85). Keep in
mind that multiplying the angle (inside the parentheses) is not the same
as multiplying the whole quantity by 2.
28. A
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t let all the fractions intimidate you. There are
two equations and two variables, so solve this system the same way you
would solve any other system of equations.
Getting to the Answer: The first equation is already solved perfectly
for y, so use substitution. To make the second equation easier to work
with, multiply it by 4 to clear the fractions (even though you may have
noticed the tempting 4 in the denominator of the desired expression).
Next, substitute 80 for x into the first equation and solve for y.
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Finally, substitute the values you found into the expression in the
question, 
29. B
635
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: This question requires a conceptual understanding of
modeling data and properties of quadratic equations. You also need to
recall that a solution to an equation is the same as the x-intercept of the
equation’s graph.
Getting to the Answer: The graph of a quadratic equation is symmetric
with respect to its axis of symmetry. The axis of symmetry occurs at the
x-value of the vertex, which according to the graph is 20. You can also
see from the graph that one of the x-intercepts is x  = 8. This means that
8 is a solution to the quadratic equation. Unfortunately, 8 isn’t one of the
answer choices. However, because the graph of a quadratic equation is
symmetric, the other solution (x-intercept) must be the same distance
from the vertex as 8 is, which is 20 − 8 = 12 units. Therefore, the other
solution to the equation is x  = 20 + 12 = 32.
30. D
636
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is in having a
conceptual understanding of function notation. Here, the input ( x  − 4)
has already been substituted and simplified in the given function. Your
job is to determine what the function would have looked like had x been
the input instead.
Getting to the Answer: To keep things organized, let u  = x  − 4, the
old input. This means x  = u  + 4. Substitute this into h ( x  − 4) and
simplify:
This means h ( u ) = 6 u  + 50 u  + 114.
When working with function notation, you evaluate the function by
substituting a given input value for the variable in the parentheses. Here,
if the input value is x, then h ( x ) = 6 x  + 50 x  + 114.
2
2
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31. 42
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: When a sample is a good representation of a
population, you can apply the results of a study to the entire population.
Getting to the Answer: Start by finding the percent of the graduates
who were surveyed that were not practicing law: 720 out of 3,000 =
720 ÷ 3,000 = 0.24, or 24%. The question asks about the number of
graduates who were practicing law in 2012, so subtract from 100% to
find that 76% of the graduates were practicing law in 2012. Apply this
percentage to the whole population of graduates from 2000 who passed
the bar: 55,200 × 0.76 = 41,952. Now, follow directions carefully—
round to the nearest thousand (42,000) and enter your answer as the
number of thousands, which is 42.
32. 4962
638
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Create a linear equation to keep the information
straight. The total number of miles driven by the car is equal to the miles
per gallon times the number of gallons in the tank added to the existing
number of miles on the odometer.
Getting to the Answer: The equation is y  = 48 x  + 4,386. You are
given the x-value, 12 gallons, so simply substitute it for x and solve for
y.
33. 28
639
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Graphically, a y-intercept is in the form (0, y), so the
y-intercept of the graph is the value of y when 0 is substituted for x in
the equation.
Getting to the Answer: Don’t forget to follow the correct order of
operations as you simplify the expression.
34. 60
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
640
Strategic Advice: Whenever a question asks about the amount of space
something covers (here, the greenspace), you are looking for area. In
this question, the area that you’re looking for takes on the shape of a
right triangle (actually, two of them), so use the formula 
Getting to the Answer: The key to answering this question is in
labeling the diagram. The calculations are very straightforward once
you have the correct dimensions of the triangles. You’re given that the
width of each parking lot is equal to the width of the City Hall building,
so each parking lot is 540 ÷ 3 = 180 feet wide. This means the base of
each triangle (at the top of the diagram) is 180 − 40 = 140 feet. The
height of each triangle is the same as the length of the parking lot, which
is 430 feet.
You now have all the numbers you need. The area of each triangle is
641
 so both triangles together result in a
greenspace that covers 60,200 square feet. Rounded to the nearest
thousand, this is 60,000, which should be gridded in as 60.
35. 23
642
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: When a question asks about a maximum (or
minimum) amount, it usually means you need to create and solve an
inequality.
Getting to the Answer: Write the inequality in words first. The cost of
3 cans of vegetables plus the cost of 1 bag of rice, all multiplied by the
number of care packages Rasha makes, must be less than or equal to the
amount of money he collected, $145. Because you are not asked to
differentiate between cans and rice, they can be represented by the same
variable. Just don’t forget to multiply the cost of 1 can by 3 first ($0.89
× 3 = $2.67). Let p represent the number of care packages:
Be careful, the question asks for complete care packages, so he can
make only 23.
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36. 1.75023
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Questions that involve distance, rate, and time can
almost always be solved using the formula Distance = rate × time. Just
make sure the rate and the time involve compatible units.
Getting to the Answer: For each of the three rail systems, you know
how long the person traveled and their rate (after you adjust for the
30%). Use the formula to find the distance for each one. But be careful
—the rates are given in miles per hour, which means you must use hours,
not minutes, for the times.
New York City Subway:
Time = 6 minutes = 0.1 hours
Rate = 17.4 mph
Distance = 17.4 × 0.1 = 1.74 miles
Chicago L:
Time = 4.8 minutes = 0.08 hours
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Rate = 1.3(17.4) = 22.62 mph
Distance = 22.62 × 0.075 = 1.8096 miles
DC Metro:
Time = 3.6 minutes = 0.06 hours
Rate = 1.3(22.62) = 29.406 mph
Distance = 29.406 × 0.05 = 1.76436 miles
Marc traveled the shortest distance between stops at about 1.7 miles.
645
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The key to answering a question like this is in
reading the labels on the graph carefully. You do not need to convert
grams to micrograms or vice versa. They are simply the units for
mercury content.
Getting to the Answer: Start by determining how many micrograms of
mercury a person who weighs 82 kilograms can consume: 82 × 0.1 = 8.2
micrograms. Next, find snapper on the bar graph and determine how
many micrograms it contains (per gram of weight): 0.165. Divide the
number of micrograms the person can consume, 8.2, by the number in
each gram of snapper to arrive at 8.2 ÷ 0.165 = 49.697, or about 50
grams.
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
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Strategic Advice: There is a lot of information to sort through in a
question like this. Make a plan and carry out the plan one step at a time.
Don’t try to keep all the calculations in your calculator; jot them down
as you work through each step.
Getting to the Answer: Multiply the average portion size (100 grams)
by each mercury content shown in the bar graph. Don’t forget to remove
the swordfish, because it has the highest mercury content. Then, find the
average—but be careful, you’re finding an average over 7 days (the
number of days in a week), not 5 (the number of portions the person
consumes).
Haddock: 0.055 × 100 = 5.5
Tuna: 0.350 × 100 = 35
Snapper: 0.165 × 100 = 16.5
Marlin: 0.485 × 100 = 48.5
Orange Roughy: 0.570 × 10 = 57
The total is 162.5 micrograms, which means the average daily
consumption over the whole week is 162.5 ÷ 7 = 23.214, or about 23
micrograms. (Note that unless this person weighs 230 kg, which is a
little over 500 pounds, then they are consuming way too much mercury
per day.)
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37. 50
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The key to answering a question like this is in
reading the labels on the graph carefully. You do not need to convert
grams to micrograms or vice versa. They are simply the units for
mercury content.
Getting to the Answer: Start by determining how many micrograms of
mercury a person who weighs 82 kilograms can consume: 82 × 0.1 = 8.2
micrograms. Next, find snapper on the bar graph and determine how
many micrograms it contains (per gram of weight): 0.165. Divide the
number of micrograms the person can consume, 8.2, by the number in
each gram of snapper to arrive at 8.2 ÷ 0.165 = 49.697, or about 50
grams.
38. 23
Difficulty: Hard
648
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: There is a lot of information to sort through in a
question like this. Make a plan and carry out the plan one step at a time.
Don’t try to keep all the calculations in your calculator; jot them down
as you work through each step.
Getting to the Answer: Multiply the average portion size (100 grams)
by each mercury content shown in the bar graph. Don’t forget to remove
the swordfish, because it has the highest mercury content. Then, find the
average—but be careful, you’re finding an average over 7 days (the
number of days in a week), not 5 (the number of portions the person
consumes).
Haddock: 0.055 × 100 = 5.5
Tuna: 0.350 × 100 = 35
Snapper: 0.165 × 100 = 16.5
Marlin: 0.485 × 100 = 48.5
Orange Roughy: 0.570 × 10 = 57
The total is 162.5 micrograms, which means the average daily
consumption over the whole week is 162.5 ÷ 7 = 23.214, or about 23
micrograms. (Note that unless this person weighs 230 kg, which is a
649
little over 500 pounds, then they are consuming way too much mercury
per day.)
650
SAT PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates…
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
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3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
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2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
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1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in certain errors that detract
from the quality of the writing
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
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Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
The State of the Union differs year to year in that each president speaks
in a distinctive style while outlining specific policy proposals he or she
would like to see enacted into law. However, all of the speeches
probably have one thing in common: Any proposals the president makes
are almost always connected to an emotional appeal based on American
values such as freedom and opportunity. President Truman’s 1948 State
of the Union address was no exception. In the speech, he offers his ideas
for social security, health care, education, and preservation of our
natural resources. But he frames all of his ideas within one common
narrative: The American ideals of democracy insist on the continued
investment in the collective welfare and security of our citizens.
Truman’s first goal is to convince Congress that investing in the nation’s
collective welfare is nothing less than ensuring that the essential human
rights of U.S. citizens are met. He begins his speech in general terms by
asking Congress to focus on the common aspirations they have for
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in numerous errors that
undermine the quality of the writing
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American citizens, such as freedom of speech and freedom of religion.
This is an effective way to begin, because it allows him to establish
common ground with his political opponents. After all, who doesn’t
believe in freedom? He then says what is probably the most important
line of the speech: “Any denial of human rights is a denial of the basic
beliefs of democracy and of our regard for the worth of each
individual.” He strengthens his position with the evidence that “some of
our citizens are still denied equal opportunity for education, for jobs and
economic advancement, and for the expression of their views at the
polls,” as well as equal protection under the law. This is a direct appeal
to emotion, and it sets the tone for the rest of his speech because he
continually equates the “right” of citizens to economic security and
equality of opportunity with government investment in what he terms
“human resources.”
President Truman now makes the argument that to protect human
freedoms, we must invest in human resources by improving the nation’s
social security, health, and education. He explains that further
investment in social security programs, including unemployment
compensation and old age benefits, would best ensure the economic
security of Americans. President Truman argues that affordable health
care is needed to protect people’s economic security as well, reasoning
that good doctors are of no use if you can’t afford them, thereby making
the implicit point that people who are sick suffer wage and job loss.
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He then turns to education, using the powerful phrase “equality of
opportunity” to argue that our democracy would be strengthened with
better educated citizens. He also notes his concern for the educational
inequalities that existed at that time between states, arguing, “If there are
educational inadequacies in any state, the whole nation suffers.” He
mentions this in order to strengthen his argument for the federal
government to help provide equitable reform throughout the nation.
President Truman uses similar language to discuss his goal of more
thoughtful use and conservation of fields, forests, and mines, arguing that
these “natural resources” are in need of the same investment and
protection that we give to our “human resources.” His rationale is based
on a simple argument: Natural resources are essential to the nation’s
“growth and economic development.” He argues for a good balance
between conservation and use of our natural resources, and again turns
to emotional appeals while doing so. He uses phrases such as
“preservation of our national strength” and “an expanding future” to
connect better use of natural resources with national pride and security.
Throughout his speech, President Truman continually ties his proposals
to the essential ideals of our great nation. The speech makes it clear that
he firmly believes our democracy is only as strong as the collective
welfare of its citizens. He argues that the preservation of our democracy
requires nothing less than continued investment in our human and natural
657
resources, and that the values upon which our democracy is based
actually demand such investment to ensure equality of freedom and
opportunity. An appeal to emotion using such powerful words as
“freedom,” “opportunity,” and “democracy” leaves the members of
Congress, and the American public, with little room to argue against
him.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
U.S. presidents give a State of the Union address to Congress and the
American people every year. They usually use the speech to introduce
new ideas and proposals that they hope Congress will make into laws,
so they have to persuade Congress to go along with their ideas.
Presidents today do this, and many presidents in the past did this as
well, including President Truman. In 1948, he gave a speech about the
need to invest in human rights, human resources, and natural resources.
President Truman begins his speech talking about human rights. He
speaks in general terms by asking Congress to think about the goals they
have for American citizens, such as freedom of speech and freedom of
religion, regardless of whether or not they support his policies. This is a
good way to begin, because everyone believes in freedom and it was
probably important for Truman to find common ground with his
audience. He then says we should never deny human rights. This is
658
important because he thought human rights included the right to freedom
and opportunity. These are values that every American holds dear, so
President Truman thought mentioning those values would help him
convince his audience about the need to spend more money on things
like social security and education. The best way to do that was to talk
about how those things would help American democracy.
Then he talks about human resources. President Truman makes it clear
that he believes that the rights of Americans should be protected with
more investment in social security programs, including unemployment
compensation and old age benefits. President Truman also reasons that
affordable health care protects American rights as well. He then states
that education is important for our democracy, and he uses phrases such
as “equality of opportunity” to argue that our country would be better
with better educated citizens.
Truman’s final point is the need to protect and use natural resources
wisely. He believes natural resources are just as important as human
resources because natural resources are essential to the “growth and
economic development” of the nation. He urges Congress to think about
better use and conservation of natural resources like forests and water,
and uses language like “preservation of our national strength” to tie this
issue to America’s strength and security.
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Throughout his speech, President Truman talks about things that make
our nation great, hoping to convince Congress to go along with his plans.
He asserts that it is important to take care of American citizens and their
rights to things like social security and education, and to take care of the
environment. He also asserts that all these things, like human rights,
human resources, and natural resources, are worth spending money for.
By using words like “freedom” and “opportunity” to describe his plans
and persuade Congress to make those plans laws, he makes it hard to
argue against him, as all Americans want the best for their country.
660
SAT Practice Test 3 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
661
662
663
664
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
“Village Opera”
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The following passage is adapted from the short story “Village Opera,”
by early 20th-century Chinese writer Lu Hsun. The narrator recalls a
childhood memory of being a guest, along with his mother, in his
grandmother’s home in Pingchao Village.
It was the custom in Luchen where we lived
for married women who were not yet in charge of
the household to go back to their parents’ home
for the summer. Although my father’s mother was
then still quite strong, my mother had quite a few(5)
household duties. She could not spend many days
at her own home during the summer. She could
take a few days only after visiting the ancestral
graves. At such times I always went with her to
stay in her parents’ house. It was in a place called(10)
Pingchao Village, not far from the sea, a very
out-of-the-way little village on a river, with less
than thirty households, peasants, and fishermen,
and just one tiny grocery.…
We spent most of our days digging up worms,(15)
putting them on little hooks made of copper wire,
and lying on the river bank to catch shrimps.
Shrimps are the silliest water creatures: they willingly
use their own pincers to push the point of the hook
into their mouths; so in a few hours we could catch(20)
666
a big bowlful. It became the custom to give these
shrimps to me. Another thing we did was to take
the buffaloes out together, but, maybe because they
are animals of a higher species, oxen and buffaloes
are hostile to strangers, and they treated me with(25)
contempt so that I never dared get too close to them.
I could only follow at a distance and stand there.…
What I looked forward to most was going to
Chaochuang to see the opera. Chaochuang was
a slightly larger village about two miles away.(30)
Since Pingchiao was too small to afford to put on
operas, every year it contributed some money for a
performance at Chaochuang. At the time, I wasn’t
curious why they should have operas every year.
Thinking about it now, I dare say it may have been(35)
for the late spring festival or for the village sacrifice.
That year when I was eleven or twelve, the
long-awaited day arrived. But as ill luck would
have it, there was no boat for hire that morning.
Pingchiao Village had only one sailing boat,(40)
which left in the morning and came back in the
evening. This was a large boat which it was out of
the question to hire; and all the other boats were
unsuitable because they were too small. Someone
was sent round to the neighbouring villages to ask(45)
667
if they had boats, but no—they had all been hired
already. My grandmother was very upset, blamed
my cousins for not hiring one earlier, and began to
complain. Mother tried to comfort her by saying
the operas at Luchen were much better than in(50)
these little villages, and there were several every
year, so there was no need to go today. But I was
nearly in tears from disappointment, and mother
did her best to impress on me that no matter what,
I must not make a scene, because it would upset my(55)
grandmother; and I mustn’t go with other people
either, for then grandmother would be worried.
In a word, it had fallen through. After lunch,
when all my friends had left and the opera had
started, I imagined I could hear the sound of gongs(60)
and drums, and saw them, with my mind’s eye, in
front of the stage buying soya-bean milk.
I didn’t catch shrimps that day, and didn’t eat
much either. Mother was very upset, but there was
nothing she could do. By supper time grandmother(65)
realized how I felt, and said I was quite right to
be angry, they had been too negligent, and never
before had guests been treated so badly. After the
meal, youngsters who had come back from the
opera gathered round and gaily described it all for(70)
668
us. I was the only one silent; they all sighed and
said how sorry they were for me. Suddenly one of
the brightest, called Shuang-hsi, had an inspiration,
and said: “A big boat—hasn’t Eighth Grand-uncle’s
boat come back?” A dozen other boys picked up(75)
the idea in a flash, and at once started agitating to
take the boat and go with me. I cheered up. But
grandmother was nervous, thinking we were all
children and undependable. And mother said that
since the grown-ups all had to work the next day, it(80)
wouldn’t be fair to ask them to go with us and stay
up all night. While our fate hung in the balance,
Shuang-hsi went to the root of the question and
declared loudly: “I give my word it’ll be all right! It’s
a big boat, Brother Hsun never jumps around, and(85)
we can all swim!”
It was true. There wasn’t one boy in the dozen
who wasn’t a fish in water, and two or three of them
were first-rate swimmers.
Grandmother and mother were convinced(90)
and did not raise any more objections. They both
smiled, and we immediately rushed out.
1. According to the passage, why does the narrator spend time in his
mother’s parents’ home?
669
He always goes with his mother when she visits there.(A)
His grandmother insists that he come with his mother.(B)
He lives with his grandmother most of the year.(C)
His grandmother needs extra help.(D)
2. As used in line 54, “impress” most nearly means
amaze.(A)
emphasize.(B)
mark.(C)
affect.(D)
3. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
The narrator’s grandmother lets the narrator do whatever he wants.(A)
The narrator’s mother does not enjoy visiting her mother’s home.(B)
The narrator’s mother is not head of her household.(C)
The narrator’s grandmother thinks his mother is too strict with him.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
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Lines 1-4 (“It was the … summer”)(A)
Lines 9-10 (“At such times … parents’ house”)(B)
Lines 15-17 (“We spent … to catch shrimps”)(C)
Lines 35-36 (“Thinking about it … the village sacrifice”)(D)
5. What theme does the passage communicate through the experiences of
the narrator?
Traditions are meant to be changed.(A)
Hope is hard to maintain.(B)
Disappointments are a part of life.(C)
Problems can sometimes be solved.(D)
6. Based on the passage, why do the narrator’s mother and grandmother
change their minds about letting him go to the opera?
They decide they could trust the person who owns the boat.(A)
They want to please the narrator since he was so sad.(B)
They decide there is no reason to stop the boys from going.(C)
They realize that the boat is not that small.(D)
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7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 42-44 (“This was … too small”)(A)
Lines 58-62 (“After lunch … soya-bean milk”)(B)
Lines 79-82 (“And mother … all night”)(C)
Lines 87-89 (“It was … swimmers”)(D)
8. As used in line 76, “agitating” most nearly means
campaigning.(A)
shaking.(B)
disturbing.(C)
stirring.(D)
9. The author’s use of the phrase “with my mind’s eye” (line 61) implies
that the narrator
sees visions.(A)
has poor eyesight.(B)
wants to go to sleep.(C)
has a good imagination.(D)
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Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Nelson Mandela Speech
The following passage is adapted from a pivotal 1964 speech by South
Africa’s Nelson Mandela, called “An Ideal for Which I Am Prepared to
Die.” Mandela, later elected first president of democratic South Africa,
gave this speech before his trial and imprisonment for activism against
apartheid, a now-obsolete system of racial segregation in South Africa.
10. Based on the tone of this passage, what emotion does the author wish
the reader to feel toward the narrator?
Sympathy(A)
Criticism(B)
Indifference(C)
Hostility(D)
The lack of human dignity experienced by
Africans is the direct result of the policy of white
supremacy.… Menial tasks in South Africa are
invariably performed by Africans. When anything
has to be carried or cleaned the white man will look(5)
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around for an African to do it for him, whether the
African is employed by him or not. Because of this
sort of attitude, whites … do not look upon them
as people with families of their own; they do not
realise that they have emotions—that they fall in(10)
love like white people do; that they want to be with
their wives and children like white people want
to be with theirs; that they want to earn enough
money to support their families properly, to feed
and clothe them and send them to school.…(15)
Pass laws, which to the Africans are among
the most hated bits of legislation in South Africa,
render any African liable to police surveillance at
any time. I doubt whether there is a single African
male in South Africa who has not at some stage(20)
had a brush with the police over his pass. Hundreds
and thousands of Africans are thrown into jail each
year under pass laws. Even worse than this is the
fact that pass laws keep husband and wife apart and
lead to the breakdown of family life.(25)
Poverty and the breakdown of family life have
secondary effects. Children wander about the
streets of the townships because they have no
schools to go to, or no money to enable them to go
to school, or no parents at home to see that they go(30)
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to school, because both parents (if there be two)
have to work to keep the family alive. This leads to
a breakdown in moral standards … and to growing
violence which erupts not only politically, but
everywhere.…(35)
Africans want to perform work which they
are capable of doing, and not work which the
government declares them to be capable of.
Africans want to be allowed to live where they
obtain work, and not be endorsed out of an area(40)
because they were not born there. Africans want to
be allowed to own land in places where they work,
and not to be obliged to live in rented houses which
they can never call their own. Africans want to be
part of the general population, and not confined(45)
to living in their own ghettoes. African men want
to have their wives and children to live with them
where they work.… Africans want to be allowed
out after eleven o’clock at night and not to be
confined to their rooms like little children. Africans(50)
want to be allowed to travel in their own country
and to seek work where they want to and not where
the labour bureau tells them to. Africans want a
just share in the whole of South Africa; they want
security and a stake in society.(55)
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Above all, we want equal political rights, because
without them our disabilities will be permanent.
I know this sounds revolutionary to the whites in
this country, because the majority of voters will be
Africans. This makes the white man fear democracy.(60)
But this fear cannot be allowed to stand in the
way of the only solution which will guarantee
racial harmony and freedom for all. It is not true
that the enfranchisement of all will result in racial
domination. Political division, based on colour, is(65)
entirely artificial and, when it disappears, so will
the domination of one colour group by another.
The ANC  has spent half a century fighting against1
racialism. When it triumphs it will not change that
policy.(70)
This then is what the ANC is fighting. Their
struggle is a truly national one. It is a struggle of
the African people, inspired by their own suffering
and their own experience. It is a struggle for the
right to live.(75)
During my lifetime I have dedicated myself to
this struggle of the African people. I have fought
against white domination, and I have fought
against black domination. I have cherished the
ideal of a democratic and free society in which all(80)
676
ANC: African National Congress, the political organization that spearheaded the movement for
equal rights in South Africa
persons live together in harmony and with equal
opportunities. It is an ideal which I hope to live
for and to achieve. But if needs be, it is an ideal for
which I am prepared to die.
1
11. What is the most likely intended purpose of this speech?
To explain the political goals of the ANC(A)
To explain why Mandela is not guilty of the crime of which he is
accused
(B)
To argue that the laws passed under apartheid are illegal(C)
To explain to white South Africans why the apartheid system must be
abolished
(D)
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-3 (“The lack of … supremacy”)(A)
Lines 36-37 (“Africans want … of doing”)(B)
Lines 68-69 (“The ANC … racialism”)(C)
Lines 76-77 (“During … African people”)(D)
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13. As used in line 40, “endorsed” most nearly means
supported.(A)
signed.(B)
authorized.(C)
approved.(D)
14. It can be reasonably inferred that pass laws
led to the criminal behavior they were designed to prevent.(A)
were fundamentally European and incompatible with African life.(B)
led to the passage of additional apartheid laws.(C)
were a necessary part of South Africa’s transition to democracy.(D)
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 19-21 (“I doubt … his pass”)(A)
Lines 21-23 (“Hundreds … pass laws”)(B)
Lines 26-27 (“Poverty … effects”)(C)
Lines 32-35 (“This leads to … but everywhere”)(D)
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16. As used in line 66, “artificial” most nearly means
simulated.(A)
not genuine.(B)
imitative.(C)
man-made.(D)
17. According to Mandela’s claims, what is true of democracy?
It is fundamentally incompatible with white rule.(A)
It existed in South Africa before apartheid.(B)
It is a goal of white South Africans.(C)
It would lead to increased crime at all levels.(D)
18. The statement in lines 68-70 (“The ANC … policy”) is important to the
overall argument in its suggestion that
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black South Africans will initiate steps to curb violence without
pass laws.
(A)
black South Africans will be happier once there are equal political
rights.
(B)
black South Africans will not retaliate once there are equal political
rights.
(C)
black South Africans will continue to endorse a separate but equal
system.
(D)
19. It can be reasonably inferred that Mandela would most likely support
which of the following future policies?
Reduction of domestic employment(A)
Job training for untrained workers(B)
Pass laws for all whites and blacks(C)
Investment in overseas business(D)
20. Paragraph 6 of Mandela’s speech can be described as
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Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Dictionary Passage
a promise that the changes he proposes will be good for all people.(A)
a contrast between his former beliefs and those he currently holds.(B)
an acknowledgment that he knows there is no perfect system.(C)
a thank-you for people’s continued support in a difficult situation.(D)
If you’ve ever played Scrabble, you know who
the ultimate arbiter in that word game is: You
challenge a word your opponent makes by reaching
for that infallible judge, the dictionary. After all, a
dictionary is a definitive collection of words,(5)
spellings, and meanings, right?
Actually, that isn’t quite so, because while we
regard dictionaries as catalogs of correctness, the
truth is that dictionaries do not tell the whole story.
We can think of them as horses pulling tidy carts of(10)
our cluttered language, but in fact, as David Skinner
wrote in the New York Times (May 17, 2013), “in
following Webster’s you’re following the followers.”
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That’s because language is an ever-changing
thing in which new words are invented all the(15)
time and old words are put to new use. Keeping up
with this is an impossible task, as the writers of the
Oxford English Dictionary, or OED, found out over
150 years ago.
In 1879, members of the Philological Society(20)
of London began working with James Murray
of Oxford University Press to produce a more
complete dictionary than what was available at
the time. In ten years, they estimated, they would
publish a four-volume, 6,400-page dictionary(25)
covering all English language vocabulary from the
Early Middle English period (c. AD 1150) onward.
However, five years along they were only as far as
the word “ant”! The task of tracking new words and
new meanings of existing words while examining(30)
the previous seven centuries of the language’s
development proved monumental.
It turned out that their work required ten
volumes, included over 400,000 words, and was not
fully published until 1924. Even then, the editors’(35)
first job after completion of the monstrous OED
was to print an addendum, which came out a mere
nine years later.
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As Skinner says, “There is always much more to
know about a word than what a dictionary can tell(40)
you.”
According to Global Language Monitor, a new
word is created every 98 minutes; this results in
an average of about 14 words per day. They come
from regular people; from writers; from special-(45)
ized, often scientific fields; and from the
Internet.
A short list of the words spawned by the Internet
and its technologies includes “blog,” “avatar,” “spam,”
and “webisode.” Every year, Merriam-Webster’s,(50)
publisher of America’s premier dictionary, adds a
jumble of words that have been coined by Web users
and promulgated across the Internet’s multitudinous
channels: websites, chat rooms, forums, blogs, and,
of course, social media platforms.(55)
Just like other professional and social realms,
the Internet produces both new words and new
definitions of old words. The word “troll,” for
example, dates back to 1616 as a name for “a
dwarf or giant in Scandinavian folklore inhabiting(60)
caves or hills.” In the last decade, however, “troll”
emerged as a term for someone who participates
in Internet discussions, not to contribute
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meaningfully, but for the sole purpose of making
harsh rebuttals and insults.(65)
Dictionary makers are faced with tough
decisions. Any dictionary that doesn’t include
Internet-produced words would be seen as
being behind the times, although many feel that
dictionaries go too far in their role as recorders of(70)
what gets said rather than rule-makers of correct
usage. One of the most controversial new entries
happened in 2013, when several major dictionaries
added a definition for “literally” that literally means
the literal opposite of its meaning! To some it(75)
seemed to erode the very purpose of a dictionary,
but consensus prevailed, and Merriam-Webster’s
now lists “in effect; virtually” as one meaning of
literally. In response to criticism it received,
Merriam-Webster’s wrote, “the use is pure(80)
hyperbole intended to gain emphasis.” Seemingly
as a concession to those who call the definition
incorrect, it added, “but it often appears in contexts
where no additional emphasis is necessary.”
For those who grumble about the imperfection(85)
that this entry enjoins, perhaps the best attitude
to have is that expressed on the Oxford English
Dictionary’s Web site: “An exhilarating aspect of a
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living language is that it continually changes.”
21. The stance the author takes in the passage is best described as that of
a columnist discussing a topic of interest.(A)
a pundit advocating support for a position.(B)
a reporter investigating a current event.(C)
a researcher cataloguing historical data.(D)
22. According to the first two paragraphs, what claim does the author seek
to refute?
685
The assertion that Merriam-Webster’s is the best authority to follow(A)
The assumption that Scrabble users rely on dictionaries for aid(B)
The notion that dictionaries are absolute and undeniable authorities(C)
The prediction that dictionaries will become cluttered over time(D)
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-2 (“If you’ve … game is”)(A)
Lines 2-4 (“You challenge … dictionary”)(B)
Lines 4-6 (“After all, … right”)(C)
Lines 11-13 (“David Skinner … followers”)(D)
24. As used in line 32, “monumental” most nearly means
important.(A)
impossible.(B)
tremendous.(C)
ungainly.(D)
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25. What idea does the author convey in lines 44-46 through the use of the
succession of phrases “from regular people; from writers; from
specialized, often scientific fields”?
Definitions of words reflect usage for varied purposes among
different people.
(A)
Dictionaries must be accessible to users from all walks of life.(B)
People from several professional fields contributed to the
development of the OED.
(C)
Words come from many sources, including nonphilological ones.(D)
26. What conclusion can best be drawn from lines 50-55 (“Every year, …
social media platforms”)?
Dictionaries are easily updated through online and other digital
tools.
(A)
Navigating the Web requires adopting new meanings for existing
words.
(B)
The Internet is the most prolific source of new words today.(C)
Words gain not only meaning but also legitimacy through usage.(D)
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27. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 42-44 (“According to … per day”)(A)
Lines 58-61 (“The word … or hills”)(B)
Lines 61-65 (“In the last … insults”)(C)
Lines 72-75 (“One of the most … meaning”)(D)
28. What conclusion can be drawn from the data in the graphic?
Before 2014, fewer than five words from the Internet were added.(A)
Fewer words from the Internet were added before 2009 than during
that year.
(B)
More words from the Internet were added after 2010 than before.(C)
So far, in the 21st century, twenty-six words from the Internet have
been added.
(D)
29. As used in line 76, “erode” most nearly means
688
diminish.(A)
corrode.(B)
consume.(C)
wear.(D)
30. Based on the passage, which choice best describes the relationship
between language and dictionaries?
Dictionaries reflect the flaws and inconsistencies of language.(A)
Dictionaries attempt to address the idea that language changes over
time.
(B)
Dictionaries establish definite meanings for new words.(C)
Dictionaries support the opinion that the study of language is
exhilarating.
(D)
31. The data in the graphic most clearly support which conclusion from the
passage?
Dictionaries are imperfect records of the English language.(A)
Language changes in response to the needs of those who use it.(B)
Many new words originate from evolving technologies.(C)
Online usage constantly adapts the meaning of existing words.(D)
689
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passages.
Paired Passages—Atlantic Ocean Wildlife
Passage 1
A baby loggerhead sea turtle hatches in its nest
buried deep in the sand. Soon, it emerges onto the
beach with its siblings. The palm-sized creatures
venture across the sand and into the waves of
the Atlantic Ocean. The tiny turtles must vanish(5)
quickly to avoid the many predators looming on
the dunes or near the water. Seagulls, raccoons, and
other animals are eager to make a meal out of the
brand-new hatchlings.
Until now, scientists have been unable to track(10)
where baby sea turtles go once they reach the water.
Small satellite transmitters have allowed older
loggerheads to be tracked and studied from afar,
giving researchers a window into their migration
patterns, their social behaviors, and other patterns(15)
that can be difficult to track in the ocean. But the
travels of a newly hatched sea turtle have remained
a mystery.
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Scientists on the island of Boa Vista, off the coast
of West Africa, have successfully tagged eleven(20)
hatchlings with nanoacoustic tags. This has allowed
scientists to follow the baby turtles for their first
eight hours in the ocean. The tags, which send a
ping that the researchers can then plot, are glued
to the shells of the baby loggerheads. The glue was(25)
specifically designed to dissolve completely within
a few days. The tags are small enough to avoid
interfering with the turtles’ swimming.
The hatchlings surprised scientists with their
speed. Once the turtles found the ocean currents(30)
that would transport them, they could travel at
a speed of nearly 200 feet per minute. In the first
eight hours of their journeys, some traveled more
than nine miles. Tagged turtles released in various
locations all eventually made their way to the(35)
Sargasso Sea in the Northern Atlantic Ocean. Here,
they become part of the floating ecosystem, eating
bite-sized prey and using the sargassum seaweed
as rafts. They can sometimes spend up to a decade
here before returning to the shores where they(40)
hatched. The use of nanoacoustic tags should help
protect this endangered species by giving scientists
more information about these turtles and when
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Passage 2
they are most vulnerable.
A great number of species make their home in(45)
the vast waters of the Atlantic Ocean. Although the
entire ocean makes up an ecosystem, many smaller
habitats are found within, including an open-water
habitat off the coast of the Northern Atlantic Ocean
known as the Sargasso Sea. Sargassum is an algae(50)
that floats in masses that can continue for miles.
The waters of the Gulf Stream push the water in
a northward motion into this area. This constant
motion and varying temperatures support the
accumulation of the brown-colored seaweed.(55)
The Sargasso Sea is so immense that one method
of information collection has not been enough
for scientists to obtain an accurate picture of what
takes place within this ecosystem. Researchers have
needed to employ several methods of sampling.(60)
Methods such as dragging mesh nets over the
surface of the water and videotaping beneath
areas of sargassum have served scientists well.
Information collected has shown that the Gulf
Stream pushes brown algae from open water into(65)
the Sargasso Sea area, creating a diverse floating
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habitat in an area that would otherwise not support
that wildlife.
In the most recent study of the sargassum
community off the shores of North Carolina,(70)
eighty-one fish species were documented as using
the area as a microhabitat. This is an increase from
previous studies. The types of fish found here are
both commercially and environmentally important.
Also found here are juvenile loggerhead sea turtles.(75)
The South Atlantic Fishery Management Council
is working to regulate the harvesting of sargassum.
The Council hopes to have the area classified as
an Essential Fish Habitat, which would afford it
certain protections.(80)
Further research needs to be done before
scientists understand how to best protect the
Sargasso Sea as well as understand how it goes about
supporting so many important types of wildlife.
32. The central idea of Passage 1 is that
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the island of Boa Vista, off the coast of Africa, has become a key
research center for monitoring baby loggerhead sea turtles.
(A)
the number of baby loggerhead sea turtles decreases every year,
which concerns scientists around the world.
(B)
scientists are using new technology to track the movements of
newborn loggerhead sea turtles, and the results have surprised them.
(C)
scientists are interested in how long loggerhead sea turtles remain in
the Sargasso Sea before returning to where they hatched.
(D)
33. In the context of Passage 2, it can be inferred from the phrase “needs to
be done” (line 81) that the author thinks
new methods for researching the ecosystem are required before
funding continues.
(A)
the Sargasso Sea is becoming a problem for shipping lanes and
requires removal.
(B)
the scientific community has ignored this complex and delicate
ecosystem.
(C)
the Sargasso ecosystem is worthy of our attention and requires
intense study.
(D)
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34. Passage 1 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true of
the scientists’ usage of nanoacoustic tags?
The size of the tags is appropriate for baby turtles and will thus offer
the most accurate readings.
(A)
The low cost of the tags is greatly preferable to the expensive
satellite technology previously used.
(B)
The tags protect baby loggerhead turtles from the predators they are
likely to meet in the first eight hours of their journey.
(C)
Scientists prefer gluing the tags because they believe it is more
humane than clipping older satellite tags to flippers.
(D)
35. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 21-23 (“This has … ocean”)(A)
Lines 23-25 (“The tags, which … loggerheads”)(B)
Lines 27-28 (“The tags are … swimming”)(C)
Lines 34-36 (“Tagged turtles … Ocean”)(D)
36. Passage 2 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true of
the importance of the Sargasso Sea research?
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The research is important in order to ensure that the Gulf Stream
does not push the algae too far north.
(A)
Data about the Sargasso ecosystem is valuable to conservationists
and the fishing industry alike.
(B)
The research is important for convincing politicians that fish species
are disappearing from the ecosystem.
(C)
Through these studies, scientists are able to eliminate predators from
the North Carolina microhabitat.
(D)
37. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 52-53 (“The waters of … area”)(A)
Lines 53-55 (“This constant … seaweed”)(B)
Lines 69-72 (“In the most … microhabitat”)(C)
Lines 73-74 (“The types of fish … important”)(D)
38. What is the main difference between the purpose of Passage 1 and the
purpose of Passage 2?
696
The purpose of Passage 2 is to convince politicians to lend aid,
while Passage 1 speaks to a general audience.
(A)
Passage 1 aims to convince readers that these studies are futile,
while Passage 2 has a more optimistic viewpoint of the research.
(B)
Passage 2 discusses current research trends for an entire ecosystem,
while Passage 1 focuses on a single species.
(C)
The purpose of Passage 2 is to show that scientists cannot agree on a
single research method, while they are able to do so in Passage 1.
(D)
39. As used in line 44 of Passage 1, “vulnerable” most nearly means
defenseless.(A)
inexperienced.(B)
naive.(C)
open.(D)
40. As used in line 78 of Passage 2, “classified” most nearly means
arranged.(A)
cataloged.(B)
categorized.(C)
pigeonholed.(D)
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41. The author uses such words as “great,” “vast,” and “immense” in
Passage 2 in order to emphasize that
the work researchers conduct is highly respected by a growing
scientific community.
(A)
the microhabitats are large despite their name and require extensive
periods for study.
(B)
the amount of funding required for Sargasso Sea research is
commensurate with the large area that must be covered.
(C)
the level of complexity for researchers is heightened by the large
area that must be covered.
(D)
42. Which generalization is supported by both passages?
The most dangerous period of time for young loggerhead turtles is
the first eight hours of life.
(A)
The technology used to research the ecosystem and its inhabitants
continues to evolve.
(B)
Recent studies show that the number of fish and turtle species in the
Sargasso Sea is increasing.
(C)
The ability of scientists to properly collect data on the Sargasso Sea
depends on vital government grants.
(D)
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Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Colorblindness Passage
About eight percent of men of European descent
are colorblind, but only about half a percent of
women are affected by the same condition. Most of
these people are “red-green” colorblind, meaning
they cannot see colors related to green or red. Not(5)
only are they unable to tell red and green apart,
but yellows and oranges do not appear different,
nor do blues and purples. Colorblindness is not
“blindness” but is instead an inability to perceive
certain wavelengths of light. A red-green colorblind(10)
man looking at a red object can see the object and
can see that it is not white; however, he is unable to
tell whether the object is red or green, as they both
appear similar to him.
People with normal color vision see color(15)
because they have an array of three types of
photosensitive cells, called cones, on the back of
their retinas. Each type of cone has a different
pigment that is sensitive to a certain part of the
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visible light spectrum. The visible light spectrum(20)
runs from smaller wavelengths at the blue end,
through medium wavelengths in the green to
yellow range, to long wavelengths at the red end.
The cones are often referred to as blue, green,
and red cones, based on the wavelength of light(25)
they absorb most. The blue cones absorb the blue
wavelengths of light most, although they also
absorb a small amount of the green wavelengths.
The green cones have their maximum absorption in
the green wavelengths, but also absorb a bit down(30)
into the blue and up into the yellow wavelengths.
The range that the red cones absorb overlaps the
range of the green cones quite a bit; the red cone
maximum absorption is in the yellow wavelengths,
but red cones also absorb a bit down into the(35)
green, through the yellow, and up into the red
wavelengths.
Even though the green and red cones absorb
much of the same part of the visible spectrum, a
person who lacks the sensitive pigment in either(40)
red or green cones will have difficulty perceiving
either color, because the brain compares the signals
from both to determine exactly which region of
light is being absorbed. With only one set of cones
700
sending signals, the brain will perceive light from(45)
the green, yellow, and red wavelengths to be about
the same.
A person will lack the pigment for either green
or red cones if he or she lacks the gene necessary
to make that pigment. Because genes are inherited(50)
randomly from our parents, half from each parent,
we would expect men and women to have an equal
chance of being colorblind. The actual ratio is
about sixteen colorblind men for each colorblind
woman. The reason for this inequality becomes(55)
clear once we know that the genes for making the
cone pigments are on the X chromosome.
Women have two X chromosomes, one from
each parent. Men only have one X chromosome,
which they get from their mother. A woman can(60)
receive a colorblind gene on an X chromosome
from one parent, but if the other X chromosome
has a normal cone pigment gene, she will still make
normal pigments and have normal color vision.
The woman would need to receive the colorblind(65)
gene from each parent to be colorblind. Since a
man only has the one X chromosome, receiving the
colorblind gene from his mother will always cause
colorblindness in a man.
701
Women who have only one copy of the(70)
colorblind gene are referred to as carriers because
they carry the gene but are not affected by it. By
tracking the affected people in a family, we can
create a chart, called a pedigree, to determine
which women in the family are carriers. A(75)
colorblind daughter must have had a colorblind
father and either a colorblind or carrier mother,
as she must have received a copy of the colorblind
gene from each parent. A colorblind son also must
have had either a colorblind or carrier mother, but(80)
whether or not the father was colorblind will not
affect the son.
702
43. The central idea of the passage is primarily concerned with
how to determine if a person is colorblind.(A)
research being conducted about colorblindness.(B)
how people who are colorblind perceive color.(C)
the genetic and physiological causes of colorblindness.(D)
44. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-3 (“About eight … condition”)(A)
Lines 15-18 (“People with … retinas”)(B)
Lines 24-26 (“The cones … absorb most”)(C)
Lines 48-50 (“A person … pigment”)(D)
45. In paragraph 6, the author includes details about X chromosomes in
order to
give examples of other traits inherited from mothers.(A)
explain why more men than women are colorblind.(B)
illustrate how genes affect vision and colorblindness.(C)
contrast colorblindness with other genetic disorders.(D)
703
46. Based on the passage, which choice best describes what causes red and
green to be the two colors that a colorblind person often cannot
perceive?
A colorblind person is missing both red and green cones on the back
of the retinas.
(A)
Because blue wavelengths are brighter, they overpower both red and
green wavelengths.
(B)
Because red and green absorption ranges overlap greatly, the
colorblind person’s brain has trouble interpreting the difference
between those two colors.
(C)
Red and green are on opposite sides of the color wheel, so their
absorption ranges are at the farthest, opposite ends of the visible
light spectrum.
(D)
47. Which choice would provide the most support for the author’s line of
reasoning in paragraph 1?
Details about other types of colorblindness(A)
A more detailed explanation of the light spectrum(B)
A list of other genetic disorders that affect men(C)
Information about how colorblindness is diagnosed(D)
704
48. As used in line 19, “sensitive” most nearly means
delicate.(A)
responsive.(B)
sympathetic.(C)
vulnerable.(D)
49. Based on the information in the passage, it can be reasonably inferred
that which of the following statements is true?
Colorblindness can be corrected with treatments designed to
encourage the growth of the missing genes that make pigments.
(A)
A person with normal color vision can become colorblind as he or
she ages and the photosensitive cells degenerate.
(B)
A person who is colorblind will experience the visual world in a
way that is much different from a person with normal color vision.
(C)
Colorblindness cannot be diagnosed without invasive and expensive
genetic testing of both a person and his or her parents.
(D)
50. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
705
Lines 10-14 (“A red-green … him”)(A)
Lines 26-27 (“The blue cones … wavelengths”)(B)
Lines 42-44 (“the brain … absorbed”)(C)
Lines 72-75 (“By tracking … carriers”)(D)
51. As used in line 73, “affected” most nearly means
changed.(A)
concerned.(B)
exaggerated.(C)
involved.(D)
52. Based on the information in the passage and the graphic, which of the
following statements is true?
706
A male with a colorblind mother and a father who is not colorblind
has a 100% chance of being a carrier for the colorblind gene.
(A)
A male with a colorblind father and a mother who is a carrier has a
100% chance of being colorblind.
(B)
A female with a colorblind father and a mother who is not a carrier
has a 100% chance of being a carrier for the colorblind gene.
(C)
A female with a mother who is a carrier but not colorblind and a
colorblind father has a 100% chance of being colorblind.
(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
707
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
708
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
709
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Antarctic Treaty System in Need of Reform
The Antarctic Treaty System (ATS) was established in 1959 to provide
governance over an entire continent and the surrounding Southern Ocean.
Twelve member  the
affairs of Antarctica. In the next fifty years, however, it is likely that
existing conflicts will  over the sovereignty and resources of
Antarctica, challenging the ATS. Some countries feel the ATS should be
reformed, while other countries argue that Antarctica should be designated
as the “common heritage of mankind” and be placed under the watch of the
United Nations.
 [1] Altogether, opponents of the ATS believe that politics should trump
science in Antarctica. [2] A main objective of the ATS was to establish
international research on a continent considered a “perfect laboratory.” [3]
countries, including the United States currently manage
1
accelerate
2
3
710
But new technological advances have countries  Antarctic
minerals, although mineral extraction is currently banned to protect the
environment.  [4] New players in Antarctic affairs such as China are oil-
poor states. [5] They view Antarctica’s mineral resources as one solution
to their increasing oil demands. [6] In the case of China, its future demand
for energy from resources such as oil and coal is forecasted to defeat that
of all other countries. 6
Antarctica is indeed a rich continent. Yet, for environmental reasons, and
because icebergs and weather have made mineral extraction expensive,
there has never been commercial mining. But non-member countries
believe that easier methods of extracting oil will bring the ATS’s mineral
ban into review. 
interested in
4
5
Because of its many reserves such as coal, uranium, oil, and natural gas,
7
Right now, the ATS’s superpowers choose to ignore the prediction that
Antarctica may hold 200 billion barrels of oil.
8
711
When the protocol banning extraction is re-examined in 2048,  will be
waiting for claims currently held by a few privileged nations.
[1]There is also the economic issue of the Southern Ocean, since
management of the commercial exploitation of marine resources is part of
the ATS. [2] Fishing is a primary industry for many countries; 
 argue that forming marine
preserves in Antarctica’s periphery will seal off future fishing possibilities
as fish stocks in the world are being depleted. [3] Such a challenge has
people wondering if national economic incentives are overwhelming the
ATS’s competing science and conservation values for the Southern Ocean. 
11
These examples illustrate that after two decades, it’s clear Antarctica’s
current governance structure isn’t dealing with new global priorities such
as fuel and food security. As has probably been said by others before,
detractors already feel that the continent could be better governed by the
it
9
therefore, Chinese Russian and other officials
10
712
United Nations instead of the ATS. Without concessions or reform, many
doubt the system can accommodate a wider community and survive in its
current form.
1. 
713
NO CHANGE(A)
countries including the United States, currently manage(B)
countries: including the United States currently manage(C)
countries including the United States currently manage(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
anticipate(B)
decelerate(C)
vacillate(D)
3. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Mainly,(B)
Surprisingly,(C)
Selfishly,(D)
4. 
714
NO CHANGE(A)
thinking about(B)
curious about(C)
uninterested in(D)
5. What is the most effective way to combine sentences 4 and 5?
New players in Antarctic affairs such as China are oil-poor states,
and so they view Antarctica’s mineral resources as one solution to
their increasing oil demands.
(A)
New players in Antarctic affairs such as China are oil-poor states,
even though they view Antarctica’s mineral resources as one
solution to their increasing oil demands.
(B)
New players in Antarctic affairs such as China are oil-poor states,
viewing Antarctica’s mineral resources as the solution to their
increasing oil demands.
(C)
New players in Antarctic affairs such as China are oil-poor states,
despite their view that Antarctica’s mineral resources are one
solution to their increasing oil demands.
(D)
6. Which choice best supports the author’s claim that China is an “oil-
poor state” with accurate data based on the graphic?
715
In 2010, China’s oil consumption exceeded production by
approximately 4.5 million barrels per year.
(A)
In 2010, China’s oil consumption exceeded production by
approximately 10 million barrels per day.
(B)
By 2015, China’s oil consumption is forecasted to exceed
production by approximately 7 million barrels per day.
(C)
By 2015, China’s oil production is forecasted to exceed
consumption by approximately 7 million barrels per day.
(D)
7. 
NO CHANGE(A)
With reserves such as coal, uranium, oil, and natural gas,(B)
Because it has various reserves which include coal, uranium, oil,
and natural gas,
(C)
Due to its reserves like coal, uranium, and oil, and natural gas,(D)
8. 
716
NO CHANGE(A)
At the current moment, the superpowers of the ATS fail to realize the
prediction that Antarctica may hold 200 billion barrels of oil.
(B)
Currently, the ATS’s superpowers are not addressing the prediction
that Antarctica may hold 200 billion barrels of oil.
(C)
For now, the ATS’s superpowers don’t seem to mind the prediction
that Antarctica may hold 200 billion barrels of oil.
(D)
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
an energy-hungry world(B)
they(C)
this banning protocol(D)
10. 
NO CHANGE(A)
therefore Chinese Russian and other officials(B)
therefore Chinese Russian, and other officials(C)
therefore, Chinese, Russian, and other officials(D)
717
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
Finding Pluto
Clyde Tombaugh sat down at an apparatus called a blink comparator,
where he had spent hundreds of hours looking at photographic images of
stars that appeared as  on the black photographic
plates. It was Thursday, February 13, 1930, and Tombaugh had been
working at Lowell Observatory for about 
for a planet that Percival Lowell had predicted would be at the far
boundary of the solar system. 14
11. Which sentence, if inserted before sentence 2, would best link the ideas
of the first sentence and the rest of the paragraph?
Antarctica has a wide variety of fish.(A)
This is one of several areas of responsibility assigned to the ATS.(B)
Other areas of the world have been heavily overfished.(C)
Non-member nations want to utilize the fishing ground.(D)
tiny little white specks
12
thirteen months, he was looking
13
718
Tombaugh picked up the next set of photographic plates; weeks earlier,
he had taken the photographs by pointing a telescope at a particular spot in
the night sky, days apart but at the same time. If Lowell was right, one of
the white specks would be in two different positions on the two plates.
Tombaugh  the images side by side in the blink comparator and
looked through the eyepiece to compare the enlarged images.
Like Lowell, Tombaugh believed there was an additional planet in our
solar system, farther away than Neptune. Neptune’s orbit did not exactly
match the one predicted by calculations, and the presence of another planet
could have caused that difference. 16
Tombaugh moved a mirror in the viewer. It allowed him to look at a
small area in the image on the left. When he moved the mirror again, he
saw the image on the right in exactly the same place; the image did not
change as he flipped back and forth, so he moved the images slightly and
began looking at the next area, slowly working his way around the plates.
loaded
15
719
Tombaugh knew he could  between a planet in our solar system
and the stars; the planet, being closer, would change location in the sky
relative to the stars. , the farther the planet is from Earth, the more
slowly that change happens, making it difficult to observe.
[1] Tombaugh continued to work his way, inch by inch, over the images,
flipping back and forth with  between the
two images at each location, indicating he had nothing but far-away stars in
the images. [2] Once more, he moved the images and flipped the mirror
back and forth while looking through the eyepiece. [3] This time, as he
blinked from one image to another, a speck seemed to move. [4] He knew
immediately that it was significant; checking more images convinced him
that he had found a planet, which was eventually named Pluto. [5] Pluto
was named for the Roman god of the underworld, since it was cold and far
from the sun. 20
check
17
Although
18
the mirror; he saw no difference
19
720
Since that time, scientists  that Pluto is smaller than it
initially appeared and is actually a very large asteroid, rather than a planet.
 still a part of our solar system, located by calculations,
careful observations, and a lot of patience.
has determined
21
Pluto is, however,
22
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
very tiny, little white specks(B)
tiny miniscule white specks(C)
tiny white specks(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
thirteen months; he was looking(B)
thirteen months he was looking(C)
thirteen months, however, he was looking(D)
14. Which sentence would most effectively conclude the paragraph?
721
But finding this elusive planet was not an easy task.(A)
The blink comparator is one of the most valuable tools astronomers
have.
(B)
Astronomy is among the oldest of the natural sciences.(C)
The Lowell Observatory is located in Flagstaff, Arizona.(D)
15. 
NO CHANGE(A)
burdened(B)
changed(C)
led(D)
16. Which sentence, if added at the end of the paragraph, would provide
support for the central idea of the paragraph?
Tombaugh wanted to find a new planet very badly.(A)
This is because the gravitational pull of planets can affect the orbit
of nearby planets.
(B)
Neptune is the eighth planet from the sun and has an elliptical orbit.(C)
Lowell and Tombaugh disagreed about whether the presence of
another planet could affect Neptune’s orbit.
(D)
722
17. 
NO CHANGE(A)
compliment(B)
further(C)
distinguish(D)
18. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Despite,(B)
However,(C)
Moreover,(D)
19. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the mirror, he saw no difference(B)
the mirror he saw no difference(C)
the mirror so he saw no difference(D)
20. Which sentence in the paragraph is least important to the main topic of
the paragraph?
723
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
Sentence 2(A)
Sentence 3(B)
Sentence 4(C)
Sentence 5(D)
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
was determined(B)
were determining(C)
have determined(D)
22. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Pluto is however,(B)
Pluto is; however,(C)
Pluto is however(D)
724
Public Relations: Build Your Brand While Building for
Others
Public relations specialists are the people 
 Practically
anyone with a public image needs someone on his or her staff to maintain
that image. With media expanding into every area of our lives, it is no
surprise that U.S. government economists expect this field to experience 
As a public relations specialist for the Broome Corporation, a global
pharmaceutical company, Janice Lin is responsible for drawing positive
attention to the company and therefore enhancing its reputation. “A big part
of my job is maintaining relationships with people in the media—
. I work with them to
Public relations are all about communicating—in print, in press interviews,
in web content, and on social media.
23
behind, corporations, politicians, entertainers, and athletes.
24
above-average growth through the year 2020!
25
journalists, television personalities, online bloggers
26
725
make sure the excellent work of the Broome Corporation is presented to the
public accurately and often.”
Public relations specialists like Lin are often tasked with creating
materials for use in print and on the Web. The materials must match 
company’s brand and message. “I  press releases on a regular
basis, but I also write scripts for web-based videos that can be found on
our corporate website. I conduct interviews and review speeches, as
well.” In a media-savvy world, corporations and public figures are
expected to communicate with the public across multiple platforms.
[1] Most people in the public relations field have earned a bachelor’s
degree in communications, marketing, journalism, or other fields with 
 skills. [2] An entry-level position in public relations can pay
$30,000 per year. [3] Public relations specialists who rise in the field can
earn increasingly higher salaries. [4] The Bureau of Labor Statistics
its
27
provide
28
immovable
29
726
expects the public relations field to grow 12 percent before 2022, which
means an additional 27,400 jobs will be opening in the field. 30
 Lin has some advice for people who are considering a career in public
relations: “I would suggest looking for local specialists in your area on a
social media platform.  
You can learn a lot by listening. Also, consider joining a publication at
your school. You’ll learn to write effectively while also learning how to
ask and answer difficult questions. That’s the kind of thing I do every day.”
31
Reach out to them, request a meeting.
32
That will give you the opportunity of talking with them about their daily
tasks and to observe how they talk to you about their company.
33
23. 
727
NO CHANGE(A)
Public relations are all about communicating. In print, in press
interviews, in web content, and on social media.
(B)
Public relations are all about communicating; in print, in press
interviews, in web content, and on social media.
(C)
Public relations are all about communicating; in print, in press
interviews, in web content. And on social media.
(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
behind: corporations, politicians, entertainers, and athletes.(B)
behind—corporations, politicians, entertainers, athletes.(C)
behind corporations, politicians, entertainers, and athletes.(D)
25. 
NO CHANGE(A)
above-average growth through the year 2020.…(B)
above-average growth through the year 2020.(C)
above-average growth through the year 2020?(D)
26. 
728
NO CHANGE(A)
journalists, a television personality, online bloggers(B)
journalists, television personalities, an online blogger(C)
a journalist, television personalities, online bloggers(D)
27. 
NO CHANGE(A)
it’s(B)
their(C)
they’re(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
form(B)
craft(C)
invent(D)
29. 
729
NO CHANGE(A)
ordinary(B)
immobile(C)
transferable(D)
30. Which sentence, if added after sentence 3, would provide the best
support for the author’s claim that “public relations specialists who
rise in the field can earn increasingly higher salaries”?
Many employees in upper-level management positions boast about
their generous salaries.
(A)
Upper-level management positions pay significantly more at
approximately $101,000 per year.
(B)
PR workers who have been in the field for 30 or more years often
rise to upper-level management positions.
(C)
However, some PR specialists never rise in their field and rarely
make more than $40,000 per year.
(D)
31. Which topic sentence, if any, should be added to the beginning of the
paragraph to establish the central idea of the paragraph?
730
NO CHANGE(A)
Lin expects social media to be the best method for connecting with
specialists in the future.
(B)
Lin began her career as a public relations specialist before it was a
popular career choice.
(C)
Lin believes that the Bureau of Labor Statistics offers support for
students who want to pursue public relations careers.
(D)
32. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Reach out to them, and request a meeting.(B)
Reach out to them; and request a meeting.(C)
Reach out to them; and, request a meeting.(D)
33. 
731
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Film, Culture, and Globalization
Globalization, or the integration of cultures across nations, is a
prominent yet controversial topic. The controversy arises over concern
about what is often called “cultural imperialism,” or the notion of one
culture’s overpowering influence on another’s cultural identity.
NO CHANGE(A)
That will give you the opportunity to talk to them about their daily
tasks and to observe how they talk to you about their company.
(B)
That will give you the opportunity to talk to them about their daily
tasks, and observing how they talk to you about their company.
(C)
That will give you the opportunity to talk to them about their daily
tasks, and of observing how they are talking to you about their
company.
(D)
Some defend globalization for its benefits. Greater creativity and
appreciation of heritage.
34
732
Others argue that globalization damages cultures, especially in developing
nations. For better or worse, advancing technology enables new levels of
cross-cultural interconnectedness. The modern world is culturally
intertwined, and there is no force more  for globalization in the
21st century than the film industry.
36  With multi-billion-dollar extranational revenues, Hollywood has
inspired a global culture of moviemakers and moviegoers. Now, many
nations enjoy booming domestic film markets that compare with or surpass
the United States in production and popularity. As more countries produce
and distribute films worldwide, the global sense of shared understanding
and cultural appreciation .
Foods, music, languages, books, art, and trade goods are all cultural
artifacts. But films are cultural artifacts with more impact than others
inactive
35
grow
37
Sharing cultural artifacts is central to globalization, and cultural artifacts
are physical renderings of cultural identity.
38
733
because of their vivid ability to document and portray a population’s
ideals, values, and commonalities. There is  appeal in viewers
witnessing the heartfelt stories of people worlds away. Through film, the
cross-cultural sharing of ideas, stories, ethics, humor, and much more can
happen quickly.
The extent to which the world watches foreign, cross-cultural films is
staggering.
; the difference will be the greater variety of cultures represented in those
films. 41
Certainly, many individuals prefer films that reflect their own cultural
identities, but trends indicate rising popular interest, even in Hollywood, in
multicultural and cross-cultural movies. Despite valid concerns over
cultural imperialism, the international film industry in many ways 
naive
39
Even as more countries increase film production the trend of cross-cultural
film popularity is expected to remain
40
enables
42
734
positive culture sharing. 
strengthening those groups’ identities and raising worldwide awareness
and appreciation of their stories.
Statistics indicate that the global population will continue to frequent
films from a variety of origins. According to information from the
UNESCO Institute for Statistics, while film production fluctuates in many
nations, only  demonstrated a consistent increase in the number of
films produced from 2005 to 2011. Filmmakers have the opportunity to
both protect cultures and to creatively pioneer the route to true, sustained
intercultural appreciation. Understanding the industry’s undeniable impact
on cultural identities and globalization is crucial in the world’s progression
toward collective prosperity, protection, and peace.
Films are increasingly used to teach, treasuring, and to preserve cultures
and peoples,
43
India
44
735
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Some defend globalization for its benefits greater creativity and
appreciation of heritage.
(B)
Some defend globalization for its benefits; greater creativity and
appreciation of heritage.
(C)
Some defend globalization for its benefits, including greater
creativity and appreciation of heritage.
(D)
35. 
736
NO CHANGE(A)
ineffectual(B)
fragile(C)
potent(D)
36. Which topic sentence, if any, should be added to the beginning of the
paragraph to establish the central idea of the paragraph?
NO CHANGE(A)
The past century has seen the rise of film and its predominance over
much of popular culture, in and beyond the United States.
(B)
This past century has seen Hollywood filmmakers striving to
maintain their presence in the global cultural environment.
(C)
Global filmmakers are anxious to share their products with the
United States so that they may obtain the notoriety of American film
producers.
(D)
37. 
NO CHANGE(A)
grows(B)
have grown(C)
were growing(D)
737
38. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Cultural artifacts are physical renderings of cultural identity and are
central to globalization.
(B)
The sharing of cultural artifacts, which are physical renderings of
cultural identity, is central to globalization.
(C)
The sharing of cultural artifacts is central to globalization and they
are physical renderings of cultural identity.
(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
senseless(B)
obtuse(C)
acute(D)
40. 
738
NO CHANGE(A)
Even as more countries increase film production; the trend of cross-
cultural film popularity is expected to remain
(B)
Even as more countries increase film production; the trend of cross-
cultural film popularity is expected to remain,
(C)
Even as more countries increase film production, the trend of cross-
cultural film popularity is expected to remain;
(D)
41. Which sentence provides supporting details when added to the
paragraph?
Only the production of video games exceeds the filmmaking industry
in the world market.
(A)
Cross-cultural experiences extend beyond the foreign film industry
to cuisine in popular international restaurants.
(B)
Outside the few nations whose powerhouse filmmaking industries
dominate their own markets, nearly every moviegoer’s experience is
markedly cross-cultural.
(C)
The cross-cultural concept of sharing ideas and stories through
humor is the most popular type of filmmaking both in the United
States and in the current international market.
(D)
739
42. 
NO CHANGE(A)
enabled(B)
will enable(C)
was enabling(D)
43. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Films are increasingly used to teach, treasure, and preserve cultures
and peoples,
(B)
Films are increasingly used to teach, treasure, and preserving
cultures and peoples,
(C)
Films are increasingly used for teaching, to treasure, and preserve
cultures and peoples,
(D)
44. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic?
NO CHANGE(A)
China(B)
the United States(C)
the United Kingdom(D)
740
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
741
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
742
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
743
1. Tread depth is a measurement between the top of the rubber on a tire
and the bottom of its deepest groove. The average tread depth on a new
standard tire is  inches. In most states, a tire is considered legally
worn out, and therefore unsafe, when the tread depth reaches  inches.
Which inequality represents the range of safe tread depths d for a
standard car tire?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. If x  – 8 x  = 48 and x  < 0, what is the value of x  + 10?2
–2(A)
4(B)
6(C)
8(D)
744
3. A physics class is using simulation software to study water bottle
rockets before attempting to build one for the National Physics
Competition. Their first simulation is of a rocket without a parachute
launched from the roof of the gymnasium. The scatterplot shows the
approximate path of the rocket. The software program generates the
equation h  = –4.9 t  + 39.2 t  + 14 to model the data, where h is the
height in meters of the rocket t seconds after it was launched. What
does the number 14 most likely represent in this equation?
2
745
The number of seconds the rocket was in the air(A)
The height of the gymnasium from which the rocket was launched(B)
The number of seconds that it took the rocket to reach its maximum
height
(C)
The maximum height of the rocket(D)
4. Line L shown in the graph could be the graph of which equation?
x  + y  = −2(A)
x  + y  = 0(B)
x  + y  − 2 = x(C)
x  + y  + 2 = x(D)
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5. If (x, y) is a solution to the system of equations above, what is the value
of y ?2
4(A)
9(B)
25(C)
81(D)
6. An alloy is a metal made by mixing and melting two or more metals
together. After the metals are mixed, the alloy must be cooled slowly to
avoid crystallization. Suppose a metallurgist heats a mixture of metals
to a temperature of 2,500°F and then removes the resulting alloy from
the furnace. The alloy will then cool at a constant rate of 40°F every 15
minutes until it reaches room temperature. Which of the following
functions represents the temperature T of the alloy h hours after it was
removed from the furnace until it reaches room temperature?
T ( h ) = −15 h  + 2,500(A)
T ( h ) = −40 h  + 2,500(B)
T ( h ) = −160 h  + 2,500(C)
T ( h ) = −600 h  + 2,500(D)
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7. If  such that a  ≠ 1 and w  ≠ 0, what is w in terms of a?
4 a  − 4(A)
4a − 12(B)
12a − 4(C)
(D)
8. In the equation above, what is the value of n?
0(A)
2(B)
3(C)
There is no value of n that satisfies the equation.(D)
9. Which of the following functions has a domain of x  ≥ 2?
2
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f ( x ) = − x  + 2(A) 2
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. If  what is the value of x  – 3 y ?
6(A)
12(B)
18(C)
36(D)
11. If x is an angle such that 0 < x  < 90°, which of the following statements
is not always true?
cos( x ) > 0(A)
cos(− x ) > 0(B)
cos( x  + 90°) < 0(C)
cos(2 x ) < 0(D)
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12. If the system of linear equations above has no solution, and a is a
constant, what is the value of a?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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13. The range of the parabola shown in the graph is y  ≥ −4. If the equation
y  = ax  + bx  + c  is used to represent the graph, what is the value of
a?
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
3(D)
14. The circle shown has a radius of r centimeters. If chord PQ is parallel
to diameter MN, and the length of chord PQ is  of the length of the
diameter, what is the distance in centimeters between  and  in
terms of r?
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Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. Which of the following represents  as an integer?
4(A)
12(B)
48(C)
64(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer1.
752
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
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16. If the equation that represents the graph shown above is written in
standard form, Ax  + By  = C , and A  = 6, what is the value of B?
17. If  what is the minimum possible value of d?
18. For the piecewise-defined function g(x) shown above, what is the
value of g(2)?
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19. A toy saber is stuck at a right angle into the ground 4 inches deep. It
casts a shadow that is 4 feet long. The brick wall casts a shadow three
times that long. If the wall is 7 feet 6 inches tall, how many inches long
is the toy saber?
20. What is one possible solution to the rational equation
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
756
757
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
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Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
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1. A company’s market share is the percent of consumers who utilize the
services or buy the products of that company. The pie chart above
shows the different market shares of cable providers in a certain
region. If the ratio of the market shares of Provider 1 to Provider 2 is
3:2, what is Provider 1’s market share?
24%(A)
30%(B)
36%(C)
42%(D)
2. Which of the following number lines represents the solution to the
inequality 3 x  + 29 > 5 – x ?
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. Water is vital to human health. An average person should consume
approximately 2.5 ounces of water per hour. However, because of the
salt in it, seawater actually dehydrates the human body and should not
be consumed. This is why boats must carry a supply of fresh water
when embarking on long trips. Suppose a sailboat is traveling at an
average speed of 4 nautical miles per hour with 3 people on board and
the trip is 232 nautical miles. What is the minimum number of ounces of
water the boat should stock before leaving?
69.6(A)
145(B)
435(C)
1,113.6(D)
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4. If a  = 0 and b  < 0, then which of the following could be the graph of
f ( x ) = ( x  – a )( x  – b )?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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5. Increased physical activity has been linked to a lower incidence rate of
diabetes. The scatterplot above shows the relationship between the
percent of people in a certain country whose daily activity qualifies
them as “inactive” and the incidence rate of diabetes in that country.
The line of best fit for the data is also shown. Which of the following
best represents the meaning of the y-intercept of the line of best fit in
the context of this question?
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The predicted incidence rate of diabetes when the entire country is
considered active
(A)
The predicted incidence rate of diabetes when the entire country is
considered inactive
(B)
The predicted percent of people who will be active when the
incidence rate of diabetes is 0%
(C)
The predicted percent of people who will be inactive when the
incidence rate of diabetes is 0%
(D)
6. At the grocery store, Gigi buys apples, a magazine, and a gallon of
milk. The apples are priced per pound. In her state, there is no sales tax
on food. If the total cost of her items is given by the function C ( p ) =
1.89 p  + 1.07(3.99) + 4.49, then the term 1.07(3.99) most likely
represents
the cost of one gallon of milk.(A)
the per-pound cost of the apples.(B)
the cost of the magazine, including tax.(C)
the cost of the magazine, not including tax.(D)
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7. When a homeowner hires a contractor to renovate a bathroom, the
homeowner is charged for both labor and materials. By law, the
contractor can charge sales tax on the materials, but not on the labor. If
the contractor quotes the homeowner $3,000 for materials and $40 per
hour for labor, and sales tax in the homeowner’s state is 5.5%, which
equation represents the total cost for the bathroom renovation if it takes
the contractor h hours to complete the job?
c  = (40 h  + 3,000)(1.055)(A)
c  = 1.055(40 + 3,000) h(B)
c  = 40 h (1.055) + 3,000(C)
c  = 40 h  + 1.055(3,000)(D)
8. A picture-framing shop sells ready-made frames and also does custom
framing using different kinds and widths of wood or metal. The shop
has a three-day sale. During the sale, for an 11-inch × 14-inch frame, a
ready-made frame costs $12 and a custom frame costs $30. Over the
course of the three days, the shop sells ninety-two 11 × 14 frames and
collects $1,788. Solving which system of equations would yield the
number of 11 × 14 ready-made frames r and the number of 11 × 14
custom frames c that the shop sold during the three-day sale?
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City Cost per Square Foot
Detroit $62.45
Atlanta $74.19
New York City $288.58
San Francisco $420.99
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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9. In real estate, location is often the number one determinant of home
prices. The table above shows the average price per square foot of
houses in four cities. Assuming an average home size of 1,500 to 2,000
square feet, which inequality represents how much more in dollars a
house in New York City would cost than in Detroit?
x  ≥ 226.13(A)
62.45 ≤ x  ≤ 288.58(B)
93,675 ≤ x  ≤ 432,870(C)
339,195 ≤ x  ≤ 452,260(D)
10. If  what is the value of n?
n  = 1(A)
n  = 3(B)
There is no value of n for which the equation is true.(C)
There are infinitely many values of n for which the equation is true.(D)
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11. The figure above shows the route that Max currently takes to work and
back home every day. The city is planning to build an expressway that
would cross through the city to help alleviate commuter traffic.
Assuming an average gas consumption of 20 miles per gallon and a 5-
day workweek, how many gallons of gas will Max save per week by
taking the expressway to and from work each day instead of using his
current route?
2(A)
4(B)
8(C)
10.25(D)
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12. The bar graph shows the percent of the U.S. population that was
unemployed as of January 1 on each of the years shown. A
governmental agency wants to use the 5-year mean of the data to
estimate how many people were unemployed in a certain geographic
area between 2010 and 2014. If the total adult population of the area
was 250,000, approximately how many adults were unemployed in that
area during the indicated time period?
16,950(A)
20,150(B)
20,950(C)
104,750(D)
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Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
Use the data in the scatterplot and the line of best fit shown to answer the
following questions.
13. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to 
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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14. Which of the following values most accurately reflects the average rate
of change of the data based on the line of best fit?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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15. According to the graph, the data has been modeled using a line of best
fit. Another researcher thinks that an exponential model may be a better
fit. The table below shows the researcher’s results after using a
graphing calculator to perform a linear regression and an exponential
regression on the data.
LinReg ExpReg
y  = ax  + b y  = a  × b
a  = 2.7 a  = 1.251327
b  = .68888889 b  = 2.299749
r  = .81876039 r  = .84304281
r  = .9048538 r  = .9181736
Which of the following best explains which regression model is a
better fit and why?
x
2 2
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A linear model is a much better fit because its value of a is
considerably higher.
(A)
A linear model is a slightly better fit because its value of r is slightly
smaller.
(B)
An exponential model is a much better fit because its value of a is
much closer to 1.
(C)
An exponential model is a slightly better fit because its value of r is
slightly closer to 1.
(D)
16. Which of the following are solutions to the quadratic equation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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17. If the slope of a line is  and a point on the line is (2, –1), which of
the following is the y-intercept of the line?
-6(A)
(B)
4(C)
6(D)
18. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a weighted average of the cost of
certain categories of goods and services in the United States. It is one
of the most widely used measures of inflation. According to the U.S.
Census Bureau, the CPI was 130.7 in 1990 and was 218.1 in 2010. If
the CPI continues to experience the same percent increase over the next
20 years, approximately what will the CPI be in 2030?
145.8(A)
305.5(B)
363.9(C)
408.7(D)
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19. Given the function  what domain value corresponds
to a range value of 
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. When a spring is pressed tightly between two objects, it remains still.
When one or both of those objects is disturbed, the spring starts to
move. The equation above can be used to find the time period T in
which a mass m, attached to a spring, makes a single oscillation (going
all the way down and then back up). The variable k is a constant.
Which of the following equations could be used to find the mass of the
object?
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21. An educational polling company wants to determine whether parents of
high school-age children believe using an electronic tablet in the
classroom will improve student learning. To do this, the company
conducted a survey by sending 50,000 text messages across the entire
United States to randomly selected phones with text-messaging
capabilities. For every text that the company sent, it received a
response to the survey. Which of the following best explains why this
random sample is unlikely to be a good representative sample of
parents’ opinions on the use of tablets in the classroom?
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Most parents don’t care about this issue, and their attitude is likely
to skew the results.
(A)
Surveys conducted via text messaging are illegal and therefore are
not considered reliable.
(B)
There is no way to verify whether the responders to the survey were
parents of high school age-children.
(C)
The survey was biased because parents who own a cell phone
probably also have a tablet and would want their children to learn
how to use it.
(D)
22. A company that makes shoelaces has two machines, both of which run
24 hours a day. The first machine can produce 36,000 shoelaces per
day. The second machine can produce 28,800 shoelaces per day. How
many more shoelaces can the first machine make than the second
machine in 8 minutes?
5(A)
40(B)
160(C)
200(D)
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23. Tetanus is an infection of the body’s nervous system. It is usually
contracted by cutting oneself on a rusty metal object. In 2002, Country
A started requiring students to have tetanus shots before entering public
school. That same year, Country B started providing the vaccine free of
charge to school-age children but has not required that they get it. The
graph above shows the incidence rate of tetanus in these two countries
starting in 2002. Which of the following statements is true?
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Country A’s vaccine requirement had a greater impact on the
incidence rate than did Country B’s free vaccines.
(A)
Country B’s free vaccines had a greater impact on the incidence rate
than did Country A’s vaccine requirement.
(B)
Country A’s vaccine requirement had about the same impact on the
incidence rate as did Country B’s free vaccines.
(C)
Because the countries started with different incidence rates, it is
impossible to determine which country’s actions had a greater
impact.
(D)
24. A college professor with several hundred students has office hours
between classes to provide extra help when needed. His classes on
Monday are from 9:00 AM to 10:45 AM and 2:30 PM to 3:45 PM. It
takes him 5 minutes to walk from the classroom to his office, and he
takes a lunch break from 12:00 PM to 1:00 PM. On a particular
Monday, he plans to grade tests, which have all multiple-choice
questions. If each test consists of 50 questions and it takes him 4
seconds to mark each question right or wrong, how many complete tests
can he mark during his office hours if no students come for help?
Assume that he does not take the time to add up the scores until after his
afternoon class.
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Registered to Vote? 1 2 3 4 5 Total
Yes 112 104 228 487 163 1,094
No 28 76 48 158 54 364
Total 140 180 276 645 217 1,458
46(A)
47(B)
54(C)
55(D)
25. An optician charges $125 for an eye examination, frames, and clear
glass lenses, but $197 for an eye examination, frames, and tinted glass
lenses. If the tinted lenses cost three times as much as the clear lenses,
how much do the clear glass lenses cost?
$24(A)
$36(B)
$48(C)
$72(D)
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26. An incumbent state senator (currently in office and running for an
additional term) conducts a survey to see how favorably the people in
her district view her. In the survey, responses of 1 or 2 represent an
unfavorable view, a response of 3 is a neutral view, and responses of 4
or 5 are favorable. The results of the survey are recorded in the table.
If one registered voter is chosen at random to attend a town hall
meeting, what is the probability that the voter does not view the senator
unfavorably?
40.6%(A)
59.4%(B)
78.1%(C)
80.3%(D)
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27. Higher-quality tennis balls are typically packaged in cylindrical cans,
as shown above, which are pressurized with air to keep them fresh. If
the can and the tennis balls have the same diameter, 2.6 inches, what is
the volume in cubic inches of the air inside the can around the tennis
balls? Assume that each tennis ball is tangent to the next and that the top
and bottom tennis balls are tangent to the top and bottom of the can.
4.4π(A)
8.1π(B)
10.3π(C)
29.3π(D)
28. If h is a rational number such that –1 < h  < 0, which of the following
could be the graph of the equation y  = hy  + hx  + x  – 4?
(A)
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(B)
(C)
783
(D)
29. A scientist weighed a 1.0 cubic foot piece of granite and found that it
weighed 168 pounds. The average density of Earth’s inner core is
approximately 12.8 g/cm . How much denser, in g/cm , is Earth’s inner
core than the piece of granite? Use any of the following conversions:
3 3
12 inches = 1 foot
16 ounces = 1 pound
1 inch = 2.54 cm
1 ounce = 28.35 grams
2.7(A)
10.1(B)
15.55(C)
28.35(D)
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Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
30. In electronic circuits, resistors are often paired to manage the flow of
the electrical current. To find the total resistance of a pair of parallel
resistors, electricians use the formula shown above, where R  is the
resistance of the first resistor and R  is the resistance of the second
resistor. Which of the following is another way to represent this
formula?
1
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be interpreted
as  not  )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
786
787
31. According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, the linear equation f
= –3.7 t  + 872 estimates the number of acres of farmland f in the United
States t years after 2010, where f is given in millions of acres. Based
on this equation, at the start of what year will the amount of farmland be
below 800 million acres?
32. If g ( x ) = x  + 2 x  + 9, what is g (5) – g (–1)?2
33. A North Carolina agricultural supply company is hoping to expand its
services to three counties in rural Virginia. According to its research,
there is a total of approximately 1,200 farms in these three counties.
The company sends out surveys to a sample of 200 randomly selected
farmers in the counties and finds that 120 are not satisfied with their
current supply company. Based on other market research, the company
is confident that it will be able to acquire 75% of the dissatisfied
customers. Based on this information and the results of the sample
survey, about how many customers should the company be able to
acquire in these three counties?
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34. Use the definition  to write the expression above in simplest
form.
35. Sometimes, companies will buy stock in businesses owned by one or
more of their competitors in order to gain some control over the
competing companies. Suppose Company X buys stock in two of its
competitors. The first competitor is a small regional company. Five
hundred shares of its stock cost $25,000 less than half as much as 500
shares of the other competitor, which is a large national company.
Together, Company X pays $155,000 for all the stock. How many more
thousands of dollars did Company X spend on acquiring the stock of the
national competitor than the regional one? Enter your answer in
thousands of dollars. (For example, enter $15,000 as 15.)
36. The Mackinac Bridge in Michigan is one of the longest suspension
bridges in the Western Hemisphere, spanning approximately 1.63 miles
from one end to the other. It has several pieces that are connected by
anchorages (large blocks to which the suspension cables are attached).
The longest piece is 3,800 feet long. In a scale drawing on a poster
board, the length of the bridge is 28 inches. How many inches long
should the longest piece be? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of
an inch. (There are 5,280 feet in 1 mile.)
789
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
A restaurant sent out surveys to determine how long customers are willing
to wait for a table on Friday night versus Saturday night. Participants
randomly received either a Friday night or a Saturday night survey. Results
are shown in the bar graph below.
37. If a customer is chosen at random from all of the survey respondents,
what is the probability that the customer is willing to wait at least 30
minutes for a table?
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38. On average, how many minutes longer are customers willing to wait for
a table on Saturday night than on Friday night? Round your answer to
the nearest whole minute.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
791
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
792
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how President
Johnson uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from President Lyndon Johnson’s Voting Rights Address,
delivered March 15, 1965.
I speak tonight for the dignity of man and the destiny of democracy.
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I urge every member of both parties, Americans of all religions and of
all races, from every section of this country, to join me in that cause.
At times history and fate meet at a single time in a single place to shape
a turning point in man’s unending search for freedom.…
In our time we have come to live with moments of great crisis. Our lives
have been marked with debate about great issues; issues of war and
peace, issues of prosperity and depression. But rarely in any time does
an issue lay bare the secret heart of America itself. Rarely are we met
with a challenge, not to our growth or abundance, our welfare or our
security, but rather to the values and the purposes and the meaning of our
beloved Nation.
The issue of equal rights for African Americans is such an issue, and
should we defeat every enemy, should we double our wealth and
conquer the stars, and still be unequal to this issue, then we will have
failed as a people and as a nation.…
Many of the issues of civil rights are very complex and most difficult,
but about this there can and should be no argument. Every American
citizen must have an equal right to vote. There is no reason which can
excuse the denial of that right. There is no duty which weighs more
heavily on us than the duty we have to ensure that right.
794
Yet the harsh fact is that in many places in this country men and women
are kept from voting simply because they are black.
Every device of which human ingenuity is capable has been used to deny
this right. The African American citizen may go to register only to be
told that the day is wrong, or the hour is late, or the official in charge is
absent; and if he persists, and if he manages to present himself to the
registrar, he may be disqualified because he did not spell out his middle
name or because he abbreviated a word on the application.
And if he manages to fill out an application he is given a test. The
registrar is the sole judge of whether he passes this test. He may be
asked to recite the entire Constitution, or explain the most complex
provisions of state law. And even a college degree cannot be used to
prove that he can read and write.
Experience has clearly shown that the existing process of law cannot
overcome systematic and ingenious discrimination. No law that we now
have on the books—and I have helped to put three of them there—can
ensure the right to vote when local officials are determined to deny it.
In such a case our duty must be clear to all of us. The Constitution says
that no person shall be kept from voting because of his race. We have all
795
sworn an oath before God to support and to defend that Constitution. We
must now act in obedience to that oath.…
It is wrong—deadly wrong—to deny any of your fellow Americans the
right to vote in this country.…
We cannot, we must not, refuse to protect the right of every American to
vote in every election that he may desire to participate in; and we ought
not and we cannot and we must not wait another eight months before we
get a bill. We have already waited a hundred years and more, and the
time for waiting is gone.…
Because it is not just African Americans, but really it is all of us, who
must overcome the crippling legacy of bigotry and injustice—and we
shall overcome.
As a man whose roots go deeply into Southern soil, I know how
agonizing racial feelings are. I know how difficult it is to reshape the
attitudes and the structure of our society.
But a century has passed, more than a hundred years, since the slave was
freed, and he is not fully free tonight.
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It was more than a hundred years ago that Abraham Lincoln, a great
President of another party, signed the Emancipation Proclamation, but
emancipation is a proclamation and not a fact.
Write an essay in which you explain how President Johnson
builds an argument to persuade his audience that “emancipation
is a proclamation and not a fact.” In your essay, analyze how he
uses one or more of the features listed in the box that precedes
the passage (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the
logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your
analysis focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Johnson’s
claims, but rather explain how he builds an argument to
persuade his audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
797
798
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. D
799
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. B
31. C
32. C
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. C
800
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. D
45. B
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. A
52. C
801
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. A
16. B
802
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. B
34. D
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. D
803
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. B
804
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
805
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. A
15. D
16. 12
17. 9/2 or 4.5
18. 7/3 or 2.33
19. 34
20. 2
806
807
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. C
808
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. 2030
32. 36
33. 540
34. 2
35. 85
36. 12.4
37. .49
38. 1
809
810
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
“Village Opera”
1. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are not stated in the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The first paragraph explicitly states that the
narrator would always go with his mother to visit his grandmother, so
(A) is the correct answer.
811
2. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Use context clues to help you distinguish the shades
of meaning that each answer choice has.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. The
narrator’s mother is trying to “impress” on him, or “emphasize” to him,
that he should not make a scene.
3. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for clues in the passage that suggest which
possibility is most likely true. Make a logical guess based on these
clues.
Getting to the Answer: Based on the information in the passage, (C) is
the logical choice. None of the others are suggested by the passage.
812
4. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that do not directly support
your answer to the previous question or are about a different topic.
Getting to the Answer: The clue relates to why the narrator’s mother
goes to visit her mother in the summer. Choice (A) supports the logical
assumption of the previous answer.
5. D
813
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: The central theme of any passage is the insight about
life that the author is trying to communicate to the reader. Eliminate any
themes that are not revealed by the experiences of the narrator.
Getting to the Answer: Although you may agree personally with more
than one of the themes presented, (D) is the correct answer choice. It is
supported by details in the passage, specifically, those that relate to the
fact that the narrator finally gets to go to the opera.
6. C
814
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that don’t fit with your
understanding of events in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: (C) is the correct answer. The narrator’s
mother and grandmother are persuaded that the boys will not be in
danger from going on the boat.
7. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote in the context of the passage.
Watch out for answer choices that support an incorrect answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer because it
directly supports the inference in the previous question.
815
8. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each choice in the sentence to see which
one makes the most sense.
Getting to the Answer: The boys wanted the narrator to go to the
opera. They were pushing, or “campaigning,” for that to happen. Choice
(A) is the correct answer in this context.
9. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the scene described in the passage and
decide why the author chose to use the phrase “with my mind’s eye.”
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. The author
chose this expression to show that the narrator had a good imagination.
816
Nelson Mandela Speech
10. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are clearly not
representative of the author’s attitude.
Getting to the Answer: The passage’s tone suggests that the author
wishes the reader to feel sympathy toward the narrator. Therefore, (A)
is the correct answer.
11. D
817
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the language Mandela uses in his speech.
What emotions is he trying to stir in his audience? This should help you
choose the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: Mandela uses emotional language to make his
audience understand the terrible consequences of the apartheid system
for black South Africans. He sympathizes with whites’ fears and tries to
calm them by explaining that democracy is the only acceptable solution.
He is clearly trying to help white South Africans understand why
apartheid is morally wrong and must be replaced. Choice (D) conveys
this idea.
12. A
818
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Choose the quote that provides the most direct
support for your answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Mandela opens his speech by asserting a key
problem with the practice of white supremacy: the lack of dignity
experienced by black Africans. Choice (A) provides the most direct
support for the assertion that apartheid must be abolished.
13. B
819
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Try substituting each answer choice for the word
“endorsed” in the sentence. Keep in mind that Mandela is describing a
negative occurrence.
Getting to the Answer: Mandela is saying that Africans don’t want to
be “endorsed out of an area because they were not born there” (lines 40-
41). In other words, Africans don’t want to be “signed out” of an area
through the use of a legal, signed document. Choice (B), “signed,” is the
correct answer.
14. A
820
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Follow Mandela’s logic closely throughout his
discussion of pass laws. What are the consequences of this legislation?
Getting to the Answer: Mandela says that pass laws “render any
African liable to police surveillance” (line 18) and “lead to the
breakdown of family life” (line 25). Mandela suggests that this, in turn,
leads to violence. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer; pass laws
caused lawlessness.
15. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Carefully reread the part of the passage that
addresses pass laws. Identify the specific claims it makes.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer because it
identifies a consequence of pass laws.
821
16. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Examine the sentence in which the word appears.
Which meaning of “artificial” fits with the idea that Mandela is trying to
communicate?
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, Mandela is arguing that
“political division, based on colour” (line 65) is entirely man-made and
therefore will not “result in racial domination” (lines 64-65). Choice
(D) is the correct answer.
17. A
822
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Search the passage for Mandela’s discussion of the
term “democracy.” Remember that his claim about democracy may be
implied rather than stated explicitly.
Getting to the Answer: Mandela identifies democracy as a state South
Africa has not yet reached because of its racialized government. He
seeks democracy but does not believe it exists presently. Choice (A) is
the correct answer, as it reflects this idea.
18. C
823
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the quoted statement and think about how a
white South African might react to this part of Mandela’s speech.
Getting to the Answer: Mandela’s and the ANC’s goal is a nonracist
democracy. By stating that the ANC has spent many years fighting
against racist practices and “will not change that policy” once given a
chance to “triumph” (lines 69-70), Mandela is assuring white South
Africans that black South Africans will not retaliate or enact unfair laws
and practices, once equal political rights are established by law.
Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
19. B
824
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Focus on the problems Mandela outlines throughout
the speech. What future policy has the potential to impact one or more of
these problems?
Getting to the Answer: Throughout his speech, Mandela talks about
the lack of education and the lack of meaningful, rather than menial,
employment for black South Africans. One can extrapolate that Mandela
would be in favor of a future policy that makes sure that untrained
workers would receive the training and education needed to attain
meaningful employment. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
20. A
825
Dictionary Passage
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph and consider its relationship to
the other paragraphs in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The previous paragraph acknowledges that
some people fear a nonracialized political system. This paragraph
answers that fear by promising that even when Africans constitute a
majority of voters, they will not institute a new race-based system.
Choice (A) is the correct answer.
21. A
826
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the entire passage and consider the tone,
purpose, and content presented by the author. The correct answer will
reflect the intent of the passage and the tone in which its content is
conveyed.
Getting to the Answer: The passage reports on the role of dictionaries
in tracking language, the changing nature of language over time, and the
difficulties for dictionary publishers in keeping up with evolving
language. Although the passage contains historical and contemporary
information and posits an opinion, it is presented in a somewhat casual,
accessible tone without any concerted effort to sway the audience to
adopt a specific position. The correct answer is (A).
22. C
827
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the first two paragraphs and look for the
relationship between their ideas. Identify a claim that is made that seems
to run counter to the position taken by the author.
Getting to the Answer: The author begins by questioning whether
many Scrabble players rely on the dictionary because it is a “definitive”
(line 5) source. The author then explains that many people assume that
dictionaries are comprehensive when, in fact, “they do not tell the whole
story” (line 9). The claim that the author tries to refute, then, is that
dictionaries are absolute and undeniable authorities on language, making
(C) correct.
23. D
828
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct answer should provide direct support to
the claim identified in the previous question. Avoid answer choices that
support the author’s own claims rather than the claim that the author
seeks to refute.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to the previous question
explains that the author seeks to refute the claim that dictionaries are
absolute and undeniable authorities on language. Choice (D) is correct
because it provides evidence that the author doesn’t think that
dictionaries are the absolute authority on language.
24. C
829
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence in which the word
appears and look for the specific meaning of the word in context. If
needed, review surrounding sentences for additional context clues. The
correct word will most naturally replace the existing word in the
sentence while keeping flow and meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The contextual sentence refers to the task of
tracking changes in language. Additional context clues in the paragraph
suggest that authors of the dictionary expected to be done much sooner
than they were. The dictionary proved to be a much more challenging
task because of the scope of what they were trying to do. In this way, the
job turned out to be much bigger than anticipated; it was tremendous.
Choice (C) is correct.
25. D
830
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the complete paragraph in which the phrases
appear to best understand the meaning that they convey in their specific
sentence. Consider the content of preceding paragraphs, as well. The
correct answer reflects an inference that can be made from the cited
phrases.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph in which the phrases appear
begins by explaining that a new word is created every 98 minutes. This
follows earlier paragraphs that discuss the development of the Oxford
English Dictionary (OED), contrasting the sources of new words with
philological authorities who first sought to provide a comprehensive
dictionary for the English language. The inference is that new words not
only come into use every day but originate from many sources, including
non-philological ones. Choice (D) is correct.
26. D
831
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence. Check each conclusion
against the sentence to see if the specific rhetoric of the sentence
supports that choice.
Getting to the Answer: The lines explain that Merriam-Webster’s
dictionary adds many words that come from common Internet usage.
This suggests that words not only gain meaning but also accrue a certain
legitimacy through their popular usage, making (D) correct.
27. C
832
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Read each choice completely and check the meaning
of the lines. The correct answer will provide direct support for the
answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The answer to the previous question suggests
that words gain meaning and legitimacy from usage. Lines 61-65 (“In the
last … insults”) explain how the meaning of troll changed over time
through its use on the Internet. Choice (C) is correct.
28. C
833
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Carefully study the graphic’s data for each year.
Check each answer choice against the data provided.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows that from 2011 to 2014, 15
words from the Internet were added. It also shows that from 2006 to
2009, 10 words from the Internet were added. This makes (C) correct.
29. A
834
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence, pretending that the referenced
word is a blank. Before reading the answer choices, predict which word
might best fill that blank. Review the answer choices for the word that
most nearly means the same as your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence explains that some people feel
that the new meaning of “literally” erodes the entire purpose of the
dictionary. The implication gained from the previous and subsequent
sentences is that people do not like this meaning and consider it harmful.
In this sense, “erode” means to “diminish” the underlying purpose of the
dictionary. Choice (A) is correct.
30. B
835
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Consider the overall claim that the author makes
about how dictionaries function in our world. Which answer choice best
reflects the relationship between dictionaries and our “living language”
(line 89)?
Getting to the Answer: The correct choice is (B). Based on the
passage, one can conclude that dictionaries attempt to address the idea
that language changes over time.
31. C
836
Paired Passages—Atlantic Ocean Wildlife
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Study the data and read the title of the graphic
carefully to identify the purpose of its data. Compare these data with the
key conclusions drawn by the author of the passage. The correct answer
will relate the purpose and nature of the data to a central argument in the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The title of the graphic indicates that its
purpose is to show what new words from the Internet were added to the
Merriam-Webster Dictionary. In the passage, the author explores the
impact of changing Internet technologies on language usage. The correct
answer is (C) because it ties together the purpose of the data in the chart
with a central idea in the passage.
32. C
837
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Read the entire passage to understand the author’s
central idea. Then choose the answer choice that best reflects this
overarching idea. Beware of options that simply reflect facts presented
in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: While other answer choices focus on details
mentioned in the passage or on information not present, the idea
presented in (C) is central to Passage 1.
33. D
838
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Examine the sentence containing the selected phrase
and decide how the sentence’s tone reflects the author’s point of view
about the topic. Then choose the answer choice that correctly reflects
this intention.
Getting to the Answer: The author is clearly in favor of more studies
that could help protect the ecosystem, and because the author does not
mention shipping, funding, or ways in which scientists have ignored the
ecosystem, the correct answer choice is (D).
34. A
839
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread Passage 1 to determine which answer choice
offers a logical explanation as to why scientists use nanoacoustic tags.
Eliminate choices that might be true but that are not discussed in the
passage, such as B.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the tags are small
enough to not interfere with the turtles’ ability to swim, implying that
larger tags might slow the turtles down and offer skewed data.
Therefore, the correct answer is (A).
35. C
840
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Begin by reviewing the line of reasoning you used to
choose your answer to the previous question. Then choose the quote that
supports that answer.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence noted in (C) indicates that the
research tags are small enough not to hinder the ability of the turtles to
swim. This directly supports the answer to the previous question, so (C)
is correct.
36. B
841
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Skim Passage 2. Eliminate answer choices that might
be true but that are not discussed in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage suggests that the fishing industry
and conservationists will find the research beneficial. Therefore, the
correct answer is (B).
37. D
842
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid choices that provide evidence for incorrect
answers to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) indicates that the Sargasso
research is commercially and environmentally important. This directly
supports the correct answer to the previous question, the importance of
Sargasso Sea research data to “conservationists and the fishing industry
alike.”
38. C
843
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: After reading both passages, assess each author’s
purpose and decide which answer choice explains the most accurate
difference between the two.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Both passages intend to
inform a general audience about the various research methods used to
study the Sargasso Sea and the importance of this research, but one
passage focuses on a single species, while the other focuses on the
entire ecosystem.
39. A
844
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues, assess how the
meaning of the sentence relates to the overall passage, and determine
which definition best serves the idea presented.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct, as the sentence says the
studies offer scientists data about the first hours of the turtles’ lives,
when they are unable to protect themselves from the predators
mentioned earlier in the passage.
40. C
845
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read for context clues to understand the meaning of
the sentence. Then substitute the answer choices for the word to
determine which definition best serves the idea presented in the
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence discusses how the South Atlantic
Fishery Management Council wants to have the sargassum community
classified as an Essential Fish Habitat. In this context, “classified”
means “categorized”; therefore, (C) is correct.
41. D
846
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread Passage 2 to infer the author’s intention for
including the words noted.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. The words are used to
describe the large area of ocean in which a great number of species live.
It’s logical that this vast area would create a complex challenge for
scientists studying the ecosystem, and in fact paragraph 2 explains that
scientists need to use multiple methods to collect data from such a large
area.
42. B
847
Colorblindness Passage
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Reread both passages to make sure you understand
how scientists in each case approach their research. Then choose which
answer choice best connects ideas from both passages.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct, as both passages discuss
the old and new research methods scientists have used to study the
Sargasso Sea. This suggests that no matter what is being studied, a
single species or an entire ecosystem, the research technology used is
constantly evolving.
43. D
848
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Remember that you are determining the largest, most
central, idea of the entire passage. Avoid answers that refer only to
specific supporting details.
Getting to the Answer: This passage is mostly about what causes
colorblindness. It discusses the physiological process of colorblindness
in the human body, as well as the genetics involved in passing the trait
through generations. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
44. D
849
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: All of the information presented in the passage
supports the central idea, but the correct answer will provide direct
support for the answer to the previous question. Avoid answers that
provide evidence for incorrect answers to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is mostly about what causes
colorblindness. Choice (D) contains information about the physiological
and genetic causes of colorblindness, so it is the correct answer.
45. B
850
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider how the information in paragraph 6 relates
to the information in the rest of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 6, the author explains that more
men than women are colorblind because of how the gene for
colorblindness is passed from parents to their children. Because the
gene is passed on the X chromosome and men have only one X
chromosome, they need only inherit the gene from their mother rather
than both parents (as women must) in order to be colorblind. Choice (B)
is the correct answer.
46. C
851
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Read the question stem carefully. Notice that it’s
asking you to infer a relationship between the colors red and green in the
context of colorblindness.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Overlapping absorption
ranges mean that everyone’s brain must compare red and green to tell
which color is to be correctly interpreted. In the colorblind person,
however, some of the information needed by the brain to tell the colors
apart is missing.
47. A
852
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Evaluate each answer choice and consider what each
would add to the passage. Choose the one that would best support the
author’s central claim.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 1, the author says that most
people who are colorblind are “red-green” colorblind. In identifying
this specific type, the author suggests that there are other types as well.
The author’s central claim could be strengthened by including
information about other types of colorblindness. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
48. B
853
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Replace the target word with each of the answer
choices and read the sentence. Eliminate answer choices that are
synonyms of “sensitive” but do not make sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “sensitive” most nearly means
“responsive” because it is referring to how the eye’s cones react to the
light spectrum. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
49. C
854
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will not be stated
directly in the text but will be supported by evidence presented in the
passage. Eliminate answers that are not supported by evidence in the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The author compares the way in which a
person who is colorblind experiences color with the way a person with
normal color vision experiences color. It is reasonable to infer that a
person who is colorblind experiences the visual world in a way that is
much different from the way a person who has normal color vision
perceives it. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
50. A
855
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer choice in the passage and
determine which one provides the strongest support for your answer to
the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 1, the author explains how people
who are colorblind perceive color, which has an impact on how they
see the world. Lines 10-14 provide the strongest support for the answer
to the previous question, so (A) is the correct answer.
51. A
856
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Think about the fact that the topic being discussed in
the sentence is human genes. Choose the answer that makes the most
sense in this context.
Getting to the Answer: The author is explaining that women who have
only one colorblind gene are called carriers because they aren’t
“affected” by it. This means that the gene doesn’t “change” their ability
to see all colors. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
52. C
857
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will be supported by the
evidence in both the passage and the graphic. Look for relationships
between the variables in the graphic that are described in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 6, the author explains that females
get one X chromosome from their father and one from their mother. If the
father is colorblind, there is a 100% chance that the X chromosome he
passes on to his daughter will have the colorblind gene, making her a
carrier. The graphic shows this information as well. Therefore, (C) is
the correct answer.
858
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Consider whether this sentence needs punctuation
within it and, if so, what type. You should be able to come up with a
specific reason a particular form of punctuation is needed.
Getting to the Answer: “Including the United States” is part of the
subject of the sentence that begins with “Twelve member countries.”
Therefore, no punctuation is necessary to make this sentence
grammatical. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
2. A
859
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Ask yourself whether the sentence in its current form
makes sense or if another word is needed in place of “accelerate” to
improve the meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence in its current form makes sense,
so (A) is the correct answer.
3. B
860
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Determine what specific relationship “opponents”
have to their feelings about politics and science. What information
should the introductory phrase in this sentence provide to help the
reader understand exactly what the opponents feel?
Getting to the Answer: The rest of the paragraph implies that the
opponents definitely believe “that politics should trump science.” The
sentence should emphasize that politics trumping science is the most
important reason for their objection. The correct answer should also
maintain the tone of the paragraph as a whole. Therefore, (B) is the
correct answer.
4. A
861
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider how strongly countries feel about Antarctic
minerals. Which word among the answer choices best expresses their
degree of interest?
Getting to the Answer: The countries appear to be extremely
interested in accessing Antarctic minerals. Choice (A), “interested in,”
reflects that countries want to use Antarctica for its minerals and,
therefore, is the correct answer. The other answer choices suggest a
weak or nonexistent desire for obtaining resources from Antarctica.
5. A
862
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Determine the relationship between the two
sentences. Then decide which answer choice best reflects this
relationship.
Getting to the Answer: The second sentence appears to have a cause-
effect relationship with the first one; because China and similar states
are oil-poor, they see Antarctica as a means to satisfying their oil
demands. Choice (A) combines the two sentences in a way that makes
this relationship clear and, therefore, is the correct answer.
6. C
863
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Note that the graphic gives specific information
about the amount of China’s oil consumption and production per year
over a period of approximately 22 years. Observe which data are
labeled “forecast.” Be sure that your choice is accurate and best
supports the author’s claim.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) accurately reflects the information
in the graphic.
7. B
864
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the answer choices carefully to determine how
each would change the meaning or style of the sentence. Which change,
if any, would result in the best sentence?
Getting to the Answer: All of the answer choices claim that Antarctica
is “a rich continent” because of its mineral resources. Choice (B),
however, expresses the same relationship most elegantly. In fewer
words it articulates the same idea, so it is the correct answer.
8. C
865
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Carefully reread the rest of the paragraph. Try to
identify the answer choice that best matches the paragraph’s tone and
intent.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph, like the passage as a whole,
has an objective, factual tone. It is not critical of anyone in particular but
is simply stating facts. Choice (C) is the most objective and succinct
choice and is the correct answer.
9. B
866
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Verify whether “it” matches the noun it stands for and
choose a better replacement if needed.
Getting to the Answer: “It” seems to refer to “the protocol,” but this
does not make sense within the sentence; the protocol is not what “will
be waiting for claims.” A specific noun, rather than a pronoun, is
needed. Replacing “it” with “an energy-hungry world” identifies the
actual subject that “will be” waiting. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
10. D
867
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Items in a list should be separated by appropriate
punctuation. Review your knowledge of the rules governing lists to
arrive at the correct answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: All items in a list should be separated by
commas. Choice (D) is the only one that correctly places a comma
between each item in this list of officials.
11. D
868
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Before reading the answer choices, identify in your
own words what purpose an appropriate sentence would serve in the
paragraph. How should the first sentence be linked to the others?
Getting to the Answer: The first sentence states that there is an
economic aspect to the discussion of the Southern Ocean. The rest of the
sentences note that fishing is important to many countries. Therefore, the
inserted sentence should provide detail that links economics and fishing.
Choice (D) accomplishes this.
12. D
869
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that are overly wordy and
redundant, like B and C. The word “specks” suggests that these star
images are small. It is better to be as direct and simple as possible.
Getting to the Answer: Additional words do not add more meaning to
this content. (D) is the correct answer because it is the most concise and
effective way of stating the information in the passage.
13. B
870
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Think about the ways that two complete thoughts that
are closely related can be separated. Be careful of inappropriate
transition words.
Getting to the Answer: The semicolon is one option for dividing two
thoughts that are closely tied to one another. Choice (B) is the correct
answer.
14. A
871
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and then read each of the
choices. Decide which one is a fitting conclusion for the rest of the
information in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer because it
most effectively concludes the paragraph by stating an overarching idea
of the paragraph.
15. A
872
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Pretend the word is a blank in the sentence. Predict
what word could be substituted for the blank. Choose the word closest
in meaning to your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The passage later states that Tombaugh studied
the images. You can guess that he had to load them into the machine first.
Only (A) fits within the context of the sentence.
16. B
873
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph to identify the central idea.
Then review the answer choices to find the one that best provides
support for that idea.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) explains how the gravitational pull
of another planet could affect Neptune’s orbit. This supports the central
idea of the paragraph, that Tombaugh believed there was an additional
planet in our solar system, farther away than Neptune. Choice (B) is
correct.
17. D
874
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence. Then substitute each answer
choice for the word in question. See which one fits best.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence describes how Tombaugh was
able to tell the difference between planets and stars. Only (D) fits within
the context of the sentence.
18. C
875
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Look for the relationship between the previous
sentence and this sentence. This will help you choose the appropriate
transition word. Replace the word in the sentence to ensure that it makes
sense.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence beginning with “Although”
places a condition on the previous sentence. It describes a situation in
which it would be difficult for Tombaugh to tell the difference between
stars and planets. (C) shows the relationship between the two sentences.
19. A
876
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Ask yourself if the two clauses separated by the
semicolon are independent or not. Be careful of inappropriate transition
words.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) correctly places a semicolon
between the two independent clauses.
20. D
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Difficulty: Medium
Strategic Advice: Review the choices and find the one that does not
give information that is directly related to the paragraph’s central idea.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the least essential sentence in the
paragraph. The detail in this sentence is not directly tied to the
paragraph’s central idea.
877
21. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and notice that the verb in question
is not in agreement with the subject of the verb.
Getting to the Answer: The verb “has determined” is in a singular
form, but the subject is “scientists,” which is plural, so (D) is the
correct answer.
22. A
878
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Remember that words such as “however” show a
relationship between two things or ideas and that to emphasize that
relationship, they are typically set off with punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. Commas are needed to
set off “however” from the rest of the sentence and to emphasize its
meaning.
23. A
879
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the two parts of the sentence on
either side of the dash can stand independently.
Getting to the Answer: The series “in print, in press interviews, in
web content, and on social media” cannot stand on its own because it
lacks a subject. Therefore, a dash, rather than a period or semicolon,
should be used. Choice (A) is correct.
24. D
880
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Consider whether the list of items is a series needing
commas.
Getting to the Answer: Because there is a list in the sentence, commas
should be used to separate the items. The preposition “behind” is not an
item in the series and should not be followed by a comma or other
punctuation. Choice (D) is correct.
25. C
881
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph and consider the author’s
purpose. Is it to inform? To entertain? To persuade? If you’re not sure,
read more of the passage. Then review the answer choices to find the
one with punctuation that is appropriate for the author’s purpose.
Getting to the Answer: This is an informational passage; the author
does not use casual language or offer opinions. A period is most
appropriate when the author’s purpose is to inform. Choice (C) is
correct.
26. A
882
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Look back to find what noun this list must match. Is it
in a singular or plural form?
Getting to the Answer: The noun “people” is plural. As the sentence is
written, the nouns in the list are all plural, so no change is needed.
Choice (A) is correct.
27. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: A pronoun must agree with its antecedent in number
and gender. Find the antecedent of “its” and determine whether it is
singular or plural. Make sure the pronoun you choose is spelled
correctly.
Getting to the Answer: The antecedent, “materials,” is plural. Choice
(C) is correct.
883
28. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Decide if the word in the sentence is used correctly.
Do any of the answer choices offer a clearer usage?
Getting to the Answer: “Provide” is a verb meaning “to make
available for use”; the use of “craft” as a verb implies an artistic sense
of creating something to support the company’s brand message. Choice
(C) is correct.
29. D
884
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence for context. Consider whether
the word is used correctly in the sentence. If not, test the other choices in
its place to identify a clearer meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The opening sentence of the paragraph refers
to acquiring the skills necessary for a public relations position. The
adjective “immovable” means incapable of being moved.
“Transferable” is an adjective meaning “able to be passed,” in this case,
from one field to another. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
30. B
885
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Review the answer choices to find the one that
provides concrete, factual evidence for the author’s claim in sentence 3.
Getting to the Answer: The author is making a claim about the
increase in salary for employees who are promoted to upper-
management positions. The sentence that provides factual evidence for
this claim is (B), which cites a specific numerical figure ($101,000 per
year) to contrast with the $30,000 per year paid to entry-level
employees.
31. A
886
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Reread the entire paragraph to establish the central
idea. Make sure that the answer you choose is supported by all the
sentences in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: All the sentences in this paragraph contain
Lin’s advice for success; therefore, (A) is correct.
32. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Verify that there are two short but separate thoughts
in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: As the sentence is written, it is a run-on.
Proper punctuation and the conjunction “and” eliminate the run-on.
Choice (B) is correct.
887
33. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Parallel ideas in a sentence must be expressed in the
same grammatical form. Rephrase the actions in the sentence so they are
parallel.
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, the gerund “talking” is paired
with the infinitive “to observe.” These are different grammatical forms
and, therefore, are not parallel. The correct choice pairs two infinitives:
“to talk” and “to observe.” Choice (B) is correct.
34. D
888
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Reread the underlined portion of the paragraph to see
if it contains incomplete thoughts that cannot stand alone.
Getting to the Answer: As written, the phrase “greater creativity and
appreciation of heritage” is a fragment and must be combined with the
sentence before it. Choice (D) is correct.
35. D
889
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Decide how the word is used in the sentence. Test
each answer choice in its place to see if there is one that makes better
sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: All the choices except (D) are negative
representations of the film industry; the passage is about the positive
influences of the film industry. “Potent” means “robust and dynamic.”
Choice (D) is correct.
36. B
890
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Examine the sentences of the paragraph to determine
the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about the success of
filmmakers who have expanded to global markets. The topic sentence
must describe the spread of the worldwide appreciation of films.
Choice (B) is correct.
37. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Identify the subject of the independent clause. Then
predict the verb that is correctly used with the subject.
Getting to the Answer: “Global sense” is singular, so the singular verb
“grows” is correct; do not be distracted by the prepositional phrase “of
shared understanding and cultural appreciation.” Choice (B) is correct.
891
38. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Locate each independent idea in the statement.
Determine if the two independent ideas are equal in rank.
Getting to the Answer: As the sentence is written, the two ideas are
presented as equal. However, the “physical renderings of cultural
identity” is a description of cultural artifacts, making it subordinate to
the main idea of the sentence. All choices except (C) incorrectly treat
the two as equals. Choice (C) is correct.
39. D
892
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the surrounding sentences to analyze the context
in which the word is used.
Getting to the Answer: The previous sentence states that films have
“more impact” than other cultural artifacts. This is a clue that you are
looking for a word that means “powerful” or “important.” Choice (D) is
correct.
40. D
893
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Reread the entire sentence carefully to find the
error(s) in the underlined portion. Identify the different parts of the
sentence. How can these be grammatically united?
Getting to the Answer: The subordinating conjunction “Even as”
indicates that the first part of the sentence is a clause that cannot stand
alone and should be separated from the main idea by a comma. The next
two parts of the sentence each have a subject and verb, so there needs to
be a semicolon before “the difference” to form two independent clauses.
Choice (D) is correct.
41. C
894
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify the main idea of the paragraph in the topic
sentence and the details presented to provide support.
Getting to the Answer: Both of the sentences in this paragraph refer to
the increasing popularity of cross-cultural films, not to the subject matter
of the films or other forms of entertainment. Choice (C) is correct.
42. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph. Which verb tense is used in
the first and last sentences of the paragraph?
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is correct as written. All other
choices create a shift in verb tense within the paragraph. Choice (A) is
correct.
895
43. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Notice that the underlined portion of the sentence
contains a list of parallel ideas. Parallel ideas must be expressed in the
same grammatical form.
Getting to the Answer: The list of how films are used is a series
requiring the same form. Notice that in (B), the infinitive “to teach”
matches “[to] treasure” and “[to] preserve.” Choice (B) is correct.
44. B
896
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Use the key in the graphic to identify the countries
represented by each bar. Then identify the country that has shown a
consistent increase in film production.
Getting to the Answer: According to the graphic, film production
fluctuated in all countries except China. Choice (B) is correct.
897
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
898
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: When matching a real-world scenario to an
inequality, try writing the inequality in words first, and then translate
from English into math.
Getting to the Answer: On a new tire, the tread depth is  inches. As
the car is driven, the tread wears down, or is less over time, so the
depth is always less than or equal to  You can express this as
 which means you can eliminate B and D. For safety reasons,
the tread depth must be more than  inches. You can express this as
 Because the answer choices are written with the number first,
turn the inequality around—but don’t forget to keep the open end of the
symbol pointed at d. The result is  This means (C) is correct.
2. C
899
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: There are a number of ways to solve quadratic
equations. When the coefficient of x  is 1, the quickest way is usually to
factor, if possible. You could also use the quadratic formula or
completing the square.
Getting to the Answer: To answer this question, first rewrite the
equation in standard form, x  – 8 x  – 48 = 0, and then factor to arrive at
( x  – 12)( x  + 4) = 0. Using the Zero-Product property to solve for x
results in x  = 12 and x  = –4. It is given that x  < 0, so x must equal –4.
This means that x  + 10 is equal to –4 + 10 = 6.
2
2
3. B
900
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: When a quadratic equation is written in standard
form, y  = ax  + bx  + c , the value of c is the y-intercept of the
equation’s graph. This is because substituting 0 for x results in y  =
a (0)  + b (0) + c  = c .
Getting to the Answer: In a real-world scenario, the y-intercept
represents an initial amount. In this question, height is what is being
measured, so the y-intercept represents the initial height of the bottle
rocket. Because the rocket was fired from the roof of the gymnasium, the
height of the gymnasium must be 14 meters, making (B) correct.
2
2
4. D
901
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Horizontal and vertical lines have special forms. A
horizontal line has a slope of 0 and an equation that always looks like y
= b , where b is a constant. A vertical line has an undefined slope and
always looks like x  = b .
Getting to the Answer: Line L shown in the graph is horizontal, so you
are looking for an equation that once simplified (or written in y  = mx  +
b  form) looks like y  = b . In other words, all the x-terms must cancel
out. In addition, because the line is below the x-axis, b must be a
negative number. Check each answer choice to see if it takes on the
desired form. Choice A → y  = – x  – 2, so eliminate it. Choice B → y
= – x , so eliminate it. Choice C → y  = 2, which is in the correct form,
but 2 is positive and the graph would be above the x-axis, so eliminate
it. This means (D) must be correct—subtracting x and 2 from both sides
of the equation results in y  = –2, which could be the equation of line L.
5. A
902
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When solving a system of linear equations, always
check to see if you can cancel out one of the variables by multiplying
either of the equations by a fairly small number and then adding the
equations. Before you choose an answer, check that you answered the
right question (the value of y ).
Getting to the Answer: Multiply the bottom equation by –2 and then
combine the equations to eliminate the terms that have x’s in them.
The question asks for the value of y , so you don’t need to find the value
of x. Simply square the value of y and you’re done: (–2)  = 4.
2
2
2
6. C
903
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Take a quick peek at the answer choices—but only to
get an idea of how the functions look. They are all linear equations, so
apply what you know about the slope-intercept form of a line to choose
the correct function.
Getting to the Answer: In a real-world scenario, the slope of a line
represents a rate of change (how fast the alloy cools) and the y-intercept
represents a starting amount (the initial temperature of the alloy). Be
careful—the rate is given in minutes while the question asks for a
function in terms of hours. There are four 15-minute intervals in an hour,
so the cooling rate per hour is –40(4) = –160 degrees. (The rate is
negative because as the alloy cools, the temperature drops.) Look back
at the answer choices—(C) is the only one that has a slope of –160, so
(C) is correct.
7. A
904
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Whenever an equation involves two fractional
expressions set equal to each other, you can cross-multiply to solve. As
you work through the algebra, don’t skip steps. This will keep you from
forgetting to distribute numbers and/or negative signs.
Getting to the Answer:
8. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
905
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question—
cross-multiplying in this question (without a calculator) will create
large numbers and possibly lead to errors. Instead, start by simplifying
the numerators and then multiply both sides of the equation by the least
common denominator, 36.
Getting to the Answer:
Don’t be fooled—this does not mean that there is no solution. The value
of n just happens to be 0. If the variable had been in the denominator of
either of the expressions, you would need to check that the solution is
valid, but it wasn’t, so the correct answer is (A).
906
9. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The domain of a function is the set of x-values
(inputs) for which the function is defined. Of all the parent functions, the
only ones that have a restricted domain (a domain that is not all real
numbers) are the square root function (because the square root of a
negative number is imaginary) and the rational function (because you
cannot divide by 0).
Getting to the Answer: The domain in the question is restricted to
numbers greater than or equal to 2, so you can immediately eliminate A
and D—the domain of a quadratic function and an absolute function is
all real numbers. To choose between (B) and C, you can draw a quick
sketch or think about how transformations affect the domain of each
function. The domain of the parent function  is 
(nonnegative numbers). In (B), the parent function is reflected vertically
across the horizontal axis (which doesn’t change the domain) and then
shifted to the right 2 (making the domain x  ≥ 2), so (B) is correct. Note
that in C, the function is reflected across the horizontal axis and then
shifted up 2 units, which adds 2 to the range of the function, not the
domain.
907
10. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Only one equation is given, and it has two variables.
This means that you don’t have enough information to solve for either
variable. Instead, look for the relationship between the variable terms in
the equation and those in the expression that you are trying to find, x  –
3 y .
Getting to the Answer: The expression that you’re looking for doesn’t
have fractions, so clear the fractions in the equation by multiplying both
sides by 6. Don’t forget to distribute the 6 to both terms on the left side
of the equation.
This yields the expression that you are looking for, x  – 3 y , so no
further work is required—just read the value on the right-hand side of
the equation. The answer is 18, which is (C).
908
11. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: When a trig question involves signs (+ and –) rather
than numbers, using your knowledge of how the unit circle works will
get you to the answer. Before you begin analyzing the answer choices,
translate the inequality symbols to signs (> 0 means +, and < 0 means –).
Getting to the Answer: Draw a quick sketch of a unit circle and add
the angle x. Because 0 < x  < 90°, you can draw the angle anywhere in
the first quadrant. Drawing a small angle is usually the safest way to go.
Then, sketch in each of the angles described in the answers. Keep in
mind that the cosine of the angle is equal to the x-coordinate of the point
where the angle hits the unit circle, so it’s positive in Quadrants I and IV
and negative in Quadrants II and III.
909
After sketching in each of the angles, compare them with the answer
choices. The only one that is not always true is (D). When the angle is
small, twice the angle still lands in Quadrant I, so the cosine is still
positive (and therefore > 0, not < 0). Note that had you drawn a larger
angle in Quadrant I, such as a 60° angle, 2x would have landed in
Quadrant II, in which case the cosine would have been negative.
However, the question asks for the statement that is not always true, so
you must consider both large and small angles in Quadrant I.
12. C
910
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Graphically, a system of linear equations that has no
solution indicates two parallel lines or, in other words, two lines that
have the same slope. So, write each of the equations in slope-intercept
form ( y  = mx  + b ) and set their slopes (m) equal to each other to solve
for a. Before finding the slopes, multiply the bottom equation by –3 to
make it easier to manipulate.
Getting to the Answer:
The slope of the first line is  and the slope of the second line is 
Setting them equal and solving for a results in 
13. A
Difficulty: Hard
911
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: To write the equation of a parabola, you need two
things—the vertex and one other point. In this question, you already have
a point, but you’ll need to reason logically to find the vertex. Use these
two facts: The vertex of a parabola lies on its axis of symmetry, and the
range of a quadratic equation depends on the y-coordinate of the vertex.
Getting to the Answer: The vertex of the parabola shown must lie on
its axis of symmetry, which is halfway between the two points (0, 8) and
(12, 8). This means the x-coordinate of the vertex is halfway between 0
and 12, which is 6. To find the y-coordinate of the vertex, look at the
range:  means that the minimum value of the graph, and hence
the y-coordinate of the vertex, is –4. Now, use the vertex (6, –4) to set
up a quadratic equation in vertex form: y  = a ( x  – h )  + k . The result
is y  = a ( x  – 6)  – 4. Plug in either of the given points for x and y to
find the value of a. Using (0, 8), the result is:
2
2
912
14. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Drawing in a radius or two is usually a good way to
start a circle question, especially when there doesn’t seem to be a lot of
information given. This question asks about the distance between the
chord and the diameter, so start by drawing that in. Then, see if drawing
a radius will help.
Getting to the Answer: After you’ve drawn in anything that you think
might help you answer the question, go back and label wherever
possible. The radius has length r, so add that to the diagram. The chord
is  as long as the diameter, which means half the chord is  as long as
the radius, so add that to the diagram. You are looking for the distance
between the chord and the diameter, so call that x.
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You now have a right triangle with enough labels to use the Pythagorean
theorem.
15. D
914
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Because this is a non-calculator question, you need
to rewrite the exponent in a way that makes it easier to evaluate. Unit
fractions, as exponents, are easy to evaluate because they can be
rewritten as radicals.
Getting to the Answer: Use the rules of exponents to rewrite  as a
unit fraction raised to a power. Then write the expression in radical
form and simplify.
16. 12
Difficulty: Easy
915
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The two things you can glean from the equation of a
line are its slope and its y-intercept. In this question, you’re given
information about A and asked about B. Try writing the equation in
slope-intercept form to see how A and B are related. Then look at the
graph and see what you can add to this relationship.
Getting to the Answer: Start by writing the equation in slope-intercept
form, y  = mx  + b .
So, together A and B (specifically A over B) define the slope of the line.
Look at the graph: Reading from left to right, the line falls 1 unit for
every 2 units that it runs to the right, so the slope is  Don’t forget—
the question tells you that A  = 6, so set the slope equal to  and solve
for B:
916
17. 9/2 or 4.5
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question.
Here, the fractions make it look more complicated than it really is, so
start by clearing the fractions by multiplying everything by 12.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t need to separate this compound
inequality into pieces. Just remember, whatever you do to one piece, you
must do to all three pieces, and don’t forget to reverse the inequality
symbols if you multiply or divide by a negative number.
The question asks for the minimum possible value of d, so turn the
inequality around so that smaller numbers are written first:
917
 making the minimum value  or 4.5.
18. 7/3 or 2.33
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Piecewise defined functions look intimidating, but
they are usually very simple functions—they’re just written in pieces.
Your job is to figure out which piece of the function you need to use to
answer the question.
Getting to the Answer: The right-hand side of each piece of the
function tells you what part of the domain (which x-values) goes with
that particular function. In this function, only values of x that are less
than zero go with the top function, values of x between 0 and 3 go with
the middle function, and values of x that are greater than 3 go with the
bottom function. Because 2 is between 0 and 3, plug it into the middle
function and simplify:
918
19. 34
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Drawing on the diagram is a great strategy to get
started on a question like this. There are two right triangles—the smaller
one formed by the saber, the path of the sun’s rays, and the ground; and
the larger one formed by the brick wall, the path of the sun’s rays, and
the ground. The two triangles share one angle (the small angle on the left
side), and each has a 90-degree angle (where the saber and the brick
wall each meet the ground), making the third pair of corresponding
angles also congruent. This means the triangles are similar by AAA, and
the sides of the triangles are proportional.
Getting to the Answer: Add information from the question to the
diagram. You’ll need to convert the height of the wall to inches because
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the question asks for the length of the saber in inches. (You could also
convert the base lengths to inches, but it is not necessary because you
can compare feet to feet in that ratio.)
Now that you have a more detailed drawing, set up and solve a
proportion:
Don’t forget to add the 4 inches that are stuck in the ground to find that
the length of the saber is 30 + 4 = 34 inches.
920
20. 2
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Solving a rational equation takes patience and a good
deal of algebraic manipulation. You’ll need to find a common
denominator and multiply both sides of the equation by that denominator.
The next steps will depend on what kind of equation results from the
first steps.
Getting to the Answer: Start by multiplying both sides of the equation
(all three terms) by the common denominator, which is x ( x  + 1). Try to
write neatly, especially when canceling terms, so you don’t lose track of
anything.
The resulting equation is quadratic, so set it equal to zero and either try
to factor it or use the quadratic formula to solve it.
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Be careful here—whenever there is a variable in the denominator of an
equation, you must check to make sure that the solutions do not result in
division by zero. The solution x  = 1 does result in division by 0, so it is
invalid. That means the only correct solution is x  = 2.
922
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
923
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into steps. Before you can use the
ratio, you need to find the percent of the market that utilizes Provider 1
and Provider 2.
Getting to the Answer: The ratio given in the question is 3:2, so write
this as 3 parts (Provider 1) and 2 parts (Provider 2). You don’t know
how big a part is, so call it x. This means that 3 x  + 2 x  = the percent of
consumers that utilize Provider 1 and Provider 2 for cable services,
which is 100% – all the other providers: 100 – (18 + 15 + 7) = 100 –
40 = 60.
Each part has a value of 12 and three parts use Provider 1, so Provider
1’s market share is 3 × 12 = 36%.
2. B
924
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Solve the inequality using inverse operations. Then
compare your answer with each of the number lines shown. Remember,
on a number line, numbers to the right are greater than numbers to the
left.
Getting to the Answer:
There should be an open dot at –6, with shading to the right, so (B) is
correct. Don’t be fooled by C. You only reverse the inequality symbol
when you multiply or divide by a negative number, not when the answer
is negative.
3. C
925
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This is a question about rates, so pay careful
attention to the units. As you read the question, decide if and when you
will need to convert units.
Getting to the Answer: First determine how long it will take the boat
to complete the trip. Set up and solve a proportion:
The question asks for the total number of ounces of water needed. The
recommended rate of consumption is given in ounces per hour, and you
now know the number of hours that it will take the boat to complete the
trip. Multiply the number of total hours by the number of ounces needed
per hour: 58 × 2.5 = 145. Be careful—this isn’t the answer. Remember,
there are 3 people on board. This is the amount 1 person needs to
consume during the trip, so multiply by 3 to get 145 × 3 = 435 ounces.
926
4. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: If a  = 0, then one factor must be ( a  – 0), which
means x  = 0 is a root. This means the graph must cross through the
origin, so you can eliminate C and D right away.
Getting to the Answer: Look at the remaining two choices, (A) and B.
The question states that b  < 0. This means b is negative, which means
the other x-intercept must fall to the left of the y-axis, so (A) is correct.
Because this question is in the calculator section of the test, you could
also use the Picking Numbers strategy. Choose a value for b (that is less
than 0), such as –2, and graph the equation y  = ( x  – 0)( x  – (–2)) to see
what the graph looks like.
5. A
927
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to know the y-intercept to answer the
question, so don’t waste valuable time trying to find it. Instead, use the
labels on the axes to determine the meaning of the y-intercept.
Getting to the Answer: The y-intercept is the point at which x  = 0. In
this real-world scenario, the percent of people who are considered
inactive is graphed on the x-axis, so the y-intercept occurs when 0% of
the country is inactive. Now, look carefully at the way the answer
choices are worded. Choice (A) is correct because it says the entire
country is active, which is the same as saying 0% are inactive. Choice B
says the entire country is inactive, which means 100% is inactive (not
0% inactive).
6. C
928
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: In a real-world scenario, a one-time fee does not
depend on the variable and is therefore a constant. A unit rate, however,
is always multiplied by the independent variable.
Getting to the Answer: The total cost consists of the gallon of milk (a
constant), the per-pound cost of the apples (which depends on the
number of pounds), and the cost of the magazine (which is the only taxed
item). The constant in the equation is 4.49 and is, therefore, the cost of
the gallon of milk; 1.89 is being multiplied by p (the number of pounds),
so $1.89 must be the per-pound cost of the apples. That leaves the
remaining term, 1.07(3.99), which must be the cost of the magazine
($3.99) plus a 7% sales tax.
7. D
929
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Organize information as you read the question; the
total cost includes the labor cost, the cost of the materials, and the 5.5%
tax on the materials only.
Getting to the Answer: If the contractor works h hours, the labor cost
of the renovation is the per-hour rate ($40) multiplied by the number of
hours (h) or 40h. To this amount, add the $3,000 for materials, which
are taxed at a rate of 5.5% and should therefore be multiplied by 1.055.
The total cost is given by the equation c  = 40 h  + 1.055(3,000), which
is (D).
8. D
930
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: One equation should represent the total number of
frames, while the other equation should represent the revenue from the
frames.
Getting to the Answer: The number of custom frames c plus the
number of ready-made frames r equals the total number of frames sold,
92. Therefore, one equation is c  + r  = 92. This means you can
eliminate B and C. Now write the revenue equation: Revenue per
custom frame (30c) plus revenue per ready-made frame (12r) equals the
total amount collected (1,788). The revenue equation is 30 c  + 12 r  =
1,788. Don’t let A fool you. The question says nothing about the revenue
per day of the sale, so there is no reason to divide by 3. Choice (D) is
correct.
9. D
931
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The best way to answer this question is to pretend
you are a homebuyer. How much more per square foot would your house
cost in New York than Detroit? If the house was 1,500 square feet, how
much more would this be? If the house was 2,000 square feet, how much
more would this be?
Getting to the Answer: Based on the data in the table, a house would
cost $288.58 – $62.45 = $226.13 more per square foot in New York
than in Detroit. If the house was 1,500 square feet, it would cost
1,500(226.13) = $339,195 more. If the house was 2,000 square feet, it
would cost 2,000(226.13) = $452,260 more. So, the house would cost
somewhere between $339,195 and $452,260 more, which can be
expressed as the compound inequality 339,195 ≤ x  ≤ 452,260.
10. D
932
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Use the distributive property to simplify each of the
terms that contain parentheses. You don’t need to clear the fractions on
the right-hand side, because you can easily take half of 4n and half of
16. Once you arrive at the simplified equation, make sure you
understand what the result is telling you.
Getting to the Answer:
All of the variable terms cancel out, and the resulting numerical
statement is true (3 always equals 3), so there are infinitely many
solutions, or in other words, there are infinitely many values of n for
which the equation is true.
11. B
933
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics / Geometry
Strategic Advice: It will save valuable time on Test Day if you can
recognize the Pythagorean triple in this problem. If not, just use the
Pythagorean theorem to find the length of the expressway.
Getting to the Answer: The roads form a right triangle with the
expressway as the hypotenuse. The two legs are Max’s current route. He
travels on one road for 9 miles and the other for 40. You might recognize
this as a Pythagorean triple: 9, 40, 41. Even if you don’t, you can always
use the Pythagorean theorem to solve for the length of the hypotenuse.
Now that you know the length of the expressway, it’s time to analyze
what the question is actually asking.
The question asks how much gas he will save given that his car gets 20
miles per gallon. His current round-trip route is 2(9 + 40) = 2(49) = 98
934
miles, which will use 98 ÷ 20 = 4.9 gallons of gas per day, which is
equal to 5(4.9) = 24.5 gallons per workweek. The round-trip
expressway route is 2(41) = 82 miles, which will use 82 ÷ 20 = 4.1
gallons of gas per day, which is equal to 5(4.1) = 20.5 gallons per
workweek. Thus, he will save 24.5 – 20.5 = 4 gallons of gas per week
by taking the expressway.
12. C
935
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The mean of a set of numbers is the same as the
average, which is the sum of the numbers divided by the amount of
numbers.
Getting to the Answer: Use the graph to find the sum of the
unemployment rates over all 5 years: 9.8 + 9.2 + 8.3 + 8 + 6.6 = 41.9.
Now, divide by the number of years to calculate the mean: 41.9 ÷ 5 =
8.38. Read the axis labels carefully. The unemployment rate is given as
a percent, so write 8.38 as 0.0838. If there were 250,000 people in the
geographic area, then approximately 250,000 × 0.0838 = 20,950 people
were unemployed during the indicated time period.
13. C
936
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: To make the expression look more familiar, rewrite
the fraction exponent as a radical. Then, find the largest perfect square
for each factor and take its square root (which allows you to bring the
square roots outside the radical).
Getting to the Answer:
You could also use prime factorization and look for pairs of factors that
are the same in order to bring them outside the radical.
14. D
937
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: The average rate of change is the same as the slope
of the line of best fit. Look for two points that lie on the line (or as close
as possible to the line) and then find the slope using the slope formula,
 Pay careful attention to how the axes are labeled to make
sure you write the points accurately.
Getting to the Answer: Using the points (1, 3.5) and (1.75, 5.5), the
average rate of change is  or 
15. D
938
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Performing a regression on a graphing calculator (or
using computer software) tells you the approximate equation that could
be used to model the data and how well the model fits the data. The fit
is indicated by the correlation coefficient, r. The closer this number is to
1 (a 100% fit), the more accurately the model describes the data.
Getting to the Answer: You can eliminate A and C right away because
they do not involve the correlation coefficient, r. To choose between B
and (D), look at the value of r to find that 0.9181736 is slightly closer to
1 than 0.9048538. This means the exponential model is a slightly better
fit than the linear model.
16. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Taking the square root is the inverse operation of
squaring, and both sides of the equation are already perfect squares, so
939
take their square roots. Then solve the resulting equations. Remember,
there will be two equations to solve.
Getting to the Answer:
Now, simplify each equation:
and
17. C
940
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When you know the slope and one point on a line,
you can use y  = mx  + b  to write the equation. Substitute the slope for
m and the coordinates of the point for x and y. Then solve for b, which
gives you the y-intercept of the line.
Getting to the Answer: The slope is given as  so substitute this
for m. The point is given as (2, –1), so x  = 2 and y  = –1. Now, find b.
The y-intercept of the line is 4.
You could also very carefully graph the line using the given point and
the slope. Start at (2, –1) and move toward the y-axis by rising 5 and
running to the left 2 (because the slope is negative). You should land at
the point (0, 4).
941
18. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Find the percent increase using the formula,
 Then apply the same percent increase
to the 2010 CPI to find the expected value in 2030.
Getting to the Answer: The amount of increase is 218.1 – 130.7 =
87.4, so the percent increase is 87.4 ÷ 130.7 = 0.6687, or 66.87% over
20 years. If the total percent increase over the next 20 years is the same,
the CPI will be about 218.1 × 1.6687 = 363.9.
19. B
942
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Don’t answer this question too quickly—you may be
tempted to substitute  for x, but  is the output (range), not the
input (domain).
Getting to the Answer: The given range value is an output value, so
substitute  for f(x) and use inverse operations to solve for x, which
gives you the corresponding domain value. Start by multiplying the
equation by the greatest common multiple of 3 and 4, which is 12, in
order to clear the fractions.
943
20. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t spend too much time reading the scientific
explanation of the equation. Focus on the question at the very end—it’s
just asking you to solve the equation for m.
Getting to the Answer: First, square both sides of the equation to get m
out from under the radical. Then, divide both sides by 4π . Finally,
multiply both sides by k.
2
944
21. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: A good representative sample is not only random, but
also a good representation of the population in question. Here, the
population in question is parents of high school-age children.
Getting to the Answer: Not everyone with a cell phone is a parent of
high school-age children. For example, single and married people who
don’t have children are likely to make up at least a portion of the
random texts sent out by the polling company. This means that, despite
being randomly selected, the sample is unlikely to be a good
representative sample. (Note that D also sounds reasonable, but the
question asks for the best explanation that specifically addresses why
the sample is unlikely to be a good representative sample.)
22. B
Difficulty: Medium
945
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question, as in most rate
questions, guide you to the answer.
Getting to the Answer: The rate at which each machine can produce is
given per day, but the question asks about the number of shoelaces each
machine can produce in 8 minutes, so convert shoelaces per day to
shoelaces per minute and multiply by 8. Then find the difference.
Machine 1:
Machine 2:
The first machine can produce 200 – 160 = 40 more shoelaces in 8
minutes.
946
23. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Compare the differences in the two lines to the
statements in the answer choices. Pay careful attention to which line
represents each country.
Getting to the Answer: The lines both have different y-intercepts and
different slopes. The dashed line (Country B) starts lower and has a
more gradual slope, while the solid line (Country A) starts higher and
has a steeper slope. This means that, even though the incidence rate was
initially higher, Country A’s vaccine requirement had a greater impact on
the incidence rate than Country B’s free vaccines. You can also think
about it logically: The incidence rate in Country A started higher and
ended lower than in Country B, which means there was a greater change.
24. A
947
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This question has a lot of information, so break the
question into short steps. First, calculate the amount of time the
professor will spend in office hours. Then, determine how many
questions he can grade in that time, paying careful attention to units as
you go.
Getting to the Answer: Start by finding the time between classes.
There are 3 hours and 45 minutes between classes. Now, subtract 10
minutes (5 minutes each way) for walking to and from the classroom,
which leaves 3 hours and 35 minutes. Next, subtract the hour the
professor takes for lunch, leaving 2 hours and 35 minutes, to grade
papers. Now comes the tricky part. The question gives you the rate at
which he can grade papers per second, so you need to convert the hours
and minutes to seconds. There are 60 minutes in 1 hour, so 2 hours and
35 minutes is 155 minutes. There are 60 seconds in 1 minute, so the
number of seconds the professor has to grade papers is 9,300. Now
divide this by 4 to see how many questions he can grade: 2,325. The
question asks how many complete tests he can grade, and there are 50
948
questions per test, so divide by 50 to get 46.5, which means he can
completely grade 46 tests (he doesn’t have time to finish the 47th test).
25. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: The trick to answering a question like this is figuring
out what accounts for the difference in the prices.
Getting to the Answer: In each case, the examination and the frames
are the same; the difference in the cost must be due to the difference in
the cost of the lenses. Because tinted lenses cost three times as much as
clear lenses, the difference in cost must be twice the cost of the clear
lenses.
The difference in cost is $197 – $125 = $72. Because this is twice the
cost of the clear lenses, the clear lenses must cost $72 ÷ 2 = $36.
949
26. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Whenever a question involves a two-way table, read
carefully to see which rows and/or columns you need to focus on. Here,
the politician is only targeting registered voters for the town hall
meeting, so focus on the “Yes” row in the table.
Getting to the Answer: The question asks for the probability that the
registered voter chosen will not view the senator unfavorably. This
means the voter’s view is either neutral or favorable, so look at
columns 3, 4, and 5. Add the numbers together to get 228 + 487 + 163 =
878. The probability that you’re looking for is the quotient of this
number divided by the total number of registered voters: 878 ÷ 1,094 =
0.8025, or approximately 80.3%.
27. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics / Geometry
950
Strategic Advice: Don’t forget to refer to the formula page on Test Day.
The can is a cylinder and a tennis ball is a sphere, so you’ll need to use
both equations.
Getting to the Answer: Make a plan before you start plugging values
into the formulas: The volume of the air is equal to the volume of the can
minus the volume of the three tennis balls. For both formulas, you will
need the radius. The diameters of the cylinder and the balls are the
same, 2.6, but you need the radius, so divide by 2 to get 2.6 ÷ 2 = 1.3.
For the cylinder you also need the height. Because there are 3 tennis
balls and the top and bottom balls are tangent to the top and bottom of
the can, the height is simply the diameter multiplied by 3, which is 2.6 ×
3 = 7.8. Now you’re ready to use the formulas. A quick peek at the
answer choices will tell you that you don’t need to simplify completely.
First, find the volume of the whole can:
Next, find the volume of three tennis balls:
951
Finally, subtract to get 13.182π – 8.788π = 4.394π, or about 4.4π cubic
inches of air.
28. B
952
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: None of the variables in the equation has an exponent
greater than 1, so the equation is linear. Most of what we know about
lines revolves around slope and y-intercepts, so start by rearranging the
equation to look like y  = mx  + b .
Getting to the Answer:
Once rewritten, you have a linear equation with a slope of  and a y-
intercept of  It is given in the question that –1 < h  < 0 (or a
negative fraction greater than –1), so the quantity h  + 1 is positive and
the quantity 1 – h  is also positive, resulting in a positive slope and a
negative y-intercept. Only (B) satisfies these conditions.
953
29. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question guide you to the correct
answer. Set up unit conversions so that the units you don’t want will
cancel out. Your goal is to find the density of the piece of granite so you
can compare it to the density of Earth’s inner core. You don’t need a
definition of density—you can see from the units that you need to
convert to g/cm , which tells you to divide the weight of the granite by
the volume.
Getting to the Answer: You’re not given a conversion from feet to
centimeters or pounds to grams, so you’ll need to convert 168 pounds
per cubic foot to ounces per cubic inch, and then to grams per cubic
centimeter. Try not to round too much as you work—rather, wait until the
very end if possible.
3
954
But wait—that’s not the final answer. Subtract this amount from 12.8 to
find that Earth’s inner core is 12.8 – 2.7 = 10.1 g/cm  denser than the
piece of granite.
3
30. A
955
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Simplifying a complex rational expression requires
planning and patience. Here, you need to write the denominator of the
big expression as a single fraction, and then you can simply “flip it” to
adjust for the “1 over.”
Getting to the Answer: Start by writing  as a single term.
To do this, find the common denominator and write each piece of the
sum in terms of that denominator. The common denominator is R R .
But remember, this fraction is the denominator under 1, so you need to
write the reciprocal (flip it); the correct expression is 
1 2
956
31. 2030
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Some questions require both mathematical
calculations and logic. Think carefully before you grid in your answer to
any question that asks, “In what year…?”
Getting to the Answer: You want the cropland to be below, or less
than 800, so set up and solve an inequality:
Here’s the tricky part—should you round? To decide, plug 19 and 20,
one at a time, into the original equation and simplify:
When t  = 19, f  = –3.7(19) + 872 = 801.7, which is not below 800.
This means t  = 20, but be careful—that is not the answer! The question
states that t represents the number of years after 2010, so the correct
answer is 2010 + 20 = 2030.
957
32. 36
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: When evaluating a function, substitute the value
inside the parentheses for x in the equation.
Getting to the Answer: Evaluate the function at x  = 5 and at x  = –1.
Then subtract the second output from the first. Note that this is not the
same as first subtracting 5 – (–1) and then evaluating the function at x  =
6.
33. 540
958
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Work through this question one step at a time. Start
by using the sample survey to find the percentage of farmers who are not
satisfied with their current supply company.
Getting to the Answer: According to the sample survey,  (or
60%) of the farmers are not satisfied with their current supply company.
Multiply the total number of farms in the population (the three counties)
to find that 1,200 × 0.6 = 720 farmers are not satisfied. The company is
confident that it can acquire 75% of these customers, or 720 × 0.75 =
540 customers.
34. 2
959
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: Because  rewrite each number under the
radical as a product of –1 and itself. Then take the square root of each.
If possible, cancel any factors that are common to the numerator and the
denominator.
Getting to the Answer:
35. 85
Difficulty: Medium
960
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Write a system of equations with r = the cost of the
regional competitor’s stock in thousands of dollars (so you don’t have to
deal with all the zeros) and n = the cost of the national competitor’s
stock in thousands of dollars. Before entering your final answer, check
that you answered the right question (how much more the national
competitor’s stock cost).
Getting to the Answer: Translate English into math to write the two
equations: The regional competitor’s stock cost 25 thousand dollars less
than half as much as the national competitor’s stock, so 
Together, both stock acquisitions cost 155 thousand dollars, so r  + n  =
155.
The system of equations is:
The bottom equation is already solved for r, so substitute 
into the top equation for r and solve for n. To make the numbers easier
to work with, multiply each term by 2 to clear the fractions:
961
The national competitor’s stock cost 120 thousand dollars, so the
regional competitor’s cost (120 ÷ 2) – 25 = 60 – 25 = 35 thousand
dollars. This means the national competitor’s stock cost 120 – 35 = 85
thousand dollars more than the regional competitor’s stock.
36. 12.4
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units. You need to convert
the length of the whole bridge to feet and then set up and solve a
proportion.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t need to convert all of the dimensions
to inches, even though the answer asks for inches. The ratio will be the
same. But you do need to convert the length of the bridge, given in miles,
962
to feet, because the length of the longest piece of the bridge is given in
feet: 1.63 miles × 5,280 feet = 8,606.4 feet. Now, set up a proportion
and solve for the unknown. Use words first to help you keep the
dimensions in the right places:
The length of the longest piece in the drawing should be 12.4 inches
long.
37. .49
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Identify the parts of the bar graph that you will need
to answer this question. You need to find a probability, which is always
given by the number of favorable outcomes (willing to wait at least 30
963
minutes) divided by the total number of outcomes (all the responses to
the survey).
Getting to the Answer: First, total the number of customers willing to
wait 30 minutes or more. Be careful—the question doesn’t specify
Friday or Saturday, so use both days:
38 + 45 + 33 + 43 + 20 + 40 + 9 + 17 = 245
Now, find the total number of people who responded to the survey. You
don’t need to start over—just add the previous sum to the number of
people willing to wait less than 30 minutes:
245 + 70 + 75 + 46 + 64 = 500
This means the probability that someone will be willing to wait more
than 30 minutes is  This fraction won’t fit in the answer
grid, so enter your answer as a decimal, .49.
38. 1
Difficulty: Hard
964
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Think about what the bar graph shows: times
customers are willing to wait on Friday and Saturday. The question asks
on average how much longer customers are willing to wait. So, you
will need to find a weighted average for each day.
Getting to the Answer: Start with Friday. Multiply each wait time by
the height of the bar (the number of people willing to wait for that
amount of time on that night):
Next, add the results to get 6,050, and then divide by the total number of
people who took the Friday survey (70 + 46 + 38 + 33 + 20 + 9 = 216):
6,050 ÷ 216 = 28.0 minutes. This is the average amount of time people
are willing to wait for a table on Friday night. Now, do the same thing
for Saturday.
965
Add the results, 8,320, and divide by the number of people (75 + 64 +
45 + 43 + 40 + 17 = 284) to get 8,320 ÷ 284 = 29.3 minutes. So, people
are willing to wait 29.3 − 28.0 = 1.3 minutes longer on Saturday than
Friday. Don’t forget to follow directions—1.3 rounded to the nearest
whole minute is 1 minute.
966
SAT PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text.
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
967
3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task.
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors.
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
968
2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task.
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors.
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
969
1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text.
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in certain errors that detract
from the quality of the writing.
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text.
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
970
Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
President Johnson is speaking to Americans during a time of great
struggle involving national identity. The question posed is whether
“American” is a designation to include all people equally, or a privilege
reserved for white Americans only. Using evidence, emotional appeals,
precisely chosen words, and a tone of reason, Johnson argues for the
immediate expansion of voting rights to all citizens. The well-crafted
construction of this speech enhances the persuasiveness of the argument.
In his speech, Johnson uses language and emotional appeals to address
all Americans, making them feel unified in the common goal that the
nation should deliver on the promise of its founding. He uses the
pronouns “us” and “we” repeatedly. This is a deliberate choice
designed to make his audience feel included in a grand project that will
make the country a fair and just place. Johnson is addressing his fellow
Americans directly, so if they reject this challenge, they are not simply
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in numerous errors that
undermine the quality of the writing.
971
ignoring the problem of injustice. Instead, they would be personally
refusing to solve it.
In addition, Johnson uses personalized language to present the evidence
for his case, which leads the audience, whatever their ethnic
background, to sympathize with the victims of racial discrimination. He
describes the specific details of how people are denied the right to vote
by using a fictional African American citizen who must endure these
insults. “He” must fill out paperwork (if he is lucky enough to be
allowed to do so), and then must pass a ludicrous and unreasonable test,
such as reciting the entire Constitution. Johnson could have simply listed
what had to be changed by saying, for instance, “literacy tests are
unfair.” Instead, by personalizing the experience of injustice, Johnson
makes his audience understand the way that injustice builds over time to
produce humiliation and defeat.
The structure of Johnson’s speech is powerful. It begins with a bold
proclamation designed to capture the audience’s attention; its subject is
nothing less than “the dignity of man and the destiny of democracy.”
How could the audience not want to listen? He then proceeds to lay out
the problem. Voting rights are denied to African Americans. This is a
threat to democracy itself, Johnson argues. He goes on to argue point by
point how “emancipation is a proclamation and not a fact.” He
enumerates each way black voters are denied their rights, backing up his
972
argument with specific details. In this way, he builds an argument that
drastic measures must be taken immediately to ensure all people can
vote.
Johnson’s speech is also powerful because his reasonable tone makes
his a credible voice. He does not speak down to anyone in his audience,
even those who might be inclined to disagree with him. Instead, he uses
reason to make his argument seem obvious and sensible. He identifies
the challenges that face the nation. He is not naive about the difficulties
of race relations. He even reassures those who struggle with the debates
of civil rights that he understands how challenging they are. He gains
substantial credibility by noting that he himself is from the South and
knows personally “how agonizing racial feelings are.” As someone who
shares their background but still feels the law must be changed, Johnson
comes across not as a patronizing radical, but as a reasonable person
not unlike them, who might be able to persuade them to change their
minds.
Through the language, structure, and tone of his speech, Johnson stresses
inclusivity: not only the extension of voting rights to all people, but the
responsibility of all of “us” to ensure that it happens. Without a voting
system free of racism, he argues, nothing else in our democracy matters.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
973
President Johnson’s speech was made during a time when the nation
debated whether all citizens should be able to vote. Johnson believed
that they should. He also believed that African Americans were being
illegally denied their voting rights and that laws should be passed to
make sure everyone could vote. Johnson’s speech persuades the
audience that this is true through his use of evidence, reasoning, and
style.
Johnson’s use of evidence makes it clear that the injustice taking place is
obvious. He uses real examples and explains why the situation cannot be
allowed to continue. He has answers for those who might ask, “But why
is the situation so bad?” He can point to specific ways in which it is
bad. In short, he has clearly thought through his ideas and can persuade
people who disagree with him.
Johnson’s reasoning is related to the Constitution. The United States is a
democracy, and it is legally and morally right that citizens can vote. But
even though the Emancipation Proclamation was signed a hundred years
before, many African Americans still could not vote, for the reasons
Johnson lists. The system legally allows people to prevent others from
voting, but it is their right. This is why Johnson argues that things must
change.
974
Johnson’s language is about justice and a sense of belonging to a nation.
He uses words like “us” and “we” a lot. This suggests that people in the
audience are supposed to feel responsibility for the current situation.
They cannot ignore it. In fact, he says, even if the United States
accomplishes great things, if they do not get voting rights right, “we will
have failed as a people and as a nation.”
In conclusion, any intelligent person listening to Johnson’s speech would
be persuaded by his reasoning, evidence, and language that even though
slaves were freed many years before, the system was still racist and
needed to change. They would surely have supported Johnson’s idea that
laws should be written in order to make the system fair.
975
SAT Practice Test 4 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
976
977
978
979
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
My Ántonia
980
The following passage is adapted from Willa Cather’s 1918 novel My
Ántonia. In this excerpt, the boy narrator, Jim Burden, has traveled from
Virginia to his grandparents’ Nebraska farm to spend the rest of his
childhood there. On his first Nebraska morning, he goes outdoors to
observe the landscape.
As I looked about me I felt that the grass was the
country, as the water is the sea. The red of the grass
made all the great prairie the colour of winestains,
or of certain seaweeds when they are first washed
up. And there was so much motion in it; the whole(5)
country seemed, somehow, to be running.
I had almost forgotten that I had a grandmother,
when she came out, her sunbonnet on her head, a
grain-sack in her hand, and asked me if I did not
want to go to the garden with her to dig potatoes(10)
for dinner.…
I can remember exactly how the country looked
to me as I walked beside my grandmother along the
faint wagon-tracks on that early September morning.
Perhaps the glide of long railway travel was still(15)
with me, for more than anything else I felt motion
in the landscape; in the fresh, easy-blowing morn-
ing wind, and in the earth itself, as if the shaggy
grass were a sort of loose hide, and underneath it
981
herds of wild buffalo were galloping, galloping.…(20)
Alone, I should never have found the garden—
except, perhaps, for the big yellow pumpkins that
lay about unprotected by their withering vines—
and I felt very little interest in it when I got there.
I wanted to walk straight on through the red grass(25)
and over the edge of the world, which could not be
very far away. The light air about me told me that
the world ended here: only the ground and sun and
sky were left, and if one went a little farther there
would be only sun and sky, and one would float(30)
off into them, like the tawny hawks which sailed
over our heads making slow shadows on the grass.
While grandmother took the pitchfork we found
standing in one of the rows and dug potatoes, while
I picked them up out of the soft brown earth and(35)
put them into the bag, I kept looking up at the
hawks that were doing what I might so easily do.
When grandmother was ready to go, I said I
would like to stay up there in the garden awhile.
She peered down at me from under her(40)
sunbonnet. “Aren’t you afraid of snakes?”
“A little,” I admitted, “but I’d like to stay, anyhow.” …
Grandmother swung the bag of potatoes over
her shoulder and went down the path, leaning
982
forward a little. The road followed the windings(45)
of the draw; when she came to the first bend, she
waved at me and disappeared. I was left alone with
this new feeling of lightness and content.
I sat down in the middle of the garden, where
snakes could scarcely approach unseen, and leaned(50)
my back against a warm yellow pumpkin. There
were some ground-cherry bushes growing along
the furrows, full of fruit. I turned back the papery
triangular sheaths that protected the berries and
ate a few. All about me giant grasshoppers, twice(55)
as big as any I had ever seen, were doing acrobatic
feats among the dried vines. The gophers scur-
ried up and down the ploughed ground. There in
the sheltered draw-bottom the wind did not blow
very hard, but I could hear it singing its humming(60)
tune up on the level, and I could see the tall grasses
wave. The earth was warm under me, and warm
as I crumbled it through my fingers. Queer little
red bugs came out and moved in slow squadrons
around me. Their backs were polished vermilion,(65)
with black spots. I kept as still as I could. Nothing
happened. I did not expect anything to happen.
I was something that lay under the sun and felt
it, like the pumpkins, and I did not want to be
983
anything more. I was entirely happy. Perhaps we(70)
feel like that when we die and become a part of
something entire, whether it is sun and air, or
goodness and knowledge. At any rate, that is happi-
ness; to be dissolved into something complete and
great. When it comes to one, it comes as naturally(75)
as sleep.
1. According to the passage, why is Jim’s grandmother initially concerned
about leaving him in the garden?
Jim doesn’t know the way back home.(A)
She is worried he will encounter snakes.(B)
A bad storm is brewing on the horizon.(C)
She hoped Jim would help her cook dinner.(D)
2. As used in line 50, “scarcely” most nearly means
not easily.(A)
rapidly.(B)
with fear.(C)
narrowly.(D)
984
3. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of the prairie?
It reminds Jim of the landscape back in his native Virginia.(A)
The snakes and coyotes make the prairie a dangerous place.(B)
Growing crops on the prairie is extremely difficult for farmers.(C)
It is very easy to get lost because there are few landmarks.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-2 (“As I looked … sea”)(A)
Lines 21-24 (“Alone … there”)(B)
Lines 45-47 (“The road … disappeared”)(C)
Lines 49-51 (“I sat … pumpkin”)(D)
5. What theme does the author communicate through the thoughts and
experiences of Jim?
985
Confronting fears allows a person to move forward in life.(A)
Nature, though beautiful, can present many hidden dangers.(B)
Family relationships can help a person adjust to new places.(C)
A natural setting can have a transforming effect on a person.(D)
6. Jim’s thoughts during his first morning in Nebraska suggest that his
personality could best be described as
aggressive.(A)
introspective.(B)
regretful.(C)
ambivalent.(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 7-11 (“I had … for dinner”)(A)
Lines 12-15 (“I can … morning”)(B)
Lines 38-51 (“When grandmother … pumpkin”)(C)
Lines 70-73 (“Perhaps we … knowledge”)(D)
986
8. As used in line 74, “dissolved” most nearly means
assimilated.(A)
destroyed.(B)
disintegrated.(C)
terminated.(D)
9. The author’s repetition of “galloping” in line 20 is to
convey how fast the wind moved against the grass.(A)
make the Nebraska landscape seem like a dream.(B)
emphasize the recurrent motion of the landscape.(C)
compare wild buffalo to wild horses on the prairie.(D)
10. Through the perspective of a first-person narrator, the author is able to
focus attention on the main character rather than on his grandmother.(A)
limit what we learn about the main character.(B)
describe in detail the thoughts and experiences of the main character.(C)
distance herself from her main character.(D)
987
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Bohr Letter
The following passage is adapted from an open letter to the United
Nations, written by Danish physicist and Nobel Prize winner Niels Bohr.
Bohr completed important work on atomic structure long before World
War II. After fleeing Denmark to escape the Nazis, he eventually went to
work with the British as an adviser to U.S. scientists developing the first
atomic bomb. The atomic bomb was then used to bring an end to World
War II.
I address myself to the organization, founded
for the purpose to further co-operation between
nations.…
The fear of being left behind was a strong
incentive in various countries to explore, in secrecy,(5)
the possibilities of using such energy sources for
military purposes. The joint American-British
project remained unknown to me until, after my
escape from occupied Denmark in the autumn of
1943, I came to England at the invitation of the(10)
British government. At that time I was taken into
confidence about the great enterprise which had
988
already then reached an advanced stage.
Everyone associated with the atomic energy
project was, of course, conscious of the serious(15)
problems which would confront humanity once the
enterprise was accomplished.…
It certainly surpasses the imagination of anyone
to survey the consequences of the project in years
to come, where in the long run the enormous ener-(20)
gy sources which will be available may be expected
to revolutionize industry and transport. The fact
of immediate preponderance is, however, that a
weapon of an unparalleled power is being created
which will completely change all future conditions(25)
of warfare.
This situation raises a number of problems
which call for most urgent attention. Unless,
indeed, some agreement about the control of the
use of the new active materials can be obtained in(30)
due time, any temporary advantage, however great,
may be outweighed by a perpetual menace to
human security.
When the war ended and the great menaces of
oppression to so many peoples had disappeared,(35)
an immense relief was felt all over the world.
Nevertheless, the political situation was fraught
989
with ominous forebodings. Divergences in outlook
between the victorious nations inevitably aggravat-
ed controversial matters arising in connection with(40)
peace settlements. Contrary to the hopes for future
fruitful co-operation, expressed from all sides and
embodied in the Charter of the United Nations, the
lack of mutual confidence soon became evident.
The creation of new barriers, restricting the free(45)
flow of information between countries, further
increased distrust and anxiety.…
The very fact that knowledge is in itself the
basis for civilization points directly to openness as
the way to overcome the present crisis. Whatever(50)
judicial and administrative international authori-
ties may eventually have to be created in order to
stabilize world affairs, it must be realized that full
mutual openness, only, can effectively promote
confidence and guarantee common security.(55)
Any widening of the borders of our knowledge
imposes an increased responsibility on individuals
and nations through the possibilities it gives for
shaping the conditions of human life. The forceful
admonition in this respect which we have received(60)
in our time cannot be left unheeded and should
hardly fail in resulting in common understanding
990
of the seriousness of the challenge with which our
whole civilization is faced. It is just on this back-
ground that quite unique opportunities exist to-day(65)
for furthering co-operation between nations on the
progress of human culture in all its aspects.
11. What is the most likely intended purpose of this letter?
To discuss the implications of the military use of atomic energy(A)
To explore the industrial potential of atomic energy development(B)
To compare the shared atomic energy goals of members of the United
Nations
(C)
To clarify the role of the United Nations in overseeing atomic energy
use
(D)
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 7-11 (“The joint … government”)(A)
Lines 11-13 (“At that time … stage”)(B)
Lines 14-17 (“Everyone … accomplished”)(C)
Lines 18-22 (“It certainly … transport”)(D)
991
13. As used in line 23, “preponderance” most nearly means
eminence.(A)
importance.(B)
majority.(C)
prestige.(D)
14. The passage most clearly suggests that Bohr’s work before World War
II
began as a nonmilitary pursuit.(A)
led to the outbreak of the war.(B)
resulted from industrialization.(C)
undermined efforts to reach peace.(D)
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 4-7 (“The fear … purposes”)(A)
Lines 7-11 (“The joint … government”)(B)
Lines 22-26 (“The fact of … warfare”)(C)
Lines 27-28 (“This situation … attention”)(D)
992
16. As used in line 38, “divergences” most nearly means
differences.(A)
misinterpretations.(B)
perspectives.(C)
rebellions.(D)
17. What does Bohr claim happened after World War II “contrary to the
hopes for fruitful cooperation” (lines 41-42)?
Countries decided to form the United Nations.(A)
Knowledge became the driving force behind civilization.(B)
Trust among nations declined because of political disagreements.(C)
New judicial and administrative authorities were established.(D)
18. The reference to knowledge in lines 48-50 (“The very fact … present
crisis”) primarily serves to
explain the important uses of atomic energy.(A)
highlight the role of learning in societal progress.(B)
posit the benefits of regulating scientific investigation.(C)
justify the need for transparency among nations.(D)
993
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Evolution of Computers Passage
19. The author’s position in the concluding paragraphs suggests that he
would most likely support international
laws restricting the testing of nuclear bombs.(A)
monitoring of countries’ nuclear technologies.(B)
regulation of nuclear power plants and materials.(C)
sanctions on nations with nuclear weapons.(D)
20. Lines 59-64 (“The forceful admonition … is faced”) primarily serves
to
emphasize the significance of the author’s purpose.(A)
explain the author’s credentials regarding the subject.(B)
offer evidence for a contrary point of view.(C)
summarize the author’s arguments and evidence.(D)
If you had to count every person who lived in
994
the United States, and there were no calculators
and no computers of any kind to help you, how
would you do it?
That’s the puzzle that nineteen-year-old engi-(5)
neer Herman Hollerith was faced with in the 1880s
when he was employed by the U.S. Census Bureau.
His solution was to invent a machine that stored
information by putting patterns of holes in stiff
pasteboard—an idea that Hollerith struck upon by(10)
observing the Jacquard loom, an automatic weav-
ing machine that was controlled by specially coded
punch cards. The machine, called the Hollerith
tabulating machine and sorting box, was used
to record the 1890 population census and short-(15)
ened what had been a seven-year job to just three
months.
Because Hollerith’s machine used mechanical
counters operated by electromagnets and circuits, it
is considered the very first computer. Go anywhere(20)
today—a grocery store, an office, a school—and
you see one of its many descendants, such as the
calculator, personal computer, iPad, and smart-
phone. Though Hollerith retired to work at a cattle
farm in Maryland, in 1924 the company he founded(25)
was renamed International Business Machines
995
Data Storage
(IBM), which is still one of the largest technology
corporations in the world.
As a data storage medium, Hollerith’s inven-
tion was revolutionary, but one problem with it(30)
was the physical size and quantities of cards, each
punch card holding only 960 bits of information.
Many types of companies needed to hold more
data in a smaller space. A big leap was made in the
1950s with the invention of magnetic tape, which(35)
consisted of long strips of plastic with a magnetized
coating that could store as much data as 10,000
punch cards. A single reel was about the size of a
dinner plate, and could be read from and written
to rapidly. In 1963, Philips introduced magnetized(40)
tape in a small cassette, which became a popular
choice for businesses to store data using computers.
Nevertheless, tapes were still cumbersome, and
they would degrade over time. Then came the hard
drive. IBM made one of the first, in 1956, called(45)
305 RAMAC. It was bigger than a refrigerator and
contained fifty discs, each two feet in diameter. The
305 RAMAC could store 4.4 megabytes of data.
By comparison, at about the size of a wallet, three
996
Microprocessors
floppy discs, a popular medium from the 1980s and(50)
1990s, held the same amount of information.
Hard drives have been constantly improving
ever since, getting smaller, faster, and more energy-
efficient. With the invention of the flash drive
and the micro-SD card, our information storage(55)
platforms are almost too small to handle with our
bare hands.
Over the years, the price of data storage space
has decreased exponentially. In 1984, a 5-megabyte
drive cost $1,400, or $280 per megabyte. Within(60)
five years, this was cut in half, and since then, the
popularity of personal computers for home and
business has driven the price even lower. In 2010,
the cost per megabyte was less than ten cents.
The microprocessor, or Central Processing Unit(65)
(CPU), is the brain inside every computer,
tablet, and smartphone. It’s a silicon semiconductor
chip that contains the basic logic and arithmetic
functions that the device needs in order to run.
The CPU receives and decodes instructions from(70)
keyboards, touch screens, and Wi-Fi adapters and
sends signals out in a timed sequence to devices
997
such as monitors, printers, and networks.
The first microprocessor was devised in 1971
and called the Intel 4004. Measuring just 1/8″ by(75)
1/16″, it was as powerful as the electronic computer
of 25 years prior, which weighed 30 tons and used
18,000 vacuum tubes. It was said about that com-
puter that the lights of Philadelphia dimmed when
it was turned on.(80)
And yet, as fast as the 4004 Intel was, today’s
CPUs are thousands of times faster. One way that
chips get faster is by the addition of more, and
smaller, transistors. Though the Intel 4004 proces-
sor held 2,300 transistors, a typical Intel processor(85)
today, with a 32-nanometer processing die, holds
560,000,000 transistors. (One nanometer equals
one-billionth of a meter.)
Manufacturers of microprocessors also speed up
chips by making circuits smaller; when the circuits(90)
are more compact, the microprocessors become
faster because electrons have less distance to travel.
As chips get smaller, more of them can be etched
onto the same diameter silicon wafer by improved
fabrication equipment. Consequently, computers(95)
that used to require warehouses now fit in the palm
of our hands.
998
21. The stance that the author takes in this passage is most similar to that of
999
a computer industry spokesperson explaining why innovation is good
for the economy.
(A)
a consumer advocate explaining why the price of computers
continues to fall.
(B)
a columnist outlining the evolution of computer speed and storage
over time.
(C)
an efficiency expert discussing how the Census Bureau can improve
its performance.
(D)
22. Based on the first three paragraphs, what claim is the author making
about Hollerith’s invention?
The invention of the Jacquard loom was inspired by the success of
Hollerith’s machine.
(A)
Subsequent technological innovations were based on Hollerith’s
original design.
(B)
The success of the 1890 census propelled IBM to the forefront of the
computer industry.
(C)
Hollerith’s mechanical counters continued to be used years after
their original debut.
(D)
1000
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 13-17 (“The machine … three months”)(A)
Lines 18-20 (“Because Hollerith’s … computer”)(B)
Lines 20-24 (“Go anywhere … smartphone”)(C)
Lines 24-28 (“Though Hollerith … world”)(D)
24. As used in line 43, “cumbersome” most nearly means
awkward.(A)
bulky.(B)
heavy.(C)
ponderous.(D)
25. The author poses a rhetorical question at the beginning of the passage
primarily to help readers
understand the enormity of Hollerith’s initial task.(A)
relive the bygone era in which Hollerith lived.(B)
appreciate the job of the U.S. Census Bureau.(C)
acknowledge how important computers are.(D)
1001
26. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
The 1980s saw the most significant innovations in the history of
personal computing.
(A)
The price of data storage space has risen due to consumer demand
for personal computers.
(B)
Continued innovation in data storage devices has resulted in
increased value for consumers.
(C)
Computer industry profits have fallen as a result of decreased costs
related to data storage.
(D)
27. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 54-57 (“With the … hands”)(A)
Lines 59-60 (“In 1984 … megabyte”)(B)
Lines 60-63 (“Within five … lower”)(C)
Lines 63-64 (“In 2010 … ten cents”)(D)
28. What explicit meaning may correctly be drawn from the data in the
graphic?
1002
The most significant decrease in microchip transistor sizes occurred
between 2000 and 2008.
(A)
The decline in microchip transistor sizes will most likely level out
after the year 2020.
(B)
Microchip transistor sizes are expected to increase to approximately
10 nanometers by the year 2020.
(C)
The difference in microchip transistor sizes from 2004 and 2012 is
40 nanometers.
(D)
29. As used in line 44, “degrade” most nearly means
corrupt.(A)
decay.(B)
humiliate.(C)
lower.(D)
30. In line 79, the author most likely refers to the fact that a computer in the
1940s dimmed the lights of Philadelphia to demonstrate the relationship
between
1003
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passages.
Paired Passages—Solar Farming
Passage 1
the size of the Intel 4004 and of its predecessor.(A)
the speed of contemporary CPUs and of the Intel 4004.(B)
the manufacturing process in the 1970s and that of today.(C)
the number of transistors in the Intel 4004 and in CPUs today.(D)
31. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage and graphic that
Herman Hollerith’s ideas influenced contemporary computers and
other devices.
(A)
The price of data storage space has fallen in the face of continual
consumer demand.
(B)
Increased consumer demand corresponds to a decrease in transistor
sizes in the 2000s.
(C)
Smaller transistors have exponentially increased the processing
speed of today’s CPUs.
(D)
1004
The largest solar farm in the world, known as
Topaz, opened in late 2014. The plant, which cost
$2.5 billion dollars to build, generates a whopping
550 megawatts of power. To put this number into
perspective, this amount of power will be used to(5)
supply 160,000 homes. This switch from fossil fuels
to solar power will save the environment exposure
to approximately 377,000 tons of carbon dioxide
emissions per year, which is the equivalent of
retiring 73,000 cars.(10)
The benefits of constructing such a large-scale
solar farm are not only environmental. There
are also significant economic benefits. Over 400
construction jobs were added to the area during
the construction phase. $192 million in income(15)
was pumped into the local economy as a result.
Economic benefits haven’t stopped since the plant
opened. Local energy suppliers are now able to
enjoy $52 million in economic output.
Located in San Luis Obispo County in(20)
California, the area where Topaz was built is part
of California’s Carrizo Plain. The plain is an area
of native grassland northwest of Los Angeles. The
land on which the plant sits was used as farmland
in the past. Because of this, no new land distur-(25)
1005
bance was required in order to complete this large
project. The land was no longer suitable for farming
due to irrigation practices that stripped the soil
of its nutrients. The 4,700 private acres provided
the perfect setting for a solar plant, meeting the(30)
developer’s standards for low-impact development,
which was a priority considering the site’s proxim-
ity to the Carrizo Plain National Monument, a
protected area home to native species and plants.
The plant’s setup includes 460 panels mounted(35)
on steel support posts. The sunlight taken in by
these panels is fed to a power conversion stations.
Each panel has its own conversion station. Made up
of two inverters and a transformer, the conversion
stations are needed to make the power usable. The(40)
power is then sent to a substation that transforms
it from 35.5 kilovolts to the standard 230 kilovolts.
The Pacific Gas and Electric Company (PG&E)
built a new switching station next to the solar farm.
It is here that the power is looped into the grid that(45)
supplies neighboring areas.
Topaz will only remain the world’s largest solar
farm for a short period of time. The plant’s owner,
First Solar, is currently developing an even larger
plant, also in California.(50)
1006
Passage 2
With more and more large-scale solar farms
being developed in the sunny southwestern United
States, researchers and conservationists alike are
beginning to notice surprising environmental
effects. While solar energy is known for its positive(55)
environmental impacts, officials at the National Fish
and Wildlife Forensics Laboratory have come to rec-
ognize one of its significant downsides: Some spe-
cies of birds that live in close proximity to large solar
plants are dying off, including endangered birds.(60)
A recent federal investigation recovered
233 birds that had been killed as a direct result of
solar plants. Researchers believe that some of the
affected birds have mistaken the large, reflective
areas of the solar panels for bodies of water. This(65)
is a phenomenon referred to by scientists as “lake
effect.” The birds are drawn to what they assume to
be water. They home in on the area and slam into
the panels with great force. It is thought that
the insects that birds eat fall victim to “lake effect”(70)
as well, leading the birds into the panels.
Researchers estimate that between 1,000 and
28,000 birds are killed as a result of harvesting
solar energy. The number of birds affected by
1007
wind farming is much greater, ranging from(75)
140,000 to 328,000. Coal-fired electricity has the larg-
est negative effect on birds, killing nearly 8 million
a year. These numbers make solar farming seem
like the best option. However, conservationists
are quick to point out that the areas where solar is(80)
expected to boom between 2015 and 2020 are home
to some of the rarest birds in the United States. This
could put specific bird species at risk of extinction.
There exists a state mandate in California that
20 percent of all electricity sold must be renew-(85)
able by the year 2017. This has been one driving
force behind the rapid development of huge solar
farms. The industry, which is expecting to boom as
a result of this shift to renewable energy, is facing
newly filed lawsuits by conservationist groups,(90)
citing the negative impact on wildlife. These
lawsuits could prolong the approval process for the
planned solar developments across the Southwest.
32. The central idea of Passage 1 is that solar farms
1008
are an accepted form of generating energy because of their benefits.(A)
were first thought impractical ways to generate energy.(B)
help to improve the environment.(C)
need large amounts of land to be developed.(D)
33. In Passage 2, which choice best reflects the author’s viewpoint?
Using solar farms is the most viable way to create energy.(A)
More birds are endangered by wind farms than solar farming.(B)
Solar farms may not be as friendly to the environment as many
people believe.
(C)
Scientists need to find ways to discourage “lake effect” caused by
solar farms.
(D)
34. Passage 1 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
Solar farms will most likely only be built in the state of California.(A)
The developer of Topaz is respectful of the environment.(B)
Not many studies have been done on the impact of solar farms on the
environment.
(C)
The consumption of energy continues to grow greater each year.(D)
1009
35. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 6-10 (“This switch … cars”)(A)
Lines 13-15 (“Over 400 … phase”)(B)
Lines 29-34 (“The 4,700 … and plants”)(C)
Lines 47-48 (“Topaz will … of time”)(D)
36. Passage 2 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true?
Wind farms do less harm to the environment than solar farms.(A)
There are ways to create energy that do not harm wildlife.(B)
The life of solar farms will be short-lived because of their cost.(C)
Birds can be easily confused by man-made structures.(D)
37. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 63-65 (“Researchers … of water”)(A)
Lines 74-76 (“The number … 328,000”)(B)
Lines 84-86 (“There exists … 2017”)(C)
Lines 91-93 (“These lawsuits … Southwest”)(D)
1010
38. What is the main difference between the purpose of Passage 1 and the
purpose of Passage 2?
Passage 1 aims to convince readers that solar farming will be the
primary form of developing energy in the future, while Passage 2
aims to show the limited benefits of solar farms.
(A)
The purpose of Passage 1 is to show the many benefits of solar
farming, while Passage 2 concentrates on the negative side effects of
solar farming.
(B)
Passage 1 discusses current research into the benefits of solar farms,
while Passage 2 relates why solar farms are not practical in all
locations.
(C)
The purpose of Passage 1 is to show that producing energy is vital to
the economy, while Passage 2 explains the ways in which solar
farms can be developed.
(D)
39. As used in line 16 of Passage 1, “pumped” most nearly means
drained.(A)
encouraged.(B)
extracted.(C)
forced.(D)
1011
40. As used in lines 57-58 of Passage 2, “recognize” most nearly means
appreciate.(A)
credit.(B)
distinguish.(C)
realize.(D)
41. In Passage 2, the author’s use of “surprising” (line 54) implies that
solar farms require a lengthy development period.(A)
most people would be shocked by the size of solar farms.(B)
solar energy panels look strange to most people.(C)
most people think that solar energy is very beneficial.(D)
42. Both passages support which generalization about solar farms?
Solar farms have effects that disturb some conservationists.(A)
Solar farms are an accepted way to generate electricity.(B)
All of the ways to create energy have negative side effects.(C)
Finding sites for solar farms is difficult to accomplish.(D)
1012
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Carbon Dioxide Passage
The concentration of carbon dioxide in our
atmosphere has been steadily increasing since
about 1750. Carbon dioxide lets in sun energy and
then traps it as heat energy, so the more carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere, the higher the average(5)
global temperature. Scientists are concerned that
even slight increases in global temperatures will
significantly affect plant and animal life on Earth.
In the past, photosynthesis has been able to keep
the level of carbon dioxide in the air at a lower(10)
level. Plants and algae convert water and carbon
dioxide into oxygen and glucose, using the sun’s
energy. Carbon from carbon dioxide becomes
trapped or “fixed” as the plant uses glucose to build
cellulose and starches, which make up most of the(15)
plant’s structure.
Human industry is the main cause of increased
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Cutting down
forests to make room for expanding cities or farm-
1013
land reduces the amount of carbon dioxide being(20)
removed. The wood is also often burned, releasing
more carbon dioxide into the air. Burning fossil
fuels for energy releases even more carbon dioxide
that had previously been locked up in the coal, oil,
or gas underground.(25)
We can reduce the amount of carbon dioxide by
reducing how much we release, either by burning
fewer fossil fuels or by removing carbon dioxide as
the fuel is being burned. We can burn fewer fossil
fuels by switching to other forms of power that(30)
don’t release carbon dioxide, such as solar or wind
power, but these methods are more expensive. We
can “scrub” the carbon dioxide from the air at the
power plant where the fuel is burned, but that is also
expensive. It is also does not work for the carbon(35)
dioxide produced by cars, trucks, and airplanes.
Reducing our output of carbon dioxide, though
a commendable idea, may not reduce the levels
enough to have a meaningful impact. We might
need to go one step farther and try to remove car-(40)
bon dioxide from the air.
Many research and development companies are
now developing systems that will act like artificial
“trees” and remove carbon dioxide from the atmos-
1014
phere. Several built their approach on a method(45)
used in submarines and space vehicles. They com-
bine the carbon dioxide with a strong base called
sodium hydroxide to produce sodium bicarbonate,
also known as baking soda. Bubbling air through
a solution of sodium hydroxide works well enough(50)
for the small amount of air in a space vehicle or
submarine, but this would be a slow way to process
a large amount of air.
One researcher found a way to make a plastic
with hydroxide components that would remove(55)
carbon dioxide from air as it passes over the surface
of the plastic. Filters made out of long strands of
this plastic can then remove carbon dioxide as
wind pushes the air through the strands. The filters,
therefore, act much like leaves in a tree.(60)
This plastic is inexpensive, but making it into
filters, building towers that contain many “leaves”
of the filters, and processing the plastic to remove
the carbon dioxide so the plastic can be reused is
currently very expensive. To pay for the cost, gasoline(65)
would end up increasing in price. If manufacturers
could get the cost of this method down to $100 per
metric ton of carbon dioxide removed, for example,
the price of gas would still have to increase by
1015
about 88 cents to cover the cost. Researchers are(70)
optimistic that they could actually get the cost down
to $25 per metric ton. If they achieve this goal, we
someday may see artificial trees in our cities, assisting
the real trees in cleaning the air.
43. The central idea of this passage is primarily concerned with
1016
methods being developed to help remove carbon dioxide from the
air.
(A)
the problems caused by cutting down forests to make cities larger.(B)
the dangers of increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.(C)
how increased global temperatures will affect plant and animal life.(D)
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-3 (“The concentration … 1750”)(A)
Lines 11-13 (“Plants and … energy”)(B)
Lines 17-18 (“Human industry … atmosphere”)(C)
Lines 42-45 (“Many research … atmosphere”)(D)
45. In paragraph 2, the author helps structure the passage’s claim by
providing
1017
a detailed description of how real trees are different from artificial
trees.
(A)
examples of current methods of removing carbon dioxide from the
air.
(B)
an explanation of how carbon dioxide is naturally removed from the
air.
(C)
details about how the level of carbon dioxide in the air has been
steadily increasing.
(D)
46. How do the filters described in paragraph 6 act like leaves in a tree?
They contain long strands like veins in a leaf.(A)
They remove carbon dioxide from the air.(B)
They release oxygen into the atmosphere.(C)
They branch out from the plastic-like leaves.(D)
47. Which of the following examples of evidence would most strengthen
the author’s line of reasoning?
1018
Details about the type of consequences plant and animal life could
face if global temperatures increase in paragraph 1
(A)
How many acres of forest are cut down each year to make room for
bigger cities and more farmland in paragraph 3
(B)
Descriptions of how solar and wind energy are harvested and
converted to electricity in paragraph 4
(C)
An analysis of how much people would be willing to pay for gas to
offset the cost of plastic used to remove carbon dioxide from the air
in paragraph 7
(D)
48. As used in line 11, “convert” most nearly means
control.(A)
transform.(B)
substitute.(C)
adjust.(D)
49. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following
statements is true?
1019
Solar and wind energy would become less expensive if more people
used these forms of energy.
(A)
Technology that removes carbon dioxide from the air would not be
necessary if more people rode bikes.
(B)
Global temperatures could reach levels dangerous to plant and
animal life in the next 50 years.
(C)
People will resist technology that removes carbon dioxide from the
air if it is too expensive.
(D)
50. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 3-6 (“Carbon dioxide … temperature”)(A)
Lines 26-29 (“We can … burned”)(B)
Lines 61-65 (“This plastic … very expensive”)(C)
Lines 70-74 (“Researchers … the air”)(D)
51. As used in line 38, “commendable” most nearly means
1020
convincing.(A)
hopeful.(B)
admirable.(C)
effective.(D)
52. Which claim made by the author is supported by the evidence in the
graphic?
Solar and wind energy are the most expensive methods of reducing
carbon dioxide emissions.
(A)
Artificial trees remove more carbon dioxide from the air than
scrubbers at power plants.
(B)
Natural gas power plants with scrubbers provide the least expensive
method of reducing carbon dioxide emissions.
(C)
Coal power plants with scrubbers cost more to operate than natural
gas power plants with scrubbers.
(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1021
1022
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
1023
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
1024
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
Vitamin C—Essential Nutrient or Wonder Drug?
Vitamin C has been considered a wonder drug by many people,
including a two-time Nobel Prize winner. Unfortunately, although it is 
 for many growth and repair activities in the body, vitamin
C does not live up to most other claims.
Linus Pauling was one of the earliest, and most famous, of the vitamin
C supporters. He was a brilliant chemist and  humanitarian who
won both the Nobel Prize in Chemistry and the Nobel Peace Prize for his
work. His later work on vitamin C still serves for many as proof that
vitamin C is a wonder drug; , his work never supported his
theories.
so very essential
1
deferential
2
as a result
3
1025
4  [1] In 1932, vitamin C was identified as the nutrient that prevents
scurvy. [2] The symptoms of scurvy are caused mainly by the body’s
inability to repair and replace damaged cells. [3] The word “scurvy” has
been in use since the 1500s and is believed to have Dutch and French
origins. [4] These symptoms appear after months without sufficient vitamin
C, usually because of a poor diet. [5] Getting enough vitamin C is therefore
essential to good health. [6] Pauling and others  that increasing
vitamin C intake beyond the amount found in a balanced diet could do more
than just maintain good health.
For example, Pauling was certain that high doses of vitamin C could
cure cancer. His research with cancer patients did not reveal any
conclusive support  of vitamin C slowed the
growth of certain tumors but did not shrink them. The high levels of vitamin
C were also dangerous and actually interfered with other cancer treatments.
implied
5
for his theory, very high doses
6
1026
Pauling and others were also convinced that high doses of vitamin C
could prevent and cure colds. Research has shown that people with a high
vitamin C intake recover from colds slightly faster than people with a
normal intake. 
Unfortunately, increasing levels of vitamin C in the body once a person has
come down with a cold makes no difference.
The recommended daily intake of vitamin C for adult males is 90 mg,
and for women it is 75 mg. Amounts up to twice that much can be absorbed
well by the digestive system, but excessive amounts cannot. People who
take high doses only absorb about 50 percent of the vitamin. 
 such as 
 cramps. The slightly shorter cold duration
obtained at high doses is not worth the possible side effects.
However, for the average person, who gets a few a year, this means
reducing sick days a little bit.
7
The unabsorbed vitamin will have caused digestive problems,
8
nausea, diarrhea and abdominal
9
1027
Vitamin C is important for  they
get the recommended amount by eating a balanced diet. However, a person
who takes higher doses through supplements will see almost no additional
benefit and in fact may feel worse from the side effects. 11
good health. People should make sure
10
1. 
NO CHANGE(A)
very essential(B)
important and essential(C)
essential(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
dedicated(B)
good(C)
loyal(D)
3. 
1028
NO CHANGE(A)
because(B)
however(C)
so(D)
4. Which sentence in paragraph 3 is least relevant to the main idea of the
paragraph?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 5(D)
5. 
NO CHANGE(A)
reasoned(B)
judged(C)
philosophized(D)
6. 
1029
NO CHANGE(A)
for this theory, so very high doses(B)
for his theory very high doses(C)
for his theory; very high doses(D)
7. Which choice most effectively supports the claim that vitamin C has
only a slight effect on people’s ability to recover from colds?
However, for most people, who get colds around 3 times a year, it is
not much time.
(A)
However, for an average person, who gets colds every year, this
amounts to only about two or three days a year.
(B)
However, for most people, who get a lot of colds each year, this
doesn’t add up to be much time.
(C)
However, for the average person, who gets about 3 colds a year, this
means reducing sick days from about 24 to about 22.
(D)
8. 
NO CHANGE(A)
The unabsorbed vitamin can cause digestive problems,(B)
The unabsorbed vitamin has caused digestive problems,(C)
The unabsorbed vitamin could have caused digestive problems,(D)
1030
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
nausea diarrhea, and abdominal(B)
nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal(C)
nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal,(D)
10. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined
portion?
good health, making sure(A)
good health, but people should make sure(B)
good health, and people should make sure(C)
good health; however making sure(D)
11. Which choice most effectively establishes a summative concluding
sentence for the paragraph?
1031
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
The Familiar Myth
Jermaine typed “Joseph Campbell” into his Internet browser. His
teacher had said that Campbell’s research held the key to understanding the
universal motifs of literature from around the world. He clicked on a web
page dedicated to the man’s life and work. The first thing Jermaine noted
was that American mythologist and author Joseph Campbell wrote in his 
 work, The Hero with a Thousand Faces, “Myth is the secret
opening through which the inexhaustible energies of the cosmos pour into
Vitamin C may not be a “wonder” drug, but it is an essential nutrient
for all of us.
(A)
Vitamin C is found in fruits and vegetables, such as oranges,
peppers, tomatoes, and broccoli.
(B)
Vitamin C supplements have always been accompanied by false
claims, so choose one carefully.
(C)
Vitamin C supplements are sold in a pharmacy or health food store
near you.
(D)
seminal
12
1032
human cultural manifestation.” Online, Jermaine learned that
 in this work.
“Monomyth” is a term Campbell borrowed from fellow author James
Joyce, referring to a story pattern that has served as the basis for many
pieces of literature from around the world. The monomyth is often referred
to as the “hero’s journey.”
Next, Jermaine clicked to view a graphic representation of the story
structure. A plot diagram detailed the typical events of 
The start of the journey is referred to as “the call to adventure.” It is
followed by several challenges and encounters with people who appear to
help him. The hero experiences revelations along the way, and these
revelations are the catalyst for transformation. Most heroes undergo this
transformation in order to reach 
16  Jermaine clicked a link titled “Cultural Representations.” He
learned that throughout time, many cultures have expressed their
Campbell showcases what he calls the “monomyth”
13
a heros’ journey.
14
the end of there journey.
15
1033
worldview through myths. While some of these stories are representative
of humanity as a whole, the monomyth prominently featured one hero
working for the good of all humans, experiencing 
 Two very recognizable instances
of this structure from modern times are the stories of superheroes found in
comic 
Jermaine then read monomyths found in other cultures. He learned
about the Kayapo Indians and their myth about a boy who stole fire from a
jaguar. The boy brought this fire to his people, enabling them to cook their
food. To a large extent, this hero brought more to his people than just the 
, fire symbolized civilization. Similarly, in Greek
mythology, Prometheus also stole fire to bring to his people. In the
mythology of the Daribi people, native to Papua New Guinea, Souw, a
wanderer, brought his people livestock and crops. These stories are similar
21
hardships, challenges, and will triumph.
17
books. Such as Superman and Batman.
18
use of fire—in this story
19
not only in its structure but also in its symbolism.
20
1034
The monomyth, Jermaine learned, is a structure that people across all
cultures are familiar and comfortable with to the point that they can picture
themselves as the hero in their own story. It is because of this that the
monomyth will continue to be a  story structure moving forward.timely
22
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
initial(B)
primary(C)
fictitious(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Campbell is showcasing what he calls the “monomyth”(B)
Campbell showcased what he calls the “monomyth”(C)
Campbell showcased what he called the “monomyth”(D)
14. 
1035
NO CHANGE(A)
a hero’s journey.(B)
a heroes journey.(C)
a heroes’ journey.(D)
15. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the journey they are ending.(B)
the end of their journey.(C)
the end of they’re journey.(D)
16. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
Jermaine sought out famous stories and myths to help him better
understand the monomyth concept.
(A)
Jermaine wanted to write about the very first monomyth, so he chose
to focus his research on that.
(B)
Jermaine decided that religious figures were the best way to explore
the monomyth concept.
(C)
Jermaine didn’t quite understand the progression of the hero’s
journey.
(D)
1036
17. 
NO CHANGE(A)
hardships, challenges, and is triumphant.(B)
hardships, challenges, and triumph.(C)
hardships, challenges, and triumphs.(D)
18. 
NO CHANGE(A)
books. And Superman and Batman.(B)
books, such as Superman and Batman.(C)
books, as well as Superman and Batman(D)
19. 
NO CHANGE(A)
use of fire, in this story(B)
use of fire. In this story(C)
use of fire: in this story(D)
20. 
1037
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
NO CHANGE(A)
not only in their structure but also in their symbolism.(B)
not only in structure but also in its symbolism.(C)
not only in each structure but also symbolism.(D)
21. Which fact omitted from this paragraph would best support the author’s
claims?
A description of another world myth that involves stealing fire(A)
The name of the website where Jermaine found this information(B)
The importance of animal figures in myths(C)
The location of the Kayapo Indians’ homeland(D)
22. 
NO CHANGE(A)
prevalent(B)
eminent(C)
requisite(D)
1038
America’s Love for Streetcars
The history of the electric trolley car can be traced to 1887; during this
era, electric motor technology was perfected. The street railway industry
immediately hailed the new mode of public transport as a solution to
horsecars, which were horse-drawn vehicles that ran on rails. Extremely
popular, trolley lines had a large impact on cities such as San Francisco.
A streetcar, or trolley, is an electric vehicle that runs on rails; 
connect to form a system, typically providing public access to urban
centers. Besides transportation, other benefits of the new technology
abounded—for example, by World War I, streetcars had become America’s
fifth largest industry, employing over 100,000 workers nationwide.
24  During the summer, special open trolleys called “breezers”
allowed riders to enjoy cool air on hot days, but the main attraction was
they
23
1039
that electric cars  than the
previous horsecars. The demand resulted in the creation of larger and more
powerful trolleys, such as double-deckers.
The public’s desire to travel between cities prompted a change in the
late 1800s to intercity trolleys, also known as “interurbans.” These electric
trolleys were economical and thus were less expensive to ride than steam
railroads. 26
[1] As more automobiles became available, the competition caused
trolley companies to cut back. [2] Henry Ford, however, changed the world
with the 1908 introduction of the Model T, a car the average worker could
afford. [3] Ultimately, this major factor led to the demise of such lines. [4]
The World War II years ignited renewed interest in, and use of, some
interurban lines, since gasoline and tire  limited the use of
automobiles. [5] This  was short-lived, though, because once
were faster, more speedy, and arrived sooner
25
rationalizing
27
resumption
28
1040
new cars hit the post-war market, people again chose mobility over
scheduled public transportation. 29
A modern resurgence in electric trolleys began in 2009, when federal
funding became available for streetcar projects in key cities such as
Atlanta. 
They also point out that a lot of streetcar projects start as economic
development projects rather than as transit projects.
Today, most commuters still get to work by car; 
Some communities are  a revival, with light rail systems as the
second generation of streetcars. Portland, Oregon, for example, boasts a
Critics argue that modern streetcars aren’t any faster than local buses.
Critics argue that this is the reason modern streetcars will never be cost-
effective.
30
in fact, very few Americans in any metropolitan area use public
transportation.
31
embracing
32
1041
successful light rail system serving the broad metropolitan area with an
annual ridership of 39.12 million residents interested in car-free living.
From trolleys to light rail, the evolution of public transportation shows
that if it is  it’s on the right track.reliable frequent comfortable, and fast,
33
23. 
1042
NO CHANGE(A)
these rails(B)
it(C)
which(D)
24. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
People loved the trolleys.(A)
Most people today have never seen a trolley in person.(B)
Trolleys remain popular outside America.(C)
The popularity of trolleys did not last in the United States.(D)
25. 
NO CHANGE(A)
were faster and speedier(B)
were faster(C)
were faster, speedier, and arrived sooner(D)
26. Which choice adds supporting information to the paragraph?
1043
Trolley routes within cities nonetheless continued to be common,
however.
(A)
Decades later, long-distance buses would become the transportation
of choice.
(B)
Although some still viewed railroads romantically, their time was
coming to an end.
(C)
Farmers saved money by using interurbans to get products to markets
in large cities.
(D)
27. 
NO CHANGE(A)
rationing(B)
reasoning(C)
rating(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
reparation(B)
renaissance(C)
renovation(D)
1044
29. To present ideas in a logical sequence, sentence 2 should be located
where it is now.(A)
before sentence 1.(B)
after sentence 3.(C)
after sentence 4.(D)
30. Which sentence most effectively combines the sentences to create more
varied sentence structure?
Critics argue that modern streetcars aren’t any faster than local buses
and therefore will never be cost-effective.
(A)
Critics argue that modern streetcars aren’t any faster than local buses
and that they will never be cost-effective.
(B)
Critics argue that modern streetcars aren’t any faster than local buses
and critics argue they will never be cost-effective.
(C)
Critics argue that modern streetcars aren’t any faster than local
buses, so critics say they will never be cost-effective.
(D)
31. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
chart?
1045
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
NO CHANGE(A)
however, public transportation is crucial to some cities.(B)
it is only in rural areas that public transportation is still a valuable
service.
(C)
nonetheless, public transportation use is on the rise in all metro
areas.
(D)
32. 
NO CHANGE(A)
accepting(B)
tolerating(C)
understanding(D)
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
reliable—frequent, comfortable, and fast,(B)
reliable, frequent, comfortable and fast(C)
reliable, frequent, comfortable, and fast,(D)
1046
Educating Early
Early childhood education (ECE) is the field  those who teach
young children, typically between ages three and five. Preschool teachers,
teaching assistants, and childcare workers are today’s most common ECE
job titles. 
For those interested in working with prekindergarten children, it is perhaps
as important to consider natural ability as it is to undergo the proper
training. Early childhood
 in
order to address the many needs of young children. 
But for most teaching jobs, an associate’s or bachelor’s degree in an ECE-
formed by
34
Careers in ECE involve reward and challenge, as well as a healthy
measure of fun.
35
educators must be patient, gentle, creative, and physically, energetic
36
Varying levels of educational training are also required for some entry-
level childcare positions. A high school diploma is sufficient.
37
1047
related discipline is expected. Some of these jobs also require staff to
obtain credentials as Child Development Associates (CDA) or Child Care
Professionals (CCP). Due to these variations in qualifications, it is
important that those pursuing ECE find out specific expectations for the job
of their choice.
The daily demands of ECE are multifaceted. Educators conscientiously
interact with both children and parents. They plan in advance for the day’s
activities. They teach at the unique level of the children under their care,
continually working to prepare them for many coming years of formal
education. Introducing concepts such as storytelling, reading, basic
sciences, arts, and math, as well as healthy physical and social activities,
 The
vital lessons taught to the preschool-aged child  young learners to
succeed in kindergarten and beyond.
these teachers train children to listen, to learn, and to enjoy school.
38
equips
39
1048
 The U.S. Department of Labor
expects ECE jobs to grow moderately over the coming decade. As research
continues to confirm early education’s positive impact on children’s lives,
the U.S. government is spending more money to improve and expand
opportunities. Parents and guardians of all socioeconomic standing are
urged to consider preschool because of  influence on the future of both
the individual child and the nation as a whole. These developments
indicate  job market for early childhood educators. 43
Those pursuing ECE should anticipate a lower average yearly income than
that of some other jobs. But for those who love young children, activity,
and an interactive, eventful, and playful workplace, this career offers what
many would find to be a rewarding and stimulating life. The Bureau of
Labor Statistics bears this out, 
The influence of such educators is irreplaceable. Inviting children each day
The field presents a challenging career path.
40
their
41
a ceaseless
42
as schools and day care centers continue to be the most common places of
employment for workers in ECE.
44
1049
to craft and imagine, these teachers form the minds that will someday
imagine and craft the future of this world.
34. 
1050
NO CHANGE(A)
consisting of(B)
epitomized by(C)
exclusive of(D)
35. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Careers in ECE involve reward and challenge. As well as a healthy
measure of fun.
(B)
Careers in ECE involve reward and challenge; as well as a healthy
measure of fun.
(C)
Careers in ECE involve reward and challenge, as well as: a healthy
measure of fun.
(D)
36. 
NO CHANGE(A)
educators must be patient, gentle, creative, and physically energetic(B)
educators must be: patient gentle creative and physically energetic(C)
educators must be, patient, gentle, creative, and physically energetic(D)
37. 
1051
NO CHANGE(A)
Varying levels of educational training are also required, for some
entry-level childcare positions, a high school diploma is sufficient.
(B)
Varying levels of educational training are also required. For some
entry-level childcare positions, a high school diploma is sufficient.
(C)
Varying levels of educational training are also required: for some
entry-level childcare positions a high school diploma is sufficient.
(D)
38. 
NO CHANGE(A)
these teachers train children in listening, learning, and to enjoy
school.
(B)
these teachers train children to listen, how to learn, and how to enjoy
school.
(C)
these teachers train children to listen, to learn, and enjoyment of
school.
(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
has equipped(B)
equipping(C)
equip(D)
1052
40. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
NO CHANGE(A)
Job security in ECE is promising.(B)
The field is booming internationally.(C)
Unfortunately, pay for ECE positions is low.(D)
41. 
NO CHANGE(A)
it’s(B)
its(C)
they’re(D)
42. 
NO CHANGE(A)
an erratic(B)
an eternal(C)
an enduring(D)
1053
43. Which sentence provides supporting details when added to the
paragraph?
Early childhood educators often choose to pursue graduate studies in
fields such as education and psychology.
(A)
Recent years have seen an increase in federal funding to preschool
programs offered to low-income families.
(B)
In Sweden, preschool is compulsory and is fully funded by the
government.
(C)
The benefits of preschool are apparent in longitudinal studies
focusing on child development.
(D)
44. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data from the
graphic?
NO CHANGE(A)
as civic and social organizations have seen a rapid decline in the
number of ECE-trained employees.
(B)
as most students pursuing careers in ECE can anticipate finding
work in the fast-paced medical field.
(C)
as the majority of ECE graduates find employment in rewarding
local government positions.
(D)
1054
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1055
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1056
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1057
1. In a certain board game, where playing involves a specific number of
cards and a specific number of players, three cards are removed from
the deck and kept in an envelope, while the rest of the cards are
distributed equally among the players. The scenario can be represented
by the equation given above. What does the variable c represent in this
scenario?
The number of players(A)
The number of cards left over(B)
The number of cards in the deck(C)
The number of cards dealt to each player(D)
2. A hospital hosts an annual charity drive in which volunteers sell first
aid kits to raise money for the pediatric ward. The hospital ordered too
many kits last year, so it already has some to start this year’s drive
with. The project manager estimates, based on last year’s sales, that the
hospital needs to order an additional 50 boxes of kits. The function
k ( b ) = 12 b  + 32, where b is the number of boxes ordered, represents
the number of kits the hospital will have after the order arrives. When
the project manager places the order, she is told that the company has
changed the number of kits per box to 8. How many more boxes will
she need to order to end up with the same number of kits that she had
originally planned for?
1058
25(A)
32(B)
75(C)
200(D)
3. If ΔCAT shown above is similar to ΔDOG, and the ratio of the length of
 to  is 2:7, which of the following ratios must also be equal to
2:7?
(A)
m∠C : m∠D(B)
area of ΔCAT:area of ΔDOG(C)
perimeter of ΔCAT:perimeter of ΔDOG(D)
1059
4. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to 
4x y(A) 2 3
4x y(B) 3 2
(C)
(D)
5. What is the solution to the system of equations shown in the graph?
1060
(11, 1.5)(A)
(12, 2)(B)
(13, 2.5)(C)
(14, 2.75)(D)
6. The value of 7 x  + 3 is how much more than the value of 7 x  – 9?2 2
6(A)
12(B)
7 x  – 6(C) 2
7 x  + 12(D) 2
2
1061
7. Vadim graphs the equation y  = –3 x  + 8, which is shown in the figure
above. He realizes, however, that he miscalculated and should have
graphed  How will this affect his graph?
2
It will change the y-intercept.(A)
It will make the parabola open in the opposite direction.(B)
It will make the parabola cross the x-axis closer to the origin.(C)
It will make the parabola cross the x-axis farther from the origin.(D)
8. Which value of x makes the equation  true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1062
9. An egg farmer packs his eggs in standard 12-hole cartons and then
packs the cartons in large shipping boxes. The number of boxes needed,
b, to transport c cartons of eggs can be found using the function
 If the carton-packing machine can pack a maximum of
4,000 cartons per day, and it does not pack partial boxes, what is the
range of the function in this context?
All integers from 0 to 100(A)
All integers from 0 to 4,000(B)
All integers greater than or equal to 40(C)
All integers greater than or equal to 100(D)
10. Where will the graph of  intersect line K shown above?
1063
(–3, 4)(A)
(9, 20)(B)
The graphs will never intersect.(C)
It is not possible to determine where the graphs will intersect
because the y-intercept of the given line does not fit on the
coordinate plane.
(D)
11. Some herbicides are more effective at killing weeds than others,
relative to the amount of the herbicide needed to produce results.
Which graph could represent the effectiveness of a more-effective
herbicide, m, and a less-effective herbicide, l?
(A)
1064
(B)
(C)
(D)
1065
12. Which of the following values satisfies the inequalities 
and 
1.75(A)
2.25(B)
2.75(C)
3.25(D)
13. If p(x) is a polynomial function that has a simple zero at x  = 4 and a
double zero at  which of the following could be the factored
form of p(x)?
p ( x ) = ( x  – 4)( x  + 3)(A) 2
p ( x ) = ( x  – 4)(3 x  + 1)(B) 2
p ( x ) = 2( x  – 4)( x  + 3)(C)
p ( x ) = 2( x  – 4)(3 x  + 1)(D)
1066
14. The graph of g ( x ) = cos(3 x ) is shown above. Which of the following
lists represents the values of x for which g ( x ) = 0?
–180°, –120°, –60°, 60°, 120°, 180°(A)
–165°, –105°, –45°, 45°, 105°, 165°(B)
–150°, –90°, –30°, 30°, 90°, 120°(C)
–120°, –80°, –40°, 40°, 80°, 120°(D)
1067
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
15. Water from rivers and streams is often unsafe to drink because of
sediments and contaminants. One primitive way that water has been
filtered in the past (and is still occasionally employed by avid campers
and survivalists) is to use a charcoal filter, through which the water is
allowed to trickle. Suppose three campers make three charcoal filters.
The first two campers make their filters using water bottles, each of
which can filter enough water for all three campers in 8 hours. The
third filter is made from a two-liter soda bottle and can filter the same
amount of water in 4 hours. How long will it take the three filters
working together to filter enough water for all three campers?
(A)
1 hour(B)
(C)
2 hours(D)
1068
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1069
1070
16. If line m shown above is reflected over the x-axis, what is the slope of
the new line?
17. If k lies within the solution set of the inequality shown above, what is
the maximum possible value of k?
1071
18. If an exponential function of the form h ( x ) = a ( b )  is used to model
the data shown in the graph above, what is the value of b?
x
19. What is the value of the complex number 
1072
20. In medicine, when a drug is administered in pill form, it takes time for
the concentration in the bloodstream to build up, particularly for pain
medications. Suppose for a certain pain medication, the function
 is used to model the concentration, where t is the time in
hours after the patient takes the pill. For this particular medication, the
concentration reaches a maximum level of 0.375 about two hours after
it is administered and then begins to decrease. If the patient isn’t
allowed to eat or drink until the concentration drops back down to 0.3,
how many hours after taking the pill must the patient wait before eating
or drinking?
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1073
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1074
Information:
Rating Score 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency 0 4 6 8 2
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1075
1. In a market where approximately 44% of all book purchases are made
online, customer reviews are extremely important from a sales and
marketing perspective. Early reviews are most important, as they help
or hinder a book’s momentum in the marketplace. The frequency table
shown above gives the first 20 customer ratings for a certain book sold
online. What is the mean rating for this book?
3(A)
3.4(B)
3.7(C)
4(D)
2. Hardwood trees take much longer to grow than softwood trees. Once
harvested, however, hardwood is much stronger and more durable.
Because of its higher density, a piece of hardwood that is the same size
as a piece of softwood weighs considerably more. A lumberyard ships
both kinds of wood to home improvement stores. The cost C, in dollars,
to ship a pallet of wood weighing p pounds can be found using the
equation C  = 6.5 p  + 16. What is the cost difference to ship a pallet of
hardwood weighing 170 pounds versus a pallet of softwood weighing
80 pounds?
1076
$90(A)
$325(B)
$585(C)
$715(D)
3. The First Transcontinental Railroad, which was 1,907 miles long, was
completed in 1869 to connect the West Coast of the United States to the
existing rail system that ran from the Missouri River to the East Coast.
During the early years after building the railroad, dangerous conditions
and mechanical problems could delay the train significantly. For a
person traveling from one end of the First Transcontinental Railroad to
the other, which inequality represents all possible values of t, where t
is the time it took to complete the journey, if the train traveled at an
average speed of m miles per hour?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1077
Bargain High-End
Price (per sq. ft) $1.89 $5.49
Rating 2.8 8.2
Life Expectancy 5 years
4. Which value of x satisfies the equation given above?
(A)
(B)
2(C)
3(D)
1078
5. The table above shows the price per square foot, the average customer
rating (out of 10), and the life expectancy (before needing replacement)
of the bargain version and the high-end version of carpet at a flooring
warehouse. If the ratio of the life expectancies is roughly the same as
the ratios of the prices and the ratings, about how many years can the
high-end carpet be expected to last?
10(A)
12(B)
15(C)
18(D)
1079
6. The bar graph shows median household incomes in a certain
geographic region according to the age of the highest earner in the
household. When presenting the data, the researcher decides to exclude
the first age bracket (15-24), because it includes minors, which will
likely skew the results because most minors do not have full-time jobs.
The researcher also decides to exclude the last age bracket (65+)
because it includes retirees, which is again likely to skew the results
for the same reason. Which of the following statements most likely
describes how this will affect the data overall?
It will significantly change the median, but not the mean.(A)
It will significantly change the mean, but not the median.(B)
It will significantly change both the mean and the median.(C)
There will be no significant change to either the mean or the median.(D)
7. If the graph of y  = mx  + b  passes through quadrants I, III, and IV on a
coordinate plane, which of the following must be true about m and b?
m  < 0, b  < 0(A)
m  < 0, b  > 0(B)
m  > 0, b  < 0(C)
m  > 0, b  > 0(D)
1080
8. Manufacturing companies typically have a number of fixed costs (such
as rent, machinery, insurance, etc.), which do not depend on output, and
variable costs (such as wages, utilities, materials, etc.), which vary
with output, usually at a constant rate. The graph shows a company’s
costs for manufacturing a particular product over the course of two
years. Which of the following could explain the difference between the
2013 and 2014 costs?
The company reduced its fixed costs by 50%.(A)
The company reduced its variable costs by 50%.(B)
The company reduced the number of units produced by 50%.(C)
The company reduced its fixed costs, variable costs, and the number
of units produced by 50%.
(D)
1081
9. Which of the following is the y-coordinate of the solution to the system
of equations given above?
–8(A)
–2(B)
2(C)
4(D)
10. Premature babies are typically born underweight and are cared for in a
neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). At a certain NICU, the mean
weight of all the male babies is 4 pounds, and the mean weight of all
the female babies is 3.6 pounds. Which of the following must be true
about the mean weight w of the combined group of male and female
babies at this NICU?
w  = 3.8(A)
w  > 3.8(B)
w  < 3.8(C)
3.6 < w  < 4(D)
1082
11. Based on the figure above, what is the approximate length of side AB?
6(A)
7.2(B)
8(C)
8.5(D)
12. When most people buy a house, they take out a mortgage to cover at
least part of the cost of the home and then pay the loan back over time.
The most common kind of mortgage is a 30-year loan. A couple buys a
home and takes out a 30-year loan in the amount of $220,000 (called
the principal). They decide they want to pay it off early to save money
on interest. They set a goal of reducing the principal amount of the loan
to $170,000 in four years. Suppose during the first two years of their
four-year timeline, the couple pays down the loan by 10%. By what
percent do they need to pay down the rest of the loan to reach their
overall goal?
1083
x 1 2 3 4 5 6
f(x) 3.5 0 –2.5 –4 –4.5 –4
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
10%(A)
14%(B)
18%(C)
20%(D)
13. The table above shows several points through which the graph of a
quadratic function f(x) passes. One of the x-intercepts for the graph is
given in the table. What is the other x-intercept for the graph?
(–2, 0)(A)
(5, 0)(B)
(8, 0)(C)
(10, 0)(D)
1084
A college cafeteria received a petition from students to offer healthier
meat, vegetarian, and vegan dishes. In response to the petition, the cafeteria
conducted an analysis of its existing menu to determine the current state of
those options. The results are summarized in the table below. The analyst
used a sliding scale based on the nutrient levels compared against calorie,
sugar, and sodium counts to determine the health score, a score of 1 being
the least healthy and 5 being the healthiest.
Health Score Meat Dishes Vegetarian Dishes Vegan Dishes
1 3 1 1
2 4 3 1
3 8 5 4
4 5 4 2
5 0 1 0
14. What fraction of the vegetarian and vegan dishes has a health score of 3
or higher?
1085
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. If a student chooses a dish at random for lunch one day, what is the
probability that it will be a meat dish with a health score of at least 4?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1086
16. Ideally, blood should flow smoothly through the arteries in our bodies.
When there are problems, or as a natural part of aging, there is an
increased amount of resistance to blood flow. Viscosity is a term used
to describe the thickness or stickiness of the blood and is directly
related to this resistance, as are the radius and the length of the artery
through which the blood flows. The formula given above relates the
radius (r) of an artery to the viscosity (k), resistance (R), and length (l)
of that artery. Which of the following represents the viscosity in terms
of the other variables?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1087
17. Two muffins and a carton of milk cost $3.35. If five muffins and a
carton of milk cost $5.60, what is the cost of two cartons of milk?
$0.75(A)
$1.50(B)
$1.85(C)
$3.70(D)
18. The calculator screenshot above shows the x- and y-values for the first
few data points shown in the scatterplot, which can be modeled using
an exponential function. Which of the following scenarios could be
represented by this function?
1088
The resale value of a car is cut in half for every 3,600 miles driven.(A)
The resale value of a car decreases by $5,000 for every 3,600 miles
driven.
(B)
The resale value of a car decreases by $3,600 for every 5,000 miles
driven.
(C)
The resale value of a car decreases by approximately 12% for every
5,000 miles driven.
(D)
19. The graph of the function f ( x ) = – x  – 2 x  + 8 is shown in the figure
above. For what values of x does f ( x ) = 5?
2
1089
–4 and 2(A)
–3 and 1(B)
–1 and 9(C)
5 and 8(D)
20. The pie chart above shows the distribution of registered voters in a
certain district in Illinois by party and by age. If there are 8,640 voters
in the district, what is the ratio of Republicans to Independents?
3:1(A)
7:2(B)
22:3(C)
23:6(D)
1090
21. A DVD rental kiosk dispenses movies for $1 for a 24-hour rental. After
the initial rental period has expired, customers are charged a $0.50 late
fee for every 24 hours that the movie is returned late. If a customer
rents four movies at one time, which of the following graphs represents
the total possible charges in late fees, assuming he returns all the
movies together?
(A)
(B)
1091
(C)
(D)
22. There are many ways to defrost a turkey. One way is to let it thaw
slowly in the refrigerator, at a thaw rate of about 4 pounds per day.
Another way is to submerge the turkey in cold water, which thaws it at
a rate of 1 pound per 30 minutes. Approximately how many more
ounces of turkey can the cold-water method thaw in 2 hours than the
refrigerator method? (1 pound = 16 ounces)
1092
16(A)
27(B)
32(C)
59(D)
23. A freight train operator knows that on a 200-mile trip, if the freight cars
are not fully loaded, she can save 1 hour of travel time by increasing
her normal speed by 10 miles per hour. What is her normal speed in
miles per hour?
40(A)
45(B)
55(C)
60(D)
24. A cable company offers movie rental packages. If you join the Movie
Fan club, you get 10 movies for $20 and each movie after that costs
$2.50. If you join the Movie Super Fan club, you get unlimited movies
for a year for $75. How many movies would a person need to rent for
each package to cost the same amount over a one-year period?
1093
22(A)
30(B)
32(C)
57(D)
25. Many wholesale businesses charge customers less per item when they
buy those items in bulk. Suppose a baseball cap distributor charges $6
per cap for the first 25 caps the customer purchases, $5 per cap for the
next 75 purchased, and $4 per cap for all additional caps over 100.
Which of the following piecewise functions represents this scenario,
where C represents the total cost and n represents the number of caps
purchased?
1094
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26. The decline of a certain animal species’ population, currently estimated
to be 22,000, can be modeled by the quadratic function p ( x ) = –0.5 x
+ 22,000, where x is the number of years after 2015. Based on only this
information, and assuming no intervention to change the path of the
population, which of the following statements must be true?
2
1095
This species will be extinct by the end of the year 2225.(A)
The animal population for this species is decreasing at a constant
rate.
(B)
In approximately 100 years, the animal population for this species
will be about half what it was in 2015.
(C)
The animal population will increase or decrease from the initial
2015 level, depending on the year after 2015.
(D)
27. In geology, the water table is the level below which the ground is
saturated with water. Wells must be dug below this point to bring water
up into the well. Except in cases of severe flooding, the water level in
a well does not rise above the water table. Suppose a cylindrical well
is 6 feet wide and 60 feet deep in an area where the water table is 40
feet below ground level. Assuming no unusual circumstances, what is
the volume in cubic feet of the water in the well at any given time?
180π(A)
360π(B)
540π(C)
720π(D)
1096
28. Ramon graphed a line that has a slope of –2. The line he graphed
passes through the point (3, 5). If Ramon doubles the slope of his line
and then shifts it down 1 unit, through which point will the line pass?
(3, –2)(A)
(3, 9)(B)
(6, 4)(C)
(10, 2)(D)
1097
29. Earthquakes occur when energy is released from deep inside the earth,
causing friction between the tectonic plates of the earth’s crust. The
magnitude, or intensity, of the earthquake is measured on the Richter
scale. The scatterplot above shows the earthquakes experienced by
California between December 2003 and December 2010. The line of
best fit, which has a slope of 0, is a fairly good indicator in California.
Approximately what percent of the earthquakes in California during this
time period differed by 1 point or more on the Richter scale from the
magnitude predicted by the line of best fit?
22%(A)
27%(B)
33%(C)
36%(D)
30. If the equation  has solutions x  and x , what is the
product of x  and x ?
1 2
1 2
–45(A)
–15(B)
–5(C)
3(D)
1098
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or 
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not )
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1099
31. If –10 < 14 – 2 p  < 6, what is the greatest possible integer value of 7 –
p?
1100
32. The graph above shows Umberto’s distance from home over a one-hour
period, during which time he first went to the bank, then went to the
post office, and then returned home. How many minutes did Umberto
spend at the bank and at the post office combined?
33. Selena is taking a 90-minute test that consists of 50 multiple-choice
questions and 30 true-false questions. If she completes 48 questions in
50 minutes, how many seconds per question does she have on average
to answer each of the remaining questions?
1101
34. If  is a diameter of the circle shown above, and the arc length of
CD is π, what is the area of the shaded region? Use 3.14 to
approximate π and round your answer to the nearest tenth.
35. A bag valve mask is used to resuscitate patients who have stopped
breathing. It consists primarily of a bag attached to a mask. The mask is
fitted to the patient’s nose and mouth. Squeezing the bag pushes air
through the mask and into the patient’s lungs. For sanitary reasons, most
of these masks are disposable. Suppose a hospital’s mask supplier sells
them in boxes of 48 or 144, and the supplier has 35 boxes in stock. If
the supplier has 2,832 total masks in stock, how many masks would the
hospital receive if it ordered all of the boxes of 144 that the supplier
has in stock?
1102
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
A company sponsors a health program for its employees by partnering with
a local gym. If employees pay for a yearlong membership at this gym, then
for every day the employee uses his or her swipe card to enter the gym (and
36. Patricia collected data for a school project, plotted the information on a
scatterplot (shown above), and drew the line of best fit. In reviewing
her notes, she realized that one of her data points was wrong, so she
eliminated that point and redrew the line of best fit. If the new y-
intercept of her line is 2 and the slope is steeper than before, what was
the y-value of the point she eliminated?
1103
work out), the company reimburses the employee 0.2% of the cost of the
$220 membership. Additionally, any employee who goes to the gym more
than 60% of the days in the year gets one bonus paid day off of work. The
company uses a 365-day year.
37. If 246 employees participate in the program and they each go to the gym
an average of 84 days per year, how much money in membership
reimbursements will the company pay out? Round your answer to the
nearest whole dollar.
38. Giving employees additional paid time off also costs the company
money because it is paying the salary of an employee who is not
actually doing any work on that day. The pie graph below shows gym
usage for the 246 employees who participated in the health program.
1104
If the average salary of workers who participated was $14.90 per hour
and one day off equals 8 hours, how much did the health program day-
off benefit cost the company? Round your answer to the nearest whole
dollar.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1105
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
1106
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how Winston
Churchill uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from Winston Churchill’s speech “The Defence of Freedom
and Speech (The Lights Are Going Out),” broadcast by radio to the
United States and London, October 16, 1938.
1107
I avail myself with relief of the opportunity of speaking to the people of
the United States. I do not know how long such liberties will be
allowed. The stations of uncensored expression are closing down; the
lights are going out; but there is still time for those to whom freedom and
parliamentary government mean something, to consult together. Let me,
then, speak in truth and earnestness while time remains.…
The American people have, it seems to me, formed a true judgment upon
the disaster which has befallen Europe. They realise, perhaps more
clearly than the French and British publics have yet done, the far-
reaching consequences of the abandonment and ruin of the Czechoslovak
Republic.…
Has any benefit or progress ever been achieved by the human race by
submission to organised and calculated violence? As we look back over
the long story of the nations we must see that, on the contrary, their glory
has been founded upon the spirit of resistance to tyranny and injustice,
especially when these evils seemed to be backed by heavier force.
Since the dawn of the Christian era a certain way of life has slowly been
shaping itself among the Western peoples, and certain standards of
conduct and government have come to be esteemed. After many miseries
and prolonged confusion, there arose into the broad light of day the
conception of the right of the individual; his right to be consulted in the
1108
government of his country; his right to invoke the law even against the
State itself.…
We are confronted with another theme. It is not a new theme; it leaps out
upon us from the Dark Ages—racial persecution, religious intolerance,
deprivation of free speech, the conception of the citizen as a mere
soulless fraction of the State. To this has been added the cult of war.
Children are to be taught in their earliest schooling the delights and
profits of conquest and aggression. A whole mighty community has been
drawn painfully, by severe privations, into a warlike frame. They are
held in this condition, which they relish no more than we do, by a party
organisation, several millions strong, who derive all kinds of profits,
good and bad, from the upkeep of the regime. Like the Communists, the
Nazis tolerate no opinion but their own. Like the Communists, they feed
on hatred. Like the Communists, they must seek, from time to time, and
always at shorter intervals, a new target, a new prize, a new victim. The
Dictator, in all his pride, is held in the grip of his Party machine.…
The culminating question to which I have been leading is whether the
world as we have known it—the great and hopeful world of before the
war, the world of increasing hope and enjoyment for the common man,
the world of honoured tradition and expanding science—should meet
this menace by submission or by resistance. Let us see, then, whether the
means of resistance remain to us today. We have sustained an immense
1109
disaster; the renown of France is dimmed. In spite of her brave, efficient
army, her influence is profoundly diminished. No one has a right to say
that Britain, for all her blundering, has broken her word—indeed, when
it was too late, she was better than her word. Nevertheless, Europe lies
at this moment abashed and distracted before the triumphant assertions
of dictatorial power. In the Spanish Peninsula, a purely Spanish quarrel
has been carried by the intervention, or shall I say the “non-
intervention” (to quote the current Jargon) of Dictators into the region of
a world cause.
Is this a call to war? Does anyone pretend that preparation for resistance
to aggression is unleashing war? I declare it to be the sole guarantee of
peace. We need the swift gathering of forces to confront not only
military but moral aggression; the resolute and sober acceptance of their
duty by the English-speaking peoples and by all the nations, great and
small, who wish to walk with them. Their faithful and zealous
comradeship would almost between night and morning clear the path of
progress and banish from all our lives the fear which already darkens
the sunlight to hundreds of millions of men.
1110
Write an essay in which you explain how Winston Churchill
builds an argument to persuade his audience that the United
States and Britain must mobilize their forces in preparation to
resist the military aggression of Nazi Germany and its allies. In
your essay, analyze how he uses one or more of the features
listed in the box that precedes the passage (or features of your
own choice) to strengthen the logic and persuasiveness of his
argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the most relevant
features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with
Churchill’s claims, but rather explain how he builds an argument
to persuade his audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1111
1112
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. A
1113
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. D
1114
41. D
42. B
43. A
44. D
45. C
46. B
47. A
48. B
49. D
50. D
51. C
52. A
1115
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
1116
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. B
1117
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. A
1118
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
1119
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. 1/3 or .333
17. 
18. 1/2 or .5
19. 3/4 or .75
20. 4
1120
1121
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. A
1122
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. A
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. 2
32. 25
33. 75
34. 9.4
35. 1728
36. 5.5
37. 9092
38. 4887
1123
1124
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
My Ántonia
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are not reflected in the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: When Jim asks if he can stay in the garden, his
grandmother immediately asks if he’s afraid of snakes, but relents and
lets him stay. Thus, (B) is correct.
1125
2. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues and determine
which answer choice best matches the idea presented in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Jim explains that he sits in the middle of the
garden, implying he can see a long way in all directions and that it will
be difficult for anything to sneak up on him. This makes (A) the correct
answer.
3. D
1126
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the section of the passage concerning Jim’s
interaction with the land. Avoid answer choices that might be true but
are not dealt with in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Jim mentions that he never would have found
the garden on his own and frequently discusses the vastness and
sameness of the prairie all around him. Choice (D) is the correct
answer.
4. B
1127
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote from the passage in its entirety.
Then choose the one that supports the correct answer in the previous
question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct, as it states that Jim
would never have found the garden on his own in the vast prairie, which
only had the pumpkins for a landmark.
5. D
1128
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Review the passage to determine what major themes
the author uses throughout the entire excerpt. Avoid answer choices that
deal with only a small part of the excerpt.
Getting to the Answer: Most of the answer choices are suggested in
small sections of the excerpt. Only (D) explains the main theme running
throughout that a natural setting can have a transforming effect on a
person.
6. B
1129
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Read the passage and consider the kinds of thoughts
Jim has throughout. Then determine which answer choice best reflects
his personality.
Getting to the Answer: Jim spends a lot of time reflecting on the
landscape and how it affects his ideas about life. These are very
introspective thoughts, making (B) the correct answer.
7. D
1130
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer choice in the passage and decide
which one provides evidence for the answer to the previous question.
Avoid answers that might hint at Jim’s personality but do not give the
strongest evidence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. In this quote,
Jim reflects on the landscape, life, and the relationship between the two.
This provides strong evidence of his introspective personality.
8. A
1131
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the surrounding sentences for context clues
about how the author intended to use the word. Then determine which
answer choice best serves the author’s intention.
Getting to the Answer: Jim discusses his idea that death might feel the
same as becoming a part of something bigger than ourselves. Choice (A)
is correct because “assimilate” also means “to become a part of
something bigger.”
9. C
1132
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Review the entire paragraph in which the repetition
of “galloping” takes place. Then decide which answer choice best
describes the author’s reason for repeating this word.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, Jim explains “more than
anything else I felt motion in the landscape” (lines 16-17). By repeating
“galloping,” the author is able to emphasize the landscape’s motion.
Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
10. C
1133
Bohr Letter
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Recall that a first-person narrator tells the story from
his or her own perspective and uses pronouns such as “I,” “me,” and so
on. Keep this in mind as you determine the author’s reason for choosing
this point of view.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. A first-
person narrator allows the author to describe the main character’s
thoughts and experiences with such precision that the reader often feels
as though he or she is right there with the main character. Based on the
amount of descriptive detail Cather uses in the passage, one can assume
that this was her reason for choosing the first-person point of view.
11. A
1134
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the passage introduction, as it provides
context for Bohr and his letter. This question requires you to think about
this context as well as the rhetoric of Bohr’s letter to draw conclusions
about his intent.
Getting to the Answer: The passage introduction explains that Bohr
began work on atomic energy before World War II, and before he
advised other scientists on the development of the atomic bomb. The
first few paragraphs of his letter discuss the development of atomic
energy for military uses and resulting problems. This suggests that Bohr
writes the letter to discuss the implications of the military use of atomic
energy. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
12. C
1135
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Recall the purpose expressed in your answer to the
preceding item. The correct answer will most clearly relate to that
purpose and tie together your thinking. Be wary of answer choices that
provide context but do not clearly support this correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The answer to the previous question indicates
that Bohr intends to discuss the implications of military uses of atomic
weaponry. Although several answer choices provide context, only the
rhetoric in (C) refers to the “serious problems” that arise as a result of
the “enterprise,” by which Bohr means the potential use of atomic
energy for military purposes.
13. B
1136
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each answer choice for the word
“preponderance.” The correct answer will replace the word without
changing the meaning of its sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that the fact of immediate
preponderance is a weapon of great power. The preceding sentences
discuss the nonmilitary potential of that power. The implication is that
the military application is a matter of greater importance that must be
considered. Choice (B) is correct.
14. A
1137
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: As you prepare to answer this question, think about
the information provided in both the introduction and the first few
paragraphs of Bohr’s letter.
Getting to the Answer: The introduction states that before World War
II, Bohr performed work on atomic structure, which does not necessarily
have anything to do with military use of atomic energy. Paragraph 2 then
states that Bohr knew nothing about the American-British project—in
other words, the atomic bomb project—until he escaped from Denmark
and joined their efforts. Based on these two clues, one can infer that
Bohr’s work probably began as a nonmilitary pursuit. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
15. B
1138
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will support why
the answer to the previous question is correct.
Getting to the Answer: The answer to the previous question suggests
that Bohr’s work prior to World War II began as a nonmilitary pursuit.
Choice (B) is correct because it provides evidence of Bohr’s lack of
knowledge about the atomic bomb project until he was invited to
England by the British government.
16. A
1139
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Write a definition for the word “divergences” as it is
used in the sentence. Then, think about the meaning of each answer
choice. The correct choice will most nearly match your own definition.
Getting to the Answer: In the sentence, the word “divergences” occurs
in relation to the word “outlook” and implies discord and differences of
opinion or perspective. Therefore, the correct answer is (A).
17. C
1140
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices that relate to other material in
the passage but fail to relate specifically to the referenced lines.
Getting to the Answer: The complete sentence in which the quoted
phrase appears states: “Contrary to the hopes for fruitful cooperation …
the lack of mutual confidence became evident” (lines 41-44). The
surrounding paragraphs refer to an ominous political situation and
controversial matters during peace settlements. Choice (C) is correct
because the author claims that confidence, or trust, broke down among
nations because of this political discord.
18. D
1141
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Predict what point the author is trying to make about
knowledge in this section. Then select the answer choice that most
nearly reflects your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The referenced text suggests that because
knowledge is the basis of civilization, openness—or transparency—is
essential to resolving current problems. The correct answer is (D).
19. B
1142
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Paraphrase the author’s concluding argument in your
own words. Then, consider each answer choice. The correct choice will
most nearly align with the argument that you paraphrased.
Getting to the Answer: In the concluding paragraphs, Bohr calls for
greater openness and mutual cooperation among nations, particularly in
the realm of atomic development. Only (B), the monitoring of countries’
nuclear technologies, reflects this openness and mutual cooperation.
20. A
1143
Evolution of Computers Passage
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Paraphrase the meaning of the quoted sentence. The
correct answer will reflect how this sentence relates to the rest of the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence emphasizes the author’s purpose
for writing the letter—to explain the negative consequences of military
use of atomic energy. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
21. C
1144
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the entire passage carefully as you consider its
content, its purpose, and the tone. The correct answer will reflect the
passage’s intent and how the author presents the information.
Getting to the Answer: The passage discusses how data storage and
processing speeds of computers have improved over time, yet doesn’t
present a clear opinion about why or how this occurred in an attempt to
persuade the reader. The correct answer is (C).
22. B
1145
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the first three paragraphs carefully. Then
examine each answer choice and decide which one reflects a claim that
the author makes.
Getting to the Answer: The author notes that many contemporary
technologies can be traced back to the original ideas in Hollerith’s first
computer. The correct answer is (B).
23. C
1146
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Read each answer choice carefully. The correct
answer will support the claim identified in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The author is drawing a clear connection
between Hollerith’s machine and contemporary technologies when he
refers to today’s iPads and smartphones as “descendants” of Hollerith’s
machine. The correct answer is (C).
24. B
1147
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the previous paragraph to better understand
how the word “cumbersome” is used in the context of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In the previous paragraph, the author refers to
computer magnetic tape as the “size of a dinner plate” and subsequent
tapes as the size of a “small cassette.” Given that the author suggests the
desire to create increasingly smaller, more efficient storage units, the
correct answer is (B).
25. A
1148
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider why the author might have decided to start
the passage with a question posed directly to readers.
Getting to the Answer: Though it is somewhat possible that the
rhetorical question at the beginning of the passage helps readers relive a
bygone era, appreciate the U.S. Census, and acknowledge the
importance of computers, the correct answer is (A). The rhetorical
question mainly helps readers understand the enormity of Hollerith’s
initial task of counting people for the U.S. Census Bureau in the 1880s.
This, in turn, helps reinforce the importance of Hollerith’s contribution.
26. C
1149
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Decide which answer choice deals with an important
idea that the author suggests in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The author notes that the cost per megabyte of
data storage has fallen in the last few decades and that the computer
industry is able to produce more powerful storage devices for less cost.
Therefore, one can infer that consumers now get more data storage
capability for significantly less cost. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
27. C
1150
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will directly
support the conclusion you reached in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The answer to the previous question suggests
that consumers are getting more value for the money they spend on
computers. Lines 60-63 (“Within five … lower”) describe the
relationship between lower costs and the subsequent rise in consumer
demand, which suggests that consumers believe they are getting a good
deal. The correct answer is (C).
28. A
1151
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Study the relationship between the size of microchip
transistors in the y-axis and the passage of time in the x-axis. Be careful
of answer choices that are not fully supported by the data in the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The data in the graphic explicitly show that
between 2000 and 2008, the size of microchip transistors decreased
more dramatically than in other time periods shown. Therefore, (A) is
the correct answer.
29. B
1152
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the entire paragraph to better understand the
overall context in which the word “degrade” is used. Decide which
meaning fits this context.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B), “decay,” is the correct answer, as
it indicates one of the problems encountered with early magnetized
tapes. The other answer choices may be synonyms of “degrade,” but not
in this context.
30. A
1153
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Carefully reread the section titled
“Microprocessors,” in which the reference to the computer of the 1940s
occurs.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. The author
deliberately chose to include this fact to further emphasize the size of the
Intel 4004 in the reader’s mind. Contrasting the Intel 4004 with a
predecessor helps the reader better understand the relationship between
the two.
31. D
1154
Paired Passages—Solar Farming
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will combine
information in the passage with data presented in the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. It connects
the purpose of the graphic—to show how transistors have significantly
decreased in size—with the conclusion in the passage that transistors
have greatly increased in speed.
32. A
1155
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: When answering a central idea question, ask yourself
what the passage is mostly about rather than concentrating on details.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) describes what the passage is
mostly about. The other choices are based on misinformation or are
details that support the central idea.
33. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that may be mentioned in
passing or seem logical but do not reflect the author’s overall
perspective in Passage 2.
Getting to the Answer: While some of the choices are mentioned in the
passage, the author’s overall viewpoint is best summed up by (C).
1156
34. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for information in the passage about each of the
answer choices. Determine which one has the best support.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is suggested by the passage and is
the most plausible.
35. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices that do not provide direct
evidence to support your answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) directly supports the inference that
the developer of Topaz is respectful of the environment because it states
that the developer had a goal of low-impact development.
1157
36. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the passage and look for clues for each
possible answer. Use these clues to decide which inference is correct.
Beware of answers that are misleading.
Getting to the Answer: Based on what the passage says about birds,
(D) is the correct answer.
37. A
1158
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Make sure to choose the quote that best supports the
inference you made in the previous question. The correct answer will
have information that supports that inference directly.
Getting to the Answer: The idea that birds can easily be confused by
man-made structures is best supported by (A), which tells how birds
have mistaken solar panels for bodies of water.
38. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Decide which answer choice explains the difference
between the two purposes in the most accurate way.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. Passage 1 stresses the
benefits of solar farms, while Passage 2 casts an opposite approach,
showing the negative effects of these farms on birds.
1159
39. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence and substitute each word for the
target word. The correct answer will fit the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The context of the sentence suggests that only
(D) fits. This income was “forced,” or “pumped,” into the economy.
40. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence. Pretend the target word is a
blank and place each choice in the sentence. Decide which word would
work best in context.
Getting to the Answer: In the context provided, “realize” makes the
most sense as a synonym for “recognize.” Therefore, (D) is the correct
answer.
1160
41. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence and figure out what idea the
word “surprising” helps the author convey.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct because it helps convey
the idea that, contrary to most people’s way of thinking, solar energy can
have negative effects on the environment.
42. B
1161
Carbon Dioxide Passage
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Avoid choices that are suggested by only one of the
passages or are not mentioned at all.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. Though the
passages convey different points of view on solar farms, both support
the generalization that solar farms are an accepted way to generate
electricity.
43. A
1162
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that contain details found
in the passage but do not describe the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: The passage’s central idea is about methods
being developed to help remove carbon dioxide from the air. Choice
(A) is the correct answer.
44. D
1163
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Consider your answer to the previous question. The
correct answer to this question will provide the strongest support for the
central idea of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea of this passage is primarily
concerned with methods being developed to reduce levels of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere. Choice (D) provides the strongest support for
this idea because it explains these methods.
45. C
1164
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the relationship between paragraph 2
and the rest of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Paragraph 2 helps structure the passage by
explaining how carbon dioxide is removed from the air naturally through
photosynthesis and mentions this in the context of the past. Choice (C) is
the correct answer.
46. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about why the author compares the filters to
leaves. In what ways are the real and artificial leaves similar?
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 6, the author suggests that the
filters are like leaves because they can remove carbon dioxide from the
air. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
1165
47. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the passage’s central idea. Decide which
answer choice would be the most meaningful addition to the passage in
light of the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is mostly about the development
of new methods to remove carbon dioxide from the air. Details about
how increased global temperatures, caused by carbon dioxide, would
provide the strongest support for the central idea. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
48. B
1166
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and replace “convert” with each
of the answer choices. The correct answer will make sense in context
and will not change the overall meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “convert” most nearly means
“transform”; therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
49. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: For Inference questions, the correct answer will not
be stated directly in the passage but will be supported by the details
presented.
Getting to the Answer: It can be inferred from the passage that people
will resist technology that removes carbon dioxide from the air if it is
too expensive. Choice (D) is correct.
1167
50. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer choice in the passage and decide
which choice provides the strongest support for the answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 7, the author discusses how the
price of gasoline must increase to cover the cost of building artificial
trees that remove carbon dioxide from the air. The author adds that if the
cost comes down enough, these towers could be built and used. This
supports the conclusion from the previous question that people will
resist technology if it is too expensive. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
51. C
1168
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Before looking at the answer choices, try thinking of
synonyms for “commendable” that would make sense in context. Then
select the answer choice that closely matches the meaning of the
synonym you came up with.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “commendable” most nearly
means “admirable.” Choice (C) is the correct answer.
52. A
1169
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Study the data provided in the graphic. The correct
answer will be a claim from the passage that is supported by the
graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states: “We can burn fewer fossil
fuels by switching to other forms of power that don’t release carbon
dioxide, such as solar or wind power, but these methods are more
expensive” (lines 29-32). The graphic supports this statement with data
that show that solar and wind energy are the most expensive methods of
reducing carbon dioxide in the air. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
1170
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
Vitamin C—Essential Nutrient or Wonder Drug?
1. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Be wary of choices that are overly wordy and
redundant. Look for the option that communicates what is meant in the
most concise way.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer because it is
the most concise and effective way of stating the information.
1171
2. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Pretend the word is a blank in the sentence. Predict
which word could be substituted for the blank. Choose the word closest
in meaning to your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence goes on to state that Pauling won
the Nobel Peace Prize in addition to the Nobel Prize in Chemistry. You
can assume that someone who wins a peace prize would be “dedicated”
as a humanitarian. The other choices have similar meanings but are less
precise in their connotations. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
3. C
1172
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Look for the relationship between the first part of the
sentence and the second part. This will help you choose the appropriate
transition word.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) shows the relationship between the
two parts of the sentence and how the ideas contrast with one another.
The transition word “however” suggests this contrast of ideas.
4. C
1173
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Look for the sentence that does not support the
central idea about the relationship between vitamin C and good health.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) does not reflect the central idea of
the paragraph, which is about the relationship between vitamin C and
good health. Instead, (C) focuses on the origins of the word “scurvy,”
making it the least relevant sentence and, therefore, the correct answer.
5. B
1174
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence with each of the answer choices to
see which one makes the most sense within the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 2, the author calls Pauling “one of
the earliest, and most famous, of the vitamin C supporters.” This makes
it clear that Pauling and others thought that increased amounts of vitamin
C would be helpful. As a chemist, Pauling based his beliefs on scientific
evidence, so the word that makes the most sense in this context is
“reasoned.” Choice (B) is correct.
6. D
1175
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Two complete thoughts should be two separate
sentences or clauses. Be careful of inappropriate transition words or
incorrect punctuation. Think about how clauses that are closely related
to each other can be connected but separate.
Getting to the Answer: The semicolon is one option for dividing two
complete thoughts that are closely tied to one another. Choice (D) is
correct.
7. D
1176
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the sentence that offers the strongest support,
look for the sentence that provides the most detailed evidence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) has the most precise details about
how much sick time is reduced when a lot of vitamin C is taken. It gives
specific data, which provide stronger support for the claim. (D) is the
correct answer.
8. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph to establish the verb tense.
Identify the key verbs in the paragraph and their tenses.
Getting to the Answer: The verbs “is,” “can,” and “absorb” are
present tense, making (B) the correct choice.
1177
9. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Study the words in the series. Decide where a
comma might need to be added or eliminated.
Getting to the Answer: Recall that the SAT requires a series of three
items to have commas after each of the first two items in the list, not just
the first item. Choice (C) is correct.
10. C
1178
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that may have incorrect
transition words and that may change the intended meaning of the
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) joins the sentences concisely and
correctly by choosing a transition word that makes sense in the context
of the sentences. A comma plus the word “and” combines the two
complete ideas.
11. A
1179
The Familiar Myth
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and then read each of the
choices. Decide which one is a fitting conclusion for the rest of the
information in the paragraph and the passage. Be careful of details that
do not relate to the entire paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) best concludes the paragraph by
stating the overall idea of the paragraph—and of the entire passage.
12. A
1180
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph for context clues and to
assess the author’s intention in the sentence. Then determine which
adjective offers the most appropriate meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The author states that Campbell’s work holds
the “key” to understanding the topic at hand, implying that Campbell’s
book is influential and important. The correct answer is (A), as
“seminal” means “highly influential.”
13. D
1181
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Review the entire paragraph to understand what verb
tense the author is using to convey the information. Then determine if
and how the sentence needs to change to become grammatically correct.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph is about Jermaine’s research on
what Campbell said in the past, which creates a precedent for using the
past tense. Only (D) adjusts the sentence so it consistently uses the past
tense, making it the correct choice.
14. B
1182
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Review the sentence to assess the subject’s
ownership in the sentence. Then determine which form of the possessive
noun correctly reflects this ownership.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence refers to a singular hero going on
a journey. Choice (B) is the only choice that shows a singular hero in
possession of his or her journey. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
15. C
1183
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Possessive determiners, contractions, and adverbs
are often confused with one another. Review each answer choice and
choose the one that is logical and grammatically correct.
Getting to the Answer: Choice B is both wordy and confusing, and the
adverb “there” in choice A refers to a location. Only (C) refers to the
journey belonging to the heroes, making it the correct answer.
16. A
1184
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: After reading the paragraph, evaluate each answer
choice to determine which best summarizes the overall message of the
paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph discusses Jermaine’s
exploration of different cultures and how they tell stories using
monomyth legends. The only choice that accurately summarizes this idea
is (A), thus making it the correct answer.
17. D
1185
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: In a parallel sentence, a series of items or actions
that begin with a specific pattern must retain that pattern throughout.
Review the sentence to ensure the items in the series follow a
grammatically correct and parallel pattern.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is not parallel as written because
there is a break in the verb-noun pattern. Choice (D) corrects this
problem.
18. C
1186
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Decide whether the underlined portion creates a
grammatically correct and logical flow of ideas. If not, select the
answer choice that does so.
Getting to the Answer: As is, the second “sentence” is a fragment, as
it does not have both a verb and a subject. Choice (C) correctly
combines the sentences.
19. D
1187
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Assess the relationship between the two portions of
the sentences separated by the underlined punctuation. Then determine
which answer choice creates a grammatically correct sentence with a
logical relationship between each portion.
Getting to the Answer: Because the portion of the sentence that falls
after the dash offers further explanation of the preceding portion
(explaining what else the fire represents), a colon is the best choice. A
comma would be grammatically incorrect, and while a period is
tempting, it indicates a stronger break than necessary between the two
clauses. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
20. B
1188
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence to determine the correct
relationship between the pronouns and the antecedent. Select the answer
choice that creates a grammatically correct sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The two appearances of the pronoun “its” are
singular and do not match the antecedent, in this case “stories,” which is
plural. Choice (B) is correct because it creates a sentence that uses the
proper pronoun “their” in each location to match the antecedent.
21. D
1189
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Assess the paragraph’s purpose and determine which
additional fact noted in the answer choices would strengthen the
author’s claims.
Getting to the Answer: The purpose of the paragraph is to explain how
myths from different cultures share common ideals and symbols.
Including the location of the Kayapo Indians’ homeland would strengthen
this idea, as the author has already included locations for other
examples. Thus, (D) is correct.
22. B
1190
America’s Love for Streetcars
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the paragraph for context clues and determine
which word’s definition most appropriately matches the context.
Getting to the Answer: The author makes the point in the paragraph
that the monomyth is widely accepted and understood. Answer choice
(B) is correct, as it offers the definition that best conveys this idea.
23. B
1191
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: A pronoun such as “they” should always have a clear
relationship to its antecedent. If it doesn’t, then a revision is needed.
Getting to the Answer: The pronoun “they” is unclear; as used, it
could refer to the trolleys themselves. Choice D introduces an error
because a dependent clause cannot begin after a semicolon. Only (B)
clarifies what the sentence means and is therefore the correct answer.
24. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify in your own words what this paragraph is
primarily about. Which choice matches your idea?
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph includes positive things about
trolleys. Choice (A) is correct.
1192
25. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider what each item in this series is
communicating. Can any of the items be eliminated to make the sentence
flow better while still making grammatical sense?
Getting to the Answer: All three of the ideas in this series say
essentially the same thing. The entire list can be made more concise by
shortening it to “were faster.” Choice (C) is correct.
26. D
1193
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: The correct answer should provide information that
adds support or additional detail to the prior sentences.
Getting to the Answer: The rest of the paragraph discusses the change
to intercity trolleys and their financial advantage over steam railroads.
Choice (D) provides additional detail that shows how intercity trolleys
were used by those needing to save money, and it is the correct answer.
27. B
1194
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Substitute each answer choice to see if one would
make a good replacement for “ration​alizing.” Note the differences in
meaning between these similar-looking words.
Getting to the Answer: “Rationalizing” means “justifying.” In the
context of the sentence, this does not make sense. However, (B),
“rationing,” means “distributing a limited amount among a group.” This
is what was done with gasoline during World War II. Choice (B) is
correct.
28. C
1195
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider the subtle differences among the answer
choices. Which best applies to a situation in which interest is renewed
in an idea?
Getting to the Answer: As written, the sentence containing
“resumption” suggests starting where one left off after a brief pause or
interruption. This is not quite an accurate description of what happened
to the interest in interurban lines. In the previous sentence, “renewed
interest in” clearly points to the idea of becoming popular again. Only
(C), “renaissance,” accurately conveys a “rebirth” of interest in the
trolley lines. Choice (C) is correct.
29. B
1196
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Pay close attention to the events described in this
paragraph and the words that signal a relationship among them. Then
decide on a logical order for the sentences.
Getting to the Answer: To help ideas flow logically, it makes more
sense to place the current sentence 2, in which the Model-T is
introduced, before the current sentence 1, in which the increased
availability of automobiles affects trolley operations. The word
“however” in sentence 2 also suggests that the invention of the
automobile should come as a surprise after whatever information has
just been presented. Therefore, sentence 2 should follow the previous
paragraph, in which trolleys seem to be popular and successful. Choice
(B) is, therefore, the correct answer.
30. A
1197
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Remember that when connected ideas are combined
into one sentence, the new sentence often eliminates some of the
repeated words.
Getting to the Answer: The original sentences begin with the same
words: “Critics argue .… ” To create sentence variety, these sentences
can be combined to express both ideas. Choices C and D still use the
word “critics,” which is unnecessary. Choice B is grammatically correct
but changes the sentence’s intended meaning by removing the cause-and-
effect relationship between the speed and cost efficiency of modern
streetcars. Only (A) combines the sentences in a concise and
grammatically correct way. It uses “modern streetcars,” the subject of
the phrase beginning with “that,” as the subject for the verbs “aren’t”
and “will be.” Choice (A) is the correct answer.
31. B
1198
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Study the graphic carefully and consider how its
information connects to the content of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows that the use of cars is
dominant in the United States as a whole but that a substantial
percentage of residents in Washington, DC, uses public transportation.
As written, the sentence ignores the popularity of public transportation
in Washington, DC. Choice D is not supported either, as there is no way
to tell from the graphic how these numbers are changing. Choice C states
the situation backward: It is in urban areas that public transportation is
most useful. Choice (B) is correct because its information is supported
directly by the graphic.
32. A
1199
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: When presented with answer choices that are similar
in meaning, reread the paragraph for context. Then choose the word with
the connotation that best fits the context.
Getting to the Answer: A “revival” is an exciting event that provokes
strong emotion. Only (A) accurately expresses the enthusiasm these
communities feel about this revival and is the correct choice.
33. D
1200
Educating Early
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether all of the underlined terms are
included as part of a list, and if so, punctuate them according to the rules
for items in a series.
Getting to the Answer: All four items do seem to be part of a list; they
are all attributes of public transportation. Therefore, a comma should be
placed between each item in the list, and in addition, a comma should be
placed after “fast,” because it ends a dependent clause. Choice (D) is
correct.
34. B
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Decide if the words in the underlined portion of the
sentence maintain the overall meaning and context of the paragraph. Do
any of the answer choices offer a clearer meaning?
Getting to the Answer: “Consisting of” means “made up of,” which
connects to the ideas in the next sentence listing the occupations that
make up the field of early childhood education.
35. A
1202
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Carefully review the sentence as written to decide
whether there is an error. Determine whether the two parts of the
sentence can stand independently.
Getting to the Answer: The phrase “as well as a healthy measure of
fun” cannot stand on its own because it lacks a verb. Choice (A) is
correct.
36. B
1203
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the list of items is a series
needing commas. Commas should separate only the items in the series.
Getting to the Answer: Because there is a list of attributes in the
sentence, commas should be used to separate the items. However, a
comma is not needed to separate “physically” from “energetic,” as the
former is an adjective that modifies the latter. Choice (B) is correct.
37. C
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Establish if both of the underlined sentences are
punctuated correctly to convey the author’s meaning. If not, how can you
change the punctuation to correct the problem?
Getting to the Answer: The period after “positions” is inappropriately
placed, creating the sentence “A high school diploma is sufficient.” This
sentence does not make sense given that the previous sentence said that
varying levels of training are required. Placing the period after
“required” creates two sentences that make sense together. Choice (C) is
correct.
38. A
1205
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Make sure the verbs in a series maintain the same
grammatical structure.
Getting to the Answer: Parallel ideas must be expressed in the same
grammatical form. Here, the infinitive “to listen” is paired with the
infinitives “to learn” and “to enjoy school.” This maintains the same
grammatical form throughout the series. Choice (A) is correct.
39. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Look back to find what subject the verb must match.
Then review the rest of the paragraph to determine the correct verb
tense.
Getting to the Answer: “Lessons” is plural and the paragraph uses the
present tense, so (D) is correct.
1206
40. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Analyze the sentences of the paragraph to establish
the overarching idea.
Getting to the Answer: Most of the sentences in the paragraph pertain
to the growth of the field and opportunities for employment; therefore,
(B) is correct.
41. C
1207
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Check that the pronoun agrees with its antecedent in
number and gender. Remember that an apostrophe can indicate
possession or a contraction.
Getting to the Answer: The antecedent, “preschool,” is singular and
possessive. The possessive form of “it” does not take an apostrophe.
Choice (C) is correct.
42. D
1208
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider whether the word fits with the context clues
in the rest of the paragraph. Test the other choices in its place to identify
a more precise meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph focuses on positive growth and
outcomes in the field of early childhood education. The adjective
“enduring” accurately conveys a steady, lasting growth in the jobs in this
field. Choice (D) is the most precise of the answer choices and is,
therefore, correct.
43. B
1209
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify the central idea of the paragraph before
choosing the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The sentences in this paragraph all refer to the
prospects for the job market in ECE. The paragraph offers evidence that
more ECE programs are being funded to illustrate steady growth in the
field. The correct answer will need to provide similar evidence. Choice
(B) is correct.
44. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Keep the central idea of the passage in mind as you
review the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows that the vast majority of
ECE jobs are in schools and day care centers. Choice (A) is correct.
1210
1211
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
Difficulty:
1212
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Think about the words in the scenario and the
operations they describe.
Getting to the Answer: In the scenario, there are a specified number of
cards in the deck, from which 3 are removed, or subtracted. This means
b must represent the initial number of cards in the deck, from which the
remaining cards ( b  – 3) are distributed, or divided, equally among the
players. This means c must represent the number of players among
whom the cards are divided, making (A) correct. Although it is not
asked for in the question, the result of performing all the operations (a)
represents the number of cards each player receives.
2. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Start by determining what each part of the function
given represents.
1213
Getting to the Answer: The function represents the number of kits the
hospital will have, so k(b) is the total number of kits. The question tells
you that b is the number of boxes ordered, which you also know to be
50. Because b is multiplied by 12, this must be the number of kits per
box. Finally, 32 is simply added to the equation, which must mean it
represents the kits left over from last year’s charity drive. Now, look at
the question. It states that the company has changed the number of kits
per box to 8. Evaluate the original function at b  = 50 to see how many
kits the hospital would have had: k (50) = 12(50) + 32 = 632.
Now, substitute this for k(b) in the new function, replacing the 12 with
the 8, and solve for b:
Be careful—this is not the answer. She needs to order 75 – 50 = 25
more boxes than she would have had to order at 12 kits per box.
3. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
1214
Strategic Advice: Corresponding sides of similar triangles are
proportional, and corresponding angles are congruent.
Getting to the Answer: You can eliminate B immediately because
corresponding angles of similar triangles are congruent, so they are
always in a 1:1 ratio. You can also eliminate A because side CA does
not correspond to side DG (CA corresponds to DO), so you cannot say
that they will be in the same ratio. Because the side lengths are
proportional, when you add the lengths of all the side lengths (the
perimeter), this number will be in the same proportion, so (D) is
correct. You can check this by assigning numbers that are in the ratio 2:7
and finding the perimeter of each triangle:
TC  = 2 and GD  = 7
CA  = 4 and DO  = 14
AT  = 6 and OG  = 21
Perimeter of triangle CAT  = 2 + 4 + 6 = 12
Perimeter of triangle DOG  = 7 + 14 + 21 = 42
12:42 = 2:7
1215
4. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Whenever simplifying a square root, look for the
largest perfect square of each factor. Bring the square root of the perfect
squares outside the radical.
Getting to the Answer:
5. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t try to extend the graphs in a question like this.
The answers are very close together, and it would be easy to make a
1216
mistake. Instead, think algebraically—the solution to a system of
equations is the ordered pair that satisfies both equations. Thus, you
need to find the equation of each line and solve the system using
substitution.
Getting to the Answer: Start with the top line. Its y-intercept is 8, and
it falls 1 unit for every 2 units it runs, so its slope is  making the
equation  The bottom line has a y-intercept of −2, and it
rises 1 unit for every 3 units is runs, so its slope is  making its
equation 
Set the two equations equal to one another. Multiply everything by the
common denominator, 6, to clear the fractions. Then perform inverse
operations to solve for x:
You do not need to substitute 12 for x and solve for y because there is
only one answer with an x-coordinate of 12, which means (B) must be
correct.
1217
6. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When you find the language confusing, try to put it in
concrete terms. If you wanted to know how much more 8 was than 5,
what would you do? You would subtract 8 – 5 = 3 more. So you need to
subtract these two algebraic expressions.
Getting to the Answer: Don’t forget to distribute the negative when
simplifying the difference:
(7 x  + 3) − (7 x  − 9) = 7 x  + 3 − 7 x  + 9 = 122 2 2 2
7. D
1218
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Don’t waste time trying to graph the second equation.
Instead, think about the question conceptually. The magnitude of the
coefficient of x  (not the sign) determines how wide or narrow the graph
is.
Getting to the Answer: Changing the coefficient of x  from –3 to 
will make the graph narrower or wider (in this case, wider), which
means the only things that will change are the x-intercepts. This means
you can eliminate A and B. To choose between C and (D), recall that
fraction coefficients (between 0 and 1) result in wider graphs, so the x-
intercepts will spread out and therefore be farther from the origin.
2
2
8. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: This question has multiple fractions, so start by
clearing the  by multiplying both sides of the equation by its
1219
reciprocal, 
Getting to the Answer: You might have to repeat this process to
eliminate any remaining fractions.
There are still a couple of fractions in the equation, so multiply by the
common denominator this time, which is 9.
9. A
1220
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The range of a function is the set of possible values
of y, or output values.
Getting to the Answer: Think about the scenario—if c represents the
maximum number of crates (which is 4,000), then the range can certainly
never be greater than this, so eliminate C and D. Now you need to think
about the meaning of range—range refers to y-values, not x-values, so
substitute 4,000 for c (which represents x in this scenario) to find that
the y-values must fall between 0 and 100. The range consists only of
integers because the question states that the machine does not pack
partial boxes.
10. C
1221
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You cannot graph the given equation on the grid, so
find the equation of line K shown in the graph and go from there.
Getting to the Answer: Line K intersects the y-axis at –4. From there,
it rises 4 units and runs 3 units to the next point, making its equation
 Now, you could set this equation equal to the one in the
question and solve for x, or you could recognize that the two lines have
the same slope but different y-intercepts, which means they are parallel
lines and will never intersect.
11. C
1222
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, the best way to answer a conceptual
question, particularly one that involves graphs without number labels, is
to add your own numbers to the graph. Then you can try to make sense of
the axis labels and the numbers you added.
Getting to the Answer: Add reasonable numbers to each graph that
make sense for that graph. (C) is correct because logically, a more-
effective herbicide requires fewer ounces to eliminate all of the weeds.
In the sample graph below, the more effective herbicide (which is m)
only takes 3 ounces to achieve 0% weeds remaining, while the less
effective one (which is l) takes 5 ounces to produce the same results.
1223
12. C
1224
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Although the answer choices are given in decimal
form, don’t convert the fractions in the inequalities to decimals—this
will create very messy calculations.
Getting to the Answer: Solve each inequality for t by first clearing all
the fractions.
First inequality: Second inequality:
Now, because the answer choices are given in decimal form, convert
 The correct answer is greater (but not equal) to 2.25
and less than 3. The only answer that falls within this range is 2.75,
making (C) correct.
1225
13. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: A double zero occurs in a polynomial when a factor
is repeated, or in other words, squared. For example, the factor ( x  – a )
produces a simple zero at x  = a , while ( x  – b )  produces a double
zero at x  = b .
Getting to the Answer: The polynomial has a simple zero at x  = 4,
which corresponds to a factor of ( x  – 4), and all of the answers include
this factor. The double zero at  results from a repeated
(squared) factor, so you can eliminate C and D. To choose between A
and (B), set each factor equal to 0 and then use inverse operations to
solve for x (mentally if possible). The polynomial in A has zeroes at 4
and –3 (not ), so you can eliminate A. Choice (B) is correct because
it has a double zero when
2
1226
14. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to know a lot of trig to answer this
question. You will, however, need to know how to convert radians to
degrees (multiply the radians by ).
Getting to the Answer: Recall that g ( x ) = 0 means “crosses the x-
axis,” regardless of the type of function involved, which means you are
looking for the x-intercepts. Study the graph carefully: The function
crosses the x-axis six times, halfway between each of the labeled grid-
lines. Rather than finding the points using the radians given in the graph,
convert the radians to degrees and then determine the halfway points:
 
 and so on. Take a minute now to find the
halfway points because chances are that you don’t have to do all the
conversions. Halfway between –180° and –120° is –150°. Stop—that’s
all you need to know. The leftmost x-intercept is at –150°, which means
(C) must be correct. If you want to check another value just to be sure,
halfway between –120° and –60° is –90°, which is the second value in
(C), confirming that it is correct.
1227
15. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Determine the rate at which each filter cleans the
water supply. Then add them together to get the combined rate.
Getting to the Answer: You’re told that either of the two water-bottle-
sized filters can filter the whole supply in 8 hours. This means one of
these filters works at a rate of  of the supply per hour. Likewise, the
larger filter’s rate is  of the supply per hour. Add them all together, set
them equal to  (the rate for the entire task), and solve for t.
1228
Therefore, working together, it would take all three filters 2 hours to
filter the entire water supply.
16. 1/3 or .333
1229
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When a grid is provided for you, take the time to
draw a sketch on the grid.
Getting to the Answer: Sketch the reflection on the grid:
Use your sketch to count the vertical change and the horizontal change
from one point to the next. Remember—slope is rise over run. The
slope of the reflected line is  Grid this in as 1/3 or .333.
1230
17. Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Whenever expressions involve fractions, you can
clear the fractions by multiplying each term in the expression by the
least common denominator. Don’t forget—when working with
inequalities, if you multiply or divide by a negative number, you must
flip the inequality symbol(s).
Getting to the Answer: The inequality in this question is a compound
inequality, but you don’t need to break it into parts. Just be sure that
anything you do to one piece of the inequality, you do to all three pieces.
Start by multiplying everything by 8 to clear the fractions.
1231
Turn the inequality around so the numbers are increasing from left to
right:  This tells you that k is less than or equal to 1,
making 1 the maximum possible value of k.
18. 1/2 or .5
1232
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Jot down the first few points and look for a pattern.
Getting to the Answer: The points are (0, 2,400), (1, 1,200), (2, 600),
(3, 300), and so on. This means each y-value is half the previous value,
so b, which is the decay rate, is  Grid this in as 1/2 or .5.
19. 3/4 or .75
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: To evaluate a high power of i, look for patterns and
use the definition  which can be written in a more useful form
as i  = –1.
Getting to the Answer: Write out enough powers of i that allow you to
see the pattern:
2
1233
Notice that the pattern (i, –1, –i, 1, i, –1, –i, 1) repeats on a cycle of 4.
To evaluate i , divide 42 by 4. The result is 10, remainder 2, which
means 10 full cycles, and then back to i . This means i  is equivalent to
i , which is –1. Do the same for i : 60 ÷ 4 = 15, remainder 0, which
means stop on the 4th cycle to find that i  = 1. Make these substitutions
in the original equation:
Grid in the answer as 3/4 or .75.
42
2 42
2 60
60
20. 4
Difficulty: Hard
1234
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Sometimes in a real-world scenario, you need to
think logically to get a mental picture of what is happening. Think about
the concentration of the medicine—it starts at 0, increases to a maximum
of 0.375, and then decreases again as it begins to wear off. This means
the concentration is 0.3 two times—once before it hits the max and once
after. In this case, you’re looking for the second occurrence.
Getting to the Answer: Set the function equal to 0.3 and solve for t.
Don’t stress out about the decimals—as soon as you have the equation in
some kind of standard form, you can move the decimals to get rid of
them.
To make the equation easier to work with, move the decimal one place
to the right in each term. The result is a fairly nice quadratic equation.
Move everything to the left side, factor out a 3, and go from there.
1235
Don’t forget, you’re looking for the second occurrence of a 0.3
concentration (after the medicine has started to wear off), so the correct
answer is 4 hours.
1236
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The mean rating means the average score given. To
find the average, multiply each score by the number of times it occurs
(the frequency). Then, add the results and divide by the total number of
scores, 20.
Getting to the Answer: The sum of the ratings is (2 × 4) + (3 × 6) + (4
× 8) + (5 × 2) = 8 + 18 + 32 + 10 = 68.
Divide by the number of ratings to find that the mean is 68 ÷ 20 = 3.4.
1237
2. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: There is a lot of information in this question. Focus
on the question in the last couple of sentences.
Getting to the Answer: Find the difference in the costs of shipping
each type of wood by substituting the two values given for p and then
subtracting.
3. B
1238
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Use the formula Distance = rate × time and solve for
time. Then, substitute the value given for distance, 1,907. Remember, m
is the rate in this scenario.
Getting to the Answer: All of the inequality symbols are the same, so
look for the inequality with the proper relationship among distance, rate,
and time.
Choice (B) is correct.
4. D
1239
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t let this rational equation intimidate you. Rather
than finding a common denominator, move the 16 to the other side of the
equation, write it over 1, and use cross-multiplication. Don’t forget to
check that your solution doesn’t cause the denominator to be 0. If it
does, then it’s an invalid solution.
Getting to the Answer: After moving the 16, cross-multiply and then
solve for x using inverse operations.
When substituted into the denominator of the original equation, 3 does
not cause division by 0, so it is a valid solution.
1240
5. C
1241
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Find the ratios of the first two categories and then
apply either one to the third.
Getting to the Answer: Write out the ratios of the prices and the
ratings: 1.89 to 5.49 and 2.8 to 8.2.
Set up a proportion with the life expectancy and either ratio. Let e be the
unknown life expectancy of the high-end carpet.
You can check your answer using the other ratio:
1242
The high-end carpeting can be expected to last about 15 years.
6. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The mean is the average of the data, while the
median is the midpoint. When the shape of the data is symmetric, the
mean is approximately equal to the median.
Getting to the Answer: The two age brackets that are being removed
contain the same amount of data and are on opposite sides of the center
of the data, so there will be no significant change to either the mean or
the median.
7. C
1243
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Draw a quick sketch of the line described and
compare it to the answer choices. Don’t forget, the quadrants start with I
in the upper right corner and move counterclockwise.
Getting to the Answer: A sample sketch follows:
Notice that the line is increasing, so the slope is positive ( m  > 0). This
means you can eliminate A and B. The line crosses the y-axis below the
origin, so b is negative ( b  < 0), which means (C) is correct.
8. A
1244
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: This question is very conceptual. You need to
understand what each part of the graph represents. The y-intercept
represents the fixed costs, while the slope (the per-unit cost) represents
the variable costs.
Getting to the Answer: Compare the two lines. The second line (2014)
has a lower y-intercept than the first (2013), which means the company
reduced its fixed costs. You don’t need to worry about the 50% because
all the answer choices involve this same amount. You can eliminate B
and C because they don’t mention fixed costs. To determine whether the
variable costs changed, look at the slopes. The lines are parallel, so the
slope did not change, which means the variable costs did not change.
Therefore, the company only reduced its fixed costs, and (A) is correct.
9. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
1245
Strategic Advice: This system is set up perfectly to solve using
substitution because both equations are already solved for y.
Getting to the Answer: Set both x expressions equal to one another
and solve. Multiply the whole equation by 4 first, to get rid of the
fractions.
The question asks for the y-coordinate of the solution, so substitute 4 for
x in either equation and solve for y.
As an alternate method, because the equations are already in slope-
intercept form, you could graph both equations in your calculator and
find the point of intersection, which is (4, –2).
1246
10. D
1247
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: To calculate the combined mean weight, you would
need to know how many male babies and how many female babies there
are in their respective groups, which is not provided in the question.
Getting to the Answer: Because the mean weights are different and
you do not know how many male or how many female babies there are
in the NICU, you need to reason logically to arrive at the correct
answer. The mean weight of the female babies is lower than that of the
male babies, so the combined mean cannot be greater than or equal to
that of the male babies. Similarly, the mean weight of the male babies is
greater than that of the female babies, so the combined mean cannot be
less than or equal to the mean weight of the female babies. In other
words, the combined mean weight must fall somewhere between the two
means, making (D) correct.
11. A
1248
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: ABC is a right triangle. You know the length of one
side and the measure of one of the acute angles, which means you can
use SOH CAH TOA.
Getting to the Answer: You know the length of the hypotenuse (10) and
you’re looking for the length of the side adjacent to (touching) the 53°
angle, so use cosine. Set up a trigonometric ratio and solve for the length
of AB. Make sure your calculator is set to degree mode.
The length of AB is approximately 6.
12. B
1249
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: A question like this requires planning. Start by
figuring out how much of the loan the couple has already paid down and
how much they still have left to meet their goal.
Getting to the Answer: If they have reduced the principal amount by
10%, they have paid the loan down to 100 – 10 = 90% of its original
value. Use the formula Percent × whole = part to get $220,000 × 0.9 =
$198,000 remaining on the principal. So, after two years, the value of
the loan is $198,000, which means the couple still have $198,000 –
$170,000 = $28,000 of the principal loan amount left to pay off to reach
their goal. Now, determine what percent of the remaining whole this
constitutes using the same formula again. The percent is unknown this
time, so call it p:
Therefore, the couple needs to pay down approximately 14% of the
current principal amount to reach their goal.
1250
13. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: This question is much simpler than it looks. Don’t
waste time trying to find the equation of the quadratic. Rather, think
about properties of parabolas, in particular, symmetry.
Getting to the Answer: The graph of a parabola is symmetric with
respect to its axis of symmetry (the imaginary vertical line that passes
through the x-coordinate of the vertex). This means that each x-intercept
must be the same distance from the vertex. Take a careful look at the
values in the table. The y-values start at 3.5, decrease to a minimum
value of –4.5, and then turn around. The points on each side of the
minimum have the same y-values (–4), which means you’ve found the
vertex, (5, –4.5). The x-intercept given in the table is (2, 0), which is 3
horizontal units to the left of 5. Therefore, the other x-intercept must be 3
horizontal units to the right of 5, which is (8, 0).
14. C
1251
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: This question is all about reading the table carefully
and identifying the pieces of information that you need.
Getting to the Answer: The question asks about vegetarian and vegan
dishes, so you are only concerned with those two columns. Find the total
number of vegetarian and vegan dishes: 1 + 3 + 5 + 4 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 4 +
2 + 0 = 22. The question wants to know which fraction of these dishes
has a health score of 3 or higher, so now look at those 3 rows of the last
2 columns and add those amounts: 5 + 4 + 1 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 16. Now,
write a fraction that represents 16 out of 22 and reduce: 
15. A
1252
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, rewording a probability question makes
it clearer, particularly when there is a lot of information given in a table.
Getting to the Answer: Reword the question: Find the probability that
the student randomly chooses a dish that is both meat and has a health
score of at least 4. This tells you that you are only interested in the
combinations meat/4 and meat/5. The probability of randomly selecting
one of these two combinations is (number of meat/4 + number of meat/5)
divided by (number of all dishes). Now read the table and do the math.
To save a bit of time, recall that you already found the total number of
vegetarian and vegan dishes (22) in the previous question, so all you
need to do is add the meat dishes:
16. A
1253
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t worry too much about the scientific
information. All you really need to know is that k is the viscosity, which
means you’re solving the equation for k.
Getting to the Answer: The inverse of taking a fourth root is raising to
the fourth power, so start by raising both sides of the equation to the
fourth power to remove the radical, and then go from there.
17. D
Difficulty: Medium
1254
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Write a system of equations with m  = the number of
muffins and c  = the number of cartons of milk. Before you choose your
answer, make sure you answered the right question (the cost of two
cartons of milk).
Getting to the Answer: Translate from English into math to write the
two equations: The first statement is translated as 2 m  + c  = $3.35 and
the second as 5 m  + c  = $5.60. The system is
You could solve the system using substitution, but elimination is quicker
in this question, because subtracting the second equation from the first
eliminates c, and you can solve for m:
Substitute this value for m in the first equation, and solve for c:
1255
So two cartons of milk would cost 2 × $1.85 = $3.70.
18. D
1256
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: You are told that the function is exponential, which
means the y-values are not changing by a constant amount (which is
supported by the values in the calculator screenshot).
Getting to the Answer: You can immediately eliminate B and C
because these describe linear functions (the value decreases by a
constant amount each time). To choose between A and (D), think
logically about how the graph would be labeled (if it had labels). The
value of a car depends on how many miles it has been driven, so value
would be plotted along the y-axis, and miles driven would be plotted
along the x-axis. Now, apply this to the values in the calculator
screenshot. The miles driven (x) increase by 5,000 each time, and for
every 5,000-mile increase, the value of the car drops. This means (D) is
correct. To check this answer, you can multiply each y-value in the table
by 100 – 12 = 88%, or 0.88, to see if the values are in fact decreasing
by 12% each time (which they are).
19. B
Difficulty: Medium
1257
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: This question is very straightforward if you
understand the language of functions. Although you could set the second
equation equal to 0 and solve for x, the solution can be found simply by
looking at the graph.
Getting to the Answer: The statement f(x) = 5 means to find the x-
values on the graph when y is 5. To do this, draw a horizontal line
across the graph at y  = 5 and read the x-coordinates of the points where
the line intersects the parabola.
The function y  = – x  – 2 x  + 8 has x-values of –3 and 1 when y  = 5.2
1258
20. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, a question includes information that is
not needed, making it appear more complicated than it really is. In this
question, the number of actual voters in the district has nothing to do
with the ratio that you’re looking for.
Getting to the Answer: Because the figures in the pie chart are given
as percentages, the ratio will be the same no matter how many voters
there are in the district. All you need to do is compare Republicans to
Independents. The question does not specify an age range, so add both
together for each. The district consists of 14 + 28 = 42 parts Republican
and 9 + 3 = 12 parts Independent, so the ratio is 42:12, which reduces to
7:2.
21. C
1259
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Be very careful that you understand what the question
is asking. The question wants to know about total late fees, not the total
charges and not the late fees per movie.
Getting to the Answer: Think about the question conceptually before
you examine the graphs. The question asks about late fees only, not total
charges. If the movies are returned on time, or 0 days late, the late fees
will be $0, so the graph must start at the origin. Eliminate B and D.
Next, the question asks about total late fees for all four movies. The late
fee is $0.50 per movie per day, so the late fee for all four movies is 4 ×
$0.5 = $2 per day. This means (C) must be correct because the points
increase at a rate of $2 per day. (Note that A shows the possible late
fees for returning one movie late.)
22. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
1260
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question guide you to the
solution. The thawing rates of the different methods are given in pounds,
but one is given in pounds per day and the other in pounds per 30
minutes. The question asks about the number of ounces each method can
thaw in 2 hours, so convert pounds per day and pounds per 30 minutes
to ounces per hour.
Getting to the Answer: Start by converting pounds to ounces. There
are 16 ounces in 1 pound, so 4 pounds is 64 ounces and 1 pound is 16
ounces. Now, use the factor-label method to incorporate the time
conversions.
Refrigerator Method:
Cold Water Method:
In 2 hours, the cold water method can thaw approximately 64 – 5.33 =
58.67 or about 59 more ounces.
1261
23. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: When a question concerns distance, rate, and time,
organizing the information in a table is usually very helpful.
Getting to the Answer: Use the equation Distance = rate × time.
Distance Rate Time
Normal Trip 200 r t
Faster Trip 200 r  + 10 t  – 1
Now, set up a system of equations: 200 = rt  and 200 = ( r  + 10)( t  – 1).
Solve the system by solving the first equation for r and substituting the
result into the second equation; the first equation is
 Tip: Go ahead and FOIL the factors in the
second equation before substituting the value of r.
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Now, factor out a 10, find a common denominator, and you’ll wind up
with a fairly nice quadratic equation to solve.
The two solutions are t  = 5 and t  = –4. Time can’t be negative, so t  =
5. Substitute this back into the first equation (because the question asks
about her original speed) and solve for r. Her normal speed is
 miles per hour.
24. C
1263
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When a question asks for a number that results in the
same amount of something, it usually means writing an equation with
one expression set equal to the other.
Getting to the Answer: Let m represent the number of movie rentals.
The Movie Super Fan package costs $75 for unlimited rentals, so write
75 on one side of the equal sign. The other package costs $2.50 per
rental (not including the first 10 rentals), or 2.5( m  – 10), plus a flat $20
fee for those first 10 rentals, so write 2.5( m  – 10) + 20 on the other
side of the equal sign. Simplify the right-hand side of the equation and
then use inverse operations to solve for m.
Renting 32 movies would result in equal package costs, so (C) is
correct. Note that this is one of those rare occasions when you could
work backward from the answer choices (even though it may use up
valuable time). Try 32 in the scenario: The first 10 movies are free, so
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you must pay for 22 at a cost of $2.50 each, making the total cost of the
Movie Fan package $20 + 22($2.50) = $75.
25. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Don’t let the format of the answer choices intimidate
you. Use the Kaplan Method for Translating English into Math to
systematically eliminate wrong answers.
Getting to the Answer: Let n be the number of caps ordered. The
supplier charges $6 per cap for up to and including 25 caps, so the first
inequality should be the cost of the cap multiplied by the number
ordered, or 6n, given that n ≤ 25. You can eliminate B because it does
not include 25 in the “if” statement. The distributor then charges $5 per
cap for the next 75 caps, which means n is greater than 25, but less than
or equal to 25 + 75 = 100. The cost of the total order would be the cost
of the first 25 caps (6 × 25 = 150) added to the amount of the next set of
caps, which is $5 times the number ordered minus the first 25 ordered
(because they are at the $6 price point), or 150 + 5( n  – 25), so you can
now eliminate A. For the final price point, the inequality is simply any
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order of caps greater than 100, or n  > 100. The cost equation is the cost
of the first 25 caps (150) plus the cost of the next 75 caps (75 × 5 = 375)
plus the cost of the final set of caps, $4 multiplied by the number
ordered, minus the first 100 ordered (because they are at either the $5 or
$6 price points), or 150 + 375 + 4( n  – 100) = 525 + 4( n  – 100),
making (D) correct.
26. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: One of the keys to doing well on Test Day is knowing
when (and how) to use your calculator and when it would be quicker to
solve something conceptually or by hand. You might try graphing the
equation in your calculator, but finding a good viewing window may be
very time-consuming. Instead, think about what you know about
quadratic functions and how to evaluate them.
Getting to the Answer: Skim through the answer choices to see which
ones are easiest to eliminate. The question states that the function is
quadratic; therefore, the population cannot be decreasing at a constant
rate (or the function would be linear), so eliminate B. A quick
1266
examination of the equation tells you that the parabola opens downward
(–0.5x ) and its vertex has been shifted up 22,000 units to (0, 22,000).
Because x  = 0 represents 2015, for all years after 2015 (to the right of
0), the graph will always be decreasing, which means you can eliminate
D. The other two choices involve actual numbers, so go back to A. The
year 2225 is 210 years after 2015, so the statement translates as “at x  =
210, p ( x ) = 0 (or less theoretically depending on the month of the
year),” or more specifically that p (210) = 0. Substitute 210 for x in the
equation and see what happens (this is where your calculator is
needed): p (210) = –0.5(210)  + 22,000 = –50. The population can’t be
negative, but this tells you that by the end of the year 2225, there will be
no more of this species, meaning it will be extinct, so (A) is correct.
2
2
27. A
1267
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Use the formula for finding the volume of a cylinder,
V  = π r h . Check the formula page rather than trying to recall it from
memory. Don’t forget to use the radius, not the diameter, which is given.
Getting to the Answer: The well is 6 feet wide; this is its diameter, so
r = 3. The height of the well is 60 feet, but the water table is 40 feet
below ground level, which means only 60 – 40 = 20 feet of the well is
below the water table and thus has water in it, so h  = 20.
2
28. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
1268
Strategic Advice: You do not have enough information to answer this
question using rules of transformations. Instead, you’ll need to write the
equation of the original line, then follow the criteria given to change the
equation and find the point.
Getting to the Answer: You already know the slope of the original line
( m  = –2), but you need the y-intercept. You also know a point through
which the line passes. Plug the x- and y-values of this point into slope-
intercept form of a line, and solve for b.
The equation of the original line is y = –2x + 11. If Ramon doubles the
slope, it goes from –2 to 2(–2) = –4. If he shifts the line down one unit,
the y-intercept becomes 11 – 1 = 10, so the equation of the new line is y
= –4 x  + 10. Graph the line in your graphing calculator and see that it
passes through the point (3, –2). You could also plug the x- and y-values
of the points in the answer choices into the new equation to see which
one results in a true statement, but this could take more time depending
on which choice is correct on Test Day.
29. B
1269
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Being able to read information from an infographic is
an important skill that will earn you points on Test Day.
Getting to the Answer: Examine the graph, including the axis labels
and numbering. On the vertical axis, there are 5 parts to each 1 unit,
which means each grid-line represents 0.2 points on the Richter scale.
So you are looking for points that are 5 or more grid-lines away from
the line of best fit. There are 3 points that meet this criterion (one before
2004 and two between 2010 and 2011). Now, count the total number of
data points: There are 11, and 3 ÷ 11 = .2727, or about 27 percent.
Note that you could also do the math to find that the magnitude predicted
by the line of best fit is 5.6, so you’re looking for points with a y-value
of 4.6 or lower and 6.6 or greater.
30. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
1270
Strategic Advice: This is a quadratic equation, so you need one side to
equal 0 and then, best-case scenario, you’ll be able to factor. If not, you
can rely on the quadratic formula.
Getting to the Answer: First, subtract 3 from both sides of the
equation. Then multiply everything by 9 to clear the fractions.
Each number in the equation is divisible by 2, so factor out a 2 and go
from there.
The solutions are –15 and 3, but be careful! The question asks for the
product of the solutions, so the correct answer is (–15)(3) = –45.
1271
31. 2
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: When a question asks for the value of an expression,
rather than the value of the variable alone, try to determine how the
desired expression is related to what is given in the question.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that 7 – p  is half of 14 – 2 p . This
means you can cut all parts of the inequality in half to arrive at the
correct answer.
There is no need to solve for p because the question asks about 7 – p .
The inequality (<) doesn’t include 3, so the greatest possible integer
value of 7 – p  is 2.
32. 25
1272
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the axis labels as you read
the answer choices. Time is graphed on the x-axis and distance is
graphed on the y-axis. Try to visualize what is happening as Umberto
runs his errands.
Getting to the Answer: Umberto was inside the bank and inside the
post office when time was passing, but his distance was not changing
(because he was stopped). This means you’re looking for the portions of
the graph where the line is horizontal (because distance is graphed on
the vertical axis and you want no vertical change). This occurs from (10,
4) to (20, 4) and from (35, 6) to (50, 6). This means he spent 10 minutes
in the bank and 15 minutes in the post office, for a total of 25 minutes in
both.
33. 75
1273
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units in a question like
this. Here, the rate is given in minutes, but the question asks for the
answer in seconds.
Getting to the Answer: The test consists of a total of 50 + 30 = 80
questions. Selena has already answered 48 of the 80 questions. This
means she has 80 – 48 = 32 questions left. She has used up 50 of the 90
minutes, leaving 40 minutes to complete the test. To find the amount of
time per question she has left, divide the remaining time by the number
of questions remaining: 40 minutes ÷ 32 questions = 1.25 minutes per
question. Don’t forget to change your answer to seconds. There are 60
seconds in 1 minute, so multiply 1.25 × 60 to find that she has 75
seconds per question.
34. 9.4
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
1274
Strategic Advice: This question requires logical thinking, knowledge of
special right triangles, and knowing how to find arc length. It’s a
challenging question, so if you’re pushed for time, skip it and come back
later.
Getting to the Answer: Finding the area of a sector of a circle (the
shaded region) requires knowing the degree measure of the
corresponding interior angle. Given that information, your first step is to
find the area of the entire circle. Then you’ll find the proportional
amount represented by the sector. To find the area of a circle, the only
thing you need is the radius. The radius is not shown in the figure, so you
will have to think about special right triangles. In the figure, triangle
ABO is formed by 2 radii and a 90° angle. This means the triangle must
be a 45-45-90 triangle, and therefore its side lengths are in the ratio
 The hypotenuse is given as  so the side lengths of the
triangle, and therefore the radius of the circle, must be 6, and the area of
the entire circle is A = πr  = π(6)  = 36π. Now you need to find the
portion of the circle represented by the shaded region by finding the
measure of the angle inside the sector and dividing by 360. You’ll need
to use the given arc length, π, and the formula for finding arc length (arc
length = θr, where θ is the interior angle and r is the length of the
radius):
2 2
1275
If you know your unit circle, you know this corresponds to 30°. If you
don’t recall this fact, then you can convert radians to degrees by
multiplying the radian measure by  to get
This means the shaded region makes up  of the total area of the
circle, so divide the total area by 12 to get 36π ÷ 12 = 3π. The question
tells you to approximate π using 3.14 and to round to the nearest tenth,
so the final answer is 9.4.
35. 1728
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You can tell from the length of the question that you
can simply skim the first couple of sentences. You also need to make
sure you answer the right question (how many masks the hospital would
receive if it ordered all of the boxes of 144 the supplier has in stock).
1276
Getting to the Answer: Create a system of linear equations where x
represents the number of boxes with 48 masks and y represents the
number of boxes with 144 masks. The first equation should represent the
total number of boxes, x  + y  = 35. The second equation should
represent the total number of masks. Because x represents boxes with 48
masks and y represents boxes with 144 masks, the second equation is
48 x  + 144 y  = 2,832. Now solve the system using substitution. Solve
the first equation for either variable; then substitute the result into the
second equation:
So 12 boxes have 144 masks. Because the question asks about boxes of
144, you don’t need to find the value of x—but you’re not done yet. The
question asks how many masks the hospital would receive if it buys all
of the boxes of 144 the supplier has, not the number of boxes. The
hospital would receive 12 × 144 = 1,728 masks.
36. 5.5
1277
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Actually, there is nothing to calculate in a question
like this. The answer must be the y-value of one of the points already on
the graph, so you just need to think about how the graph will look after
Patricia removes the erroneous point.
Getting to the Answer: The y-intercept of the line in the graph is 2.5.
Once Patricia removes the point, it is 2, which means the line is
adjusted downward. The slope of the line, however, is steeper, which
means the change in y-values will be greater compared to the change in
x-values. Sketch this new line on the graph. After drawing the new line,
you can see that the line still fits the data, except for point (9, 5.5),
which has now become an extreme outlier. This must have been the
point Patricia eliminated, so grid in 5.5.
37. 9092
1278
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break this problem into short steps to keep all of the
information organized.
Getting to the Answer: Step one: Determine how many days total the
company needs to make reimbursements for by multiplying the number
of employees by the average number of days they each go to the gym:
246 × 84 = 20,664.
Step two: Determine the amount of money the company must reimburse
per day by multiplying the daily reimbursement rate, 0.2% by the cost of
the membership: $220 × 0.002 = $0.44.
Step three: Find the total amount the company must pay in
reimbursements by multiplying the total number of days for which it
must make reimbursements by the amount it must pay per day: 20,664 ×
$0.44 = $9,092.16 = $9,092.
38. 4887
1279
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Again, break the question into short steps so that your
calculations don’t get jumbled up.
Getting to the Answer: Step one: Determine how many days an
employee needed to visit the gym to earn the bonus day off by
multiplying the number of days in the year, 365, by 60%. The result is
219, but the question says more than 60% of the days, so an employee
must have gone 220 days to qualify for the bonus day off.
Step two: Determine how many employees qualified for this benefit by
looking to see what percent (according to the pie graph) went to the gym
the required number of days. Then, multiply this number by the number
of employees who participated in the health program: 246 × 0.16667 =
41 employees.
Step three: Find the total number of hours for which the company must
pay for the days off: 41 × 8 = 328 hours.
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Step four: Calculate the total cost of this benefit by multiplying by the
average hourly rate: 328 × $14.90 = $4,887.2, which rounded to the
nearest whole dollar is $4,887.
1281
SAT PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and to effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
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3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
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2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
1284
1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in certain errors that detract
from the quality of the writing
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
1285
Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
In this speech, Churchill raises the specter of war in order to build the
argument that the United States and Britain must prepare for war.
Churchill takes an oblique approach to his argument by not coming right
out and explaining his purpose. Instead, he begins by tackling the
underlying motivators that he believes justify his goal. “The lights are
going out,” he warns, intimating that a great darkness has begun to
sweep over Europe and the world. In the next lines, he establishes a
kinship with his audience by invoking principles that the people of
Britain and the United States have come to value: “liberties,”
“uncensored expression,” “freedom,” and “parliamentary government.”
He emphasizes the impending nature of the disaster with phrases such as
“while time remains,” suggesting that darkness will soon rule, and that
the freedoms cherished by his listeners will soon be gone if they do not
act.
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in numerous errors that
undermine the quality of the writing
1286
Churchill’s speech rests on a powerful appeal to emotion. First
implicitly and then explicitly, he calls his audience to defend what they
cherish and to resist what they fear. “The lights are going out” is
metaphorical persuasion. Churchill invokes this rhetorical device to
inspire fear and elicit the response that he wants, which he explains in
greater detail later in the speech.
Churchill goes on to offer details supporting the theory that liberty and
freedom are in danger—not only in Europe but also in the United States
—in order to build a case for his culminating point. In the second
paragraph, he cites the fall of the Czechoslovak Republic as evidence
that darkness—even evil—is on the march. He continues to establish
common ground with his audience by suggesting a certain like-
mindedness with the American people: They already know what he
knows. They understand what many British people do not—that
appeasement will have “far-reaching consequences.” The implication is
that those consequences will prove disastrous and are tied to the
encroaching dark of the first paragraph.
Churchill begins the third paragraph with a rhetorical question designed
to elicit a specific response. To the question, “Has any benefit or
progress ever been achieved by the human race by submission to
organised and calculated violence?” the only answer can be “No.”
Churchill goes on to assert that this submission threatens the liberties
1287
that the United States and Britain have come to treasure. Churchill lists
three such rights to drive home the importance of such liberty: “the right
of the individual; his right to be consulted in the government of his
country; his right to invoke the law even against the State.”
Then, in the next paragraph, he creates a contrast with those rights by
listing the forces that seek to sweep out the lights of freedom: “racial
persecution, religious intolerance, deprivation of free speech, the
conception of the citizen as a mere soulless fraction of the State,” and
“the cult of war.” Again, Churchill is using powerful appeals to
emotion: these are all things to be feared. He describes the state of
repression in which the people of Germany and Czechoslovakia have
been seized, and draws a comparison to the Communists, a political
organization already feared by many within the United States. This is the
fate that awaits Britain and the United States, if they do not take action to
stop it.
Churchill brings his argument full circle with his final two paragraphs.
“The culminating question,” he says, is whether a world of hope,
enjoyment, tradition, and science can survive by responding to the
“menace” described in the preceding paragraph “by submission or by
resistance.” Here, Churchill draws a clear distinction between the light
of the United States, Britain, and friendly nations and the dark that
threatens them all. More significantly, he draws a distinction between
1288
continuing policies that let the darkness go unchecked and taking action
to stop it.
Churchill addresses his audience’s fear of waging war by asking the
question that is undoubtedly in their minds: “Is this a call to war?”
Churchill dispels this impending criticism and fear by reasoning that
preparing to resist—to defend against—a great threat does not itself
amount to starting a war. He asks only that the nations and their people
be ready, that they not be caught like the people of Czechoslovakia. This
preparation to resist, he argues, “is the sole guarantee of peace.” The
only way to avoid war, he seems to say, is to be ready for war.
Churchill makes clear his call that the United States and Britain must
amass their military forces, that they have an obligation to do so to guard
against not only the military threat of Nazi Germany but also the “moral
aggression” that endangers the ideological underpinnings of their
common society. This is the response that he sought to elicit with his
opening invocation of fear. If the Nazis continue unchecked, the
American and British way of life could be destroyed. In his final
sentence, Churchill brings his speech back to the emotional appeal of its
beginnings, echoing his previous warning that “the lights are going out.”
The United States and Britain must prepare for war because it is the
threat of war that already looms over them—a “fear which already
1289
darkens the sunlight to hundreds of millions.” To keep the lights on, they
must be prepared to fight.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
Churchill makes his speech on October 16, 1938, before World War II
has officially begun. However, Churchill makes clear that horrible
events are on the move. Churchill does not explain his main purpose
right off the bat. He starts instead by making an emotional appeal to his
audience—the people of the United States as well as the people of
Britain who are also listening. He gets their attention by hitting on their
fears. “The lights are going out,” he says. By this, he suggests that a
darkness is sweeping over Europe and threatens to sweep over the
world. It is not just Europe, but also the United States, that is in danger.
This darkness, he suggests, will wipe out values held by both Americans
and British: “liberties,” “uncensored expression,” “freedom,” and
“parliamentary government.” He says that he must tell the people of the
United States a truth, “while time remains.” The underlying implication
is that Nazi Germany is a dark force—perhaps an evil force—bent on
extinguishing the light of the United States and Britain. This wording
builds toward Churchill’s ultimate argument that the American and
British people must protect what they love and defend against what they
fear.
1290
In the next paragraphs, Churchill gives supporting details that make the
connection between the dark of Nazi Germany and the light of American
and British liberties and freedoms. He reaches out to the American
people as already knowing what he is telling them, as already
understanding the dire consequences of inaction, of abandoning the
Czechoslovakian people. In this way, he reels in their acceptance of the
idea that current policies are doomed to fail. He argues against what he
considers “submission to organized and calculated violence.” This
submission threatens the liberties that the United States and Britain
value. Churchill lists three such liberties to drive home their
importance. Then, he explains what the darkness trying to sweep out the
lights of liberty is: “racial persecution, religious intolerance,
deprivation of free speech, the conception of the citizen as a mere
soulless fraction of the State,” and “the cult of war.” These are all things
that his audience should fear. When he describes the horrible conditions
in which the people of Germany and conquered lands must live, he is
showing that this is what could happen to the rest of the world if the
threat from Germany is not stopped. Churchill even compares the dark
forces of Hitler and the Nazis with Communists, a political movement
already feared by many in the United States.
In the final two paragraphs, Churchill makes clear his purpose. He
draws a clear distinction between two paths that people hope will
preserve the hope and joy and culture of the world: submission or
1291
resistance. Churchill has already made clear that submission, or letting
the dark tides go unchecked, will not work. Submission can only have
negative consequences. Instead, he explains that resistance offers the
only hope of peace. “Is this a call to war?” Churchill asks, because he
knows that many Americans and British do not want to fight another
world war. He explains that preparing to resist a threat does not mean
starting a war. He is asking people to get ready for war, not to start a
war. He wants to make sure that Britain and the United States are not
caught by surprise like Czechoslovakia.
Churchill calls on the United States and Britain to gather their military
forces. They cannot simply expect the dark forces of the Nazis to go
away, but must be ready to stop the “military and moral aggression” that
endangers their societies. The Nazis cannot be left unchecked, he argues.
In his final sentence, Churchill recalls the idea of the lights going out.
The threat of war is already pulling darkness over the world. Hundreds
of millions have already been denied the sunlight. In order to bring the
light back, to keep the lights on, the United States and Britain must be
prepared to fight.
1292
SAT Practice Test 5 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. When you
are finished, you can review the answer key following the test.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
1293
1294
1295
1296
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
Anna Karenina
1297
The following passage is adapted from Leo Tolstoy’s 1873 novel, Anna
Karenina (translated from the original Russian by Constance Garnett).
Prior to this excerpt, one of the major characters, Levin, has realized
that he is in love with his longtime friend Kitty Shtcherbatsky.
At four o’clock, conscious of his throbbing heart,
Levin stepped out of a hired sledge at the Zoological
Gardens, and turned along the path to the frozen
mounds and the skating ground, knowing that he
would certainly find her there, as he had seen the(5)
Shtcherbatskys’ carriage at the entrance.
It was a bright, frosty day. Rows of carriages,
sledges, drivers, and policemen were standing in the
approach. Crowds of well-dressed people, with hats
bright in the sun, swarmed about the entrance and(10)
along the well-swept little paths between the little
houses adorned with carving in the Russian style.
The old curly birches of the gardens, all their twigs
laden with snow, looked as though freshly decked in
sacred vestments.(15)
He walked along the path towards the skating-
ground, and kept saying to himself—“You mustn’t
be excited, you must be calm. What’s the matter
with you? What do you want? Be quiet, stupid,” he
conjured his heart. And the more he tried to com-(20)
1298
pose himself, the more breathless he found himself.
An acquaintance met him and called him by his
name, but Levin did not even recognize him. He
went towards the mounds, whence came the clank
of the chains of sledges as they slipped down or(25)
were dragged up, the rumble of the sliding sledges,
and the sounds of merry voices. He walked on a few
steps, and the skating-ground lay open before his
eyes, and at once, amidst all the skaters, he knew her.
He knew she was there by the rapture and the ter-(30)
ror that seized on his heart. She was standing talking
to a lady at the opposite end of the ground. There
was apparently nothing striking either in her dress
or her attitude. But for Levin she was as easy to find
in that crowd as a rose among nettles. Everything(35)
was made bright by her. She was the smile that shed
light on all round her. “Is it possible I can go over
there on the ice, go up to her?” he thought. The place
where she stood seemed to him a holy shrine, unap-
proachable, and there was one moment when he(40)
was almost retreating, so overwhelmed was he with
terror. He had to make an effort to master himself,
and to remind himself that people of all sorts were
moving about her, and that he too might come there
to skate. He walked down, for a long while avoiding(45)
1299
looking at her as at the sun, but seeing her, as one
does the sun, without looking.
On that day of the week and at that time of day
people of one set, all acquainted with one another,
used to meet on the ice. There were crack skaters(50)
there, showing off their skill, and learners clinging to
chairs with timid, awkward movements, boys, and
elderly people skating with hygienic motives. They
seemed to Levin an elect band of blissful beings
because they were here, near her. All the skaters, it(55)
seemed, with perfect self-possession, skated towards
her, skated by her, even spoke to her, and were
happy, quite apart from her, enjoying the capital ice
and the fine weather.
Nikolay Shtcherbatsky, Kitty’s cousin, in a short(60)
jacket and tight trousers, was sitting on a garden
seat with his skates on. Seeing Levin, he shouted to
him:
“Ah, the first skater in Russia! Been here long?
First-rate ice—do put your skates on.”(65)
1. According to the passage, how did Levin first know that Kitty was at
the Zoological Gardens?
1300
Kitty’s carriage was parked near the entrance.(A)
Nikolay said he had been skating with Kitty earlier.(B)
He saw her talking with another woman near the pond.(C)
Kitty invited him to meet her there at a certain time.(D)
2. As used in line 10, “swarmed” most nearly means
invaded.(A)
gathered.(B)
flew.(C)
obstructed.(D)
3. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of Levin?
He worries about his appearance.(A)
He wishes he were more impressive.(B)
He is an extremely passionate person.(C)
He is wary of his surroundings.(D)
1301
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 7-12 (“It was a bright, frosty day…in the Russian style”)(A)
Lines 22-27 (“An acquaintance met him…merry voices”)(B)
Lines 38-45 (“The place where…there to skate”)(C)
Lines 48-53 (“On that day…hygienic motives”)(D)
5. What theme does the passage communicate through the experiences of
Levin?
Love is a powerful emotion.(A)
People long to have company.(B)
Life should be filled with joy.(C)
People are meant to work hard.(D)
6. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of how Levin appears to others?
1302
People think that Levin looks agitated because of the way he is
acting.
(A)
People think that Levin is sick because he seems to be feverish.(B)
People think that Levin seems normal because he is doing nothing
unusual.
(C)
People think that Levin is in trouble because he is not protecting
himself emotionally.
(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-6 (“At four o’clock…at the entrance”)(A)
Lines 9-12 (“Crowds…the Russian style”)(B)
Lines 23-29 (“He went…he knew her”)(C)
Lines 60-65 (“Nikolay Shtcherbatsky…your skates on”)(D)
8. As used in line 20, “conjured” most nearly means
begged.(A)
created.(B)
summoned.(C)
tricked.(D)
1303
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Franklin Delano Roosevelt Speech
This passage is adapted from a speech delivered by President Franklin
Roosevelt on January 6, 1941, to the United States Congress. In the
9. The author’s use of the word “throbbing” in line 1 implies that Levin
has cut himself badly.(A)
has a sudden pain in his chest.(B)
is about to collapse.(C)
is in an agitated state.(D)
10. Based on the tone of this passage, what emotion does the author wish
the reader to feel about Levin?
Empathy(A)
Cynicism(B)
Hostility(C)
Disgust(D)
1304
passage, Roosevelt reveals his intention to preserve and spread American
ideals around the world.
The Nation takes great satisfaction and much
strength from the things which have been done to
make its people conscious of their individual stake
in the preservation of democratic life in America.
Those things have toughened the fibre of our people,(5)
have renewed their faith and strengthened their de-
votion to the institutions we make ready to protect.
Certainly this is no time for any of us to stop
thinking about the social and economic problems
which are the root cause of the social revolution(10)
which is today a supreme factor in the world.
For there is nothing mysterious about the founda-
tions of a healthy and strong democracy. The basic
things expected by our people of their political and
economic systems are simple. They are:(15)
• Equality of opportunity for youth and for others.
• Jobs for those who can work.
• Security for those who need it.
• The ending of special privilege for the few.
• The preservation of civil liberties for all.(20)
• The enjoyment of the fruits of scientific progress
    in a wider and constantly rising standard of living.
1305
These are the simple, basic things that must never
be lost sight of in the turmoil and unbelievable com-
plexity of our modern world. The inner and abid-(25)
ing strength of our economic and political systems
is dependent upon the degree to which they fulfill
these expectations.
Many subjects connected with our social econo-
my call for immediate improvement.(30)
As examples:
• We should bring more citizens under the coverage
of old-age pensions and unemployment insurance.
• We should widen the opportunities for adequate
medical care.(35)
• We should plan a better system by which persons
deserving or needing gainful employment may
obtain it.
I have called for personal sacrifice. I am as-
sured of the willingness of almost all Americans to(40)
respond to that call.
A part of the sacrifice means the payment of
more money in taxes. In my Budget Message I shall
recommend that a greater portion of this great de-
fense program be paid for from taxation than we are(45)
paying today. No person should try, or be allowed, to
get rich out of this program; and the principle of tax
1306
payments in accordance with ability to pay should be
constantly before our eyes to guide our legislation.
If the Congress maintains these principles, the(50)
voters, putting patriotism ahead of pocketbooks, will
give you their applause.
In the future days, which we seek to make secure,
we look forward to a world founded upon four
essential human freedoms.(55)
The first is freedom of speech and expression—
everywhere in the world.
The second is freedom of every person to worship
God in his own way—everywhere in the world.
The third is freedom from want—which,(60)
translated into world terms, means economic
understandings which will secure to every nation
a healthy peacetime life for its inhabitants—every-
where in the world.
The fourth is freedom from fear—which,(65)
translated into world terms, means a world-wide
reduction of armaments to such a point and in such
a thorough fashion that no nation will be in a posi-
tion to commit an act of physical aggression against
any neighbor—anywhere in the world.(70)
That is no vision of a distant millennium. It is
a definite basis for a kind of world attainable in
1307
our own time and generation. That kind of world
is the very antithesis of the so-called new order of
tyranny which the dictators seek to create with the(75)
crash of a bomb.
To that new order we oppose the greater
conception—the moral order. A good society is
able to face schemes of world domination and
foreign revolutions alike without fear.(80)
Since the beginning of our American history,
we have been engaged in change—in a perpetual
peaceful revolution—a revolution which goes
on steadily, quietly adjusting itself to changing
conditions—without the concentration camp or the(85)
quick-lime in the ditch. The world order which we
seek is the cooperation of free countries, working
together in a friendly, civilized society.
This nation has placed its destiny in the hands
and heads and hearts of its millions of free men and(90)
women; and its faith in freedom under the guid-
ance of God. Freedom means the supremacy of hu-
man rights everywhere. Our support goes to those
who struggle to gain those rights or keep them.
Our strength is our unity of purpose. To that high(95)
concept there can be no end save victory.
1308
11. Which phrase from the passage most clearly reflects President
Roosevelt’s purpose in making this speech?
Lines 2-4 (“to make…democratic life”)(A)
Lines 8-11 (“to stop thinking…the world”)(B)
Lines 54-55 (“[to] look forward to…freedoms”)(C)
Lines 79-80 (“to face…without fear”)(D)
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 13-15 (“The basic things…are simple”)(A)
Lines 29-30 (“Many subjects…improvement”)(B)
Lines 50-52 (“If the Congress…applause”)(C)
Lines 53-55 (“In the future days…freedoms”)(D)
13. As used in line 39, “sacrifice” most nearly means
religious offerings to a deity.(A)
service in the military.(B)
losses of limbs in battle.(C)
surrender of interests to a greater good.(D)
1309
14. The passage most strongly suggests a relationship between which of the
following phenomena?
Protection of human rights abroad and military service(A)
Spread of freedom abroad and defense of democracy at home(B)
Defeat of tyrants abroad and establishment of democratic
government at home
(C)
Investment in global democracies abroad and strengthening of
patriotism at home
(D)
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 23-28 (“These are…expectations”)(A)
Lines 50-52 (“If the Congress…applause”)(B)
Lines 71-76 (“That is no…of a bomb”)(C)
Lines 92-95 (“Freedom means…unity of purpose”)(D)
16. In line 51, “pocketbooks” most nearly refers to
1310
local, state, and national taxes.(A)
war debt accumulated by the nation.(B)
citizens’ individual monetary interests.(C)
Americans’ personal investment in the defense industry.(D)
17. In lines 71-73 (“That is no…generation”), President Roosevelt is most
likely responding to what implicit counterclaim to his own argument?
The spread of global democracy is idealistic and unrealistic.(A)
The defeat of tyrannical dictators in Europe is implausible.(B)
The commitment of the American people to the war effort is limited.(C)
The resources of the United States are insufficient to wage war
abroad.
(D)
18. Which choice offers evidence that the spread of global democracy is
achievable?
Lines 46-47 (“No person…this program”)(A)
Lines 54-55 (“we look forward…human freedoms”)(B)
Lines 81-82 (“Since the beginning…in change”)(C)
Line 95 (“Our strength…purpose”)(D)
1311
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Women’s Suffrage
19. In lines 60-64 (“The third is…world”), President Roosevelt sets a
precedent by which he would most likely support which of the
following policies?
Military defense of political borders(A)
Investment in overseas business ventures(B)
Aid to nations struggling due to conflict and other causes(C)
Reduction of domestic services to spur job growth(D)
20. The author refers to “the so-called new order of tyranny” primarily to
connect the global conflict for human rights to citizens on a personal
level.
(A)
demonstrate the power of the global opposition to the United States.(B)
offer an alternative vision of the world without democracy.(C)
provide examples of the political and social revolutions underway.(D)
1312
The United States Constitution has been amended 27 times since its
ratification. Rights such as freedom of speech, religion, and press, for
example, are granted by the First Amendment. This passage focuses on
the Nineteenth Amendment, which gave women the right to vote.
The American political landscape is constantly
shifting on a myriad of issues, but the voting process
itself has changed over the years as well. Electronic
ballot casting, for example, provides the public with
instantaneous results, and statisticians are more(5)
accurate than ever at forecasting our next presi-
dent. Voting has always been viewed as an intrinsic
American right and was one of the major reasons
for the nation’s secession from Britain’s monarchical
rule. Unfortunately, although all men were consti-(10)
tutionally deemed “equal,” true equality of the sexes
was not extended to the voting booths until 1920.
The American women’s suffrage movement began
in 1848, when Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucretia
Mott organized the Seneca Falls Convention. The(15)
meeting, initially an attempt to have an open dia-
logue about women’s rights, drew a crowd of nearly
three hundred women and included several dozen
men. Topics ranged from a woman’s role in society
to law, but the issue of voting remained a conten-(20)
1313
tious one. A freed slave named Frederick Douglass
spoke eloquently about the importance of women in
politics and swayed the opinion of those in attend-
ance. At the end of the convention, one hundred
people signed the Seneca Falls Declaration, which(25)
listed “immediate admission to all the rights and
privileges which belong to [women] as citizens of
the United States.”
Stanton and Mott’s first victory came thirty years
later when a constitutional amendment allowing(30)
women to vote was proposed to Congress in 1878.
Unfortunately, election practices were already a
controversial issue, as unfair laws that diminished
the African American vote had been passed during
Reconstruction. Questionable literacy tests and a(35)
“vote tax” levied against the poor kept minority
turnout to a minimum. And while several states
allowed women to vote, federal consensus was
hardly as equitable. The rest of the world, however,
was taking note—and women were ready to act.(40)
In 1893, New Zealand allowed women the right
to vote, although women could not run for office in
New Zealand. Other countries began reviewing and
ratifying their own laws as well. The United King-
dom took small steps by allowing married women to(45)
1314
vote in local elections in 1894. By 1902, all women
in Australia could vote in elections, both local and
parliamentary.
The suffrage movement in America slowly built
momentum throughout the early twentieth century(50)
and exploded during World War I. President Wood-
row Wilson called the fight abroad a war for democ-
racy, which many suffragettes viewed as hypocritical.
Democracy, after all, was hardly worth fighting for
when half of a nation’s population was disqualified(55)
based on gender. Public acts of civil disobedience,
rallies, and marches galvanized pro-women advo-
cates while undermining defenders of the status quo.
Posters read “Kaiser Wilson” and called into ques-
tion the authenticity of a free country with unjust(60)
laws. The cry for equality was impossible to ignore
and, in 1919, with the support of President Wilson,
Congress passed the Nineteenth Amendment to the
Constitution. It was ratified one year later by two-
thirds of the states, effectively changing the Consti-(65)
tution. Only one signatory from the original Seneca
Falls Declaration lived long enough to cast her first
ballot in a federal election.
America’s election laws were far from equal
for all, as tactics to dissuade or prohibit African(70)
1315
Americans from effectively voting were still rou-
tinely employed. However, the suffrage movement
laid the groundwork for future generations. Laws,
like people’s minds, could change over time. The
civil rights movement in the mid- to late twentieth(75)
century brought an end to segregation and so-
called Jim Crow laws that stifled African American
advancement. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 was
the final nail in the coffin; what emerged was a free
nation guided by elections determined not by skin(80)
color or gender, but by the ballot box.
1316
21. The stance the author takes in the passage is best described as that of
an advocate of women’s suffrage proposing a constitutional
amendment.
(A)
a legislator reviewing the arguments for and against women’s
suffrage.
(B)
a scholar evaluating the evolution and impact of the women’s
suffrage movement.
(C)
a historian summarizing the motivations of women’s suffrage
leaders.
(D)
1317
22. Lines 69-70 (“America’s election laws…equal for all”) most clearly
support which explicit claim?
The founders of the Constitution did not provide for free and fair
elections.
(A)
The United States still had work to do to secure equal voting rights
for some people.
(B)
Most women in the United States did not want suffrage and equal
rights.
(C)
The women’s suffrage movement perpetuated discriminatory voting
laws.
(D)
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 13-14 (“The American…in 1848”)(A)
Lines 41-42 (“In 1893…to vote”)(B)
Lines 63-64 (“Congress…the Constitution”)(C)
Lines 78-79 (“The Voting Rights Act…the coffin”)(D)
24. As used in line 57, “galvanized” most nearly means
1318
displaced.(A)
divided.(B)
excited.(C)
organized.(D)
25. The main rhetorical effect of lines 73-74 (“Laws, like…could change”)
is to
connect the success of legislative reform with shifts in public
sentiment.
(A)
dissuade reformers from focusing on grassroots activity rather than
political campaigns.
(B)
evaluate the effectiveness of judicial rulings based on popular
response to public polls.
(C)
reject the need for legal actions and court proceedings to attain
social change.
(D)
26. As a whole, the passage most strongly suggests which conclusion?
1319
American government adapts to the changing needs and ideas of
society.
(A)
The best-organized reform movements are most likely to achieve
their goals.
(B)
The nation is more vulnerable to change during the confusion of
wartime.
(C)
The civil rights movement would not have happened without women
suffragists.
(D)
27. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 3-7 (“Electronic ballot casting…our next president”)(A)
Lines 7-10 (“Voting has…monarchical rule”)(B)
Lines 15-19 (“The meeting…dozen men”)(C)
Lines 74-78 (“The civil rights…advancement”)(D)
28. The graphic most clearly illustrates which idea?
1320
The Nineteenth Amendment happened as a result of World War I.(A)
The states slowed reform of national voting rights laws.(B)
Women’s suffrage resulted from a slow evolution of events.(C)
Acts of civil disobedience won support for suffrage in Congress.(D)
29. In line 60, the word “authenticity” most nearly means
reliability.(A)
realism.(B)
legitimacy.(C)
truth.(D)
30. The passage suggests that President Wilson contributed to the success
of the women’s suffrage movement by
circulating government propaganda in support of women’s suffrage.(A)
framing the fight in World War I as a fight for democracy and
freedom.
(B)
engaging in a foreign war to distract the nation from political debate.(C)
working with legislators to write the Nineteenth Amendment.(D)
1321
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passages.
Paired Passages—Genomes
Passage 1
31. The graphic helps support which statement referred to in the passage?
Early women suffragists did not live to vote in national elections.(A)
The Nineteenth Amendment passed within a few years of its
introduction.
(B)
A majority of state representatives opposed women’s suffrage in
1918.
(C)
Many state governments approved suffrage before the federal
government did.
(D)
Coffee is a pillar of the world economy,
generating both jobs and profits. The plant produced
revenue to the tune of $15.4 billion in 2013 alone.
The coffee industry is also one of the world’s largest
employers, supporting 26 million employees.(5)
Because of the global importance of coffee, scientists
at the University at Buffalo and their international
1322
colleagues were compelled to sequence the genome
of the most popular coffee plant. In the genome lies
the secrets of the bold flavor that people around the(10)
world have come to enjoy daily, as well as the caf-
feine kick that comes along with it. This new genetic
information can be used to expand the market by
creating new types of coffee varieties. The results of
the study can also safeguard the existing industry.(15)
Scientists can now modify the genetic material of
the coffee plant. Heartier strains of popular cof-
fee types can be created so that they are resistant to
drought, disease, and bugs.
Researchers began their work by sequencing(20)
the genome of the type of coffee that makes up
30 percent of all coffee production. The conclu-
sions drawn from this study will help save money
and resources during the coffee production process.
Researchers were able to isolate the genetic informa-(25)
tion of the enzymes in the coffee plant that produce
caffeine. With this information, it may be possible
to reduce or eliminate caffeine from coffee. This
would remove a costly step in the current process
of extracting caffeine from the coffee beans, while(30)
expanding the coffee market to people who avoid
caffeine for health reasons, such as high blood pres-
1323
Passage 2
sure or pregnancy. The same research team plans
to sequence the genome of other types of coffee in
the future. It is their hope that the information will(35)
benefit the coffee producer, consumer, and also the
environment.
The Gibbon Genome Sequencing Consortium has
successfully sequenced the genome of the Northern
white-cheeked gibbon. Both gibbons and humans(40)
have DNA that changes during the course of their
lifetime. Some DNA changes in humans are the
result of mutations, which cause cancer and other
diseases. The changes in gibbons’ DNA have resulted
in many changes to the species over a very short(45)
period of time. Although gibbons are close relatives
to humans, their DNA changes do not cause disease.
Understanding the pattern of the gibbon genome
might turn out to be very important to humans. If
these changes in DNA can be understood, scientists(50)
may be able to use the information to better under-
stand human disease.
Cancer and other genetic diseases are caused by
faulty gene regulation. Scientists have sought to under-
stand human biology through the lens of gibbon DNA(55)
1324
structures for some time. Until now, there has simply
been too much information to analyze. The endless re-
arrangements made it difficult to align gibbon DNA to
that of humans, but it has finally been accomplished.
Scientists discovered a piece of DNA that is unique(60)
to the gibbon species. Gibbons have a specific repeat
element, or a piece of DNA that copies itself multi-
ple times throughout the genome. Repeat elements,
in both gibbons and humans, are related to the
maintenance of genetic structures. Scientists hope(65)
to be able to answer the question “Why can gibbon
DNA rearrange itself without causing diseases—
unlike humans’ DNA?” If this complicated biological
question can be solved, scientists may be able to work
backward in order to help stop cancer, heart failure,(70)
and other human disease related to genetic repeats.
32. Which of the following best describes the central idea of Passage 1?
1325
Advancements in genome sequencing will lead to healthier food
options worldwide.
(A)
Genome sequencing of coffee can increase the profitability of coffee
as a commodity.
(B)
Removing caffeine from coffee will allow more people to drink and
enjoy coffee.
(C)
The coffee trade is an important sector of the global economy.(D)
33. The author of Passage 2 would most likely agree that
instead of studying nonhuman animals, scientists should look for a
way to stop human DNA from changing when it replicates itself.
(A)
sequencing the genome of other nonhuman primates could yield
results that would be beneficial to people.
(B)
the benefits of genome sequencing of gibbons and other nonhuman
animals does not justify the great expense and resources used.
(C)
scientists will be able to cure cancer once the mystery is solved of
how the DNA of gibbons replicates itself without causing disease.
(D)
34. Passage 1 most strongly suggests that
1326
the coffee industry will fail without new developments stemming
from genome sequencing.
(A)
newly developed varieties of coffee plants are more expensive for
consumers than are existing varieties.
(B)
future research will lead to developments that could increase the
profitability for coffee producers.
(C)
genome sequencing of coffee plants could help scientists understand
diseases that affect humans.
(D)
35. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 5-9 (“Because of the global…coffee plant”)(A)
Lines 16-17 (“Scientists can…coffee plant”)(B)
Lines 20-22 (“Researchers began…coffee production”)(C)
Lines 28-33 (“This would remove…pregnancy”)(D)
36. Passage 2 most strongly suggests which of the following?
1327
The genetic makeup of the Northern white-cheeked gibbon is more
similar to that of humans than to other primates.
(A)
More research is needed before the findings of scientists studying
the DNA of gibbons can be used to cure disease in humans.
(B)
Many diseases and illnesses that affect humans can only be
understood by studying the DNA of plants and other animals.
(C)
Cancer and other diseases can be eliminated completely if enough
funding is given to scientific research.
(D)
37. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 40-44 (“Both gibbons…diseases”)(A)
Lines 54-56 (“Scientists have sought…some time”)(B)
Lines 63-65 (“Repeat elements…genetic structures”)(C)
Lines 68-71 (“If this…genetic repeats”)(D)
38. Which of the following best summarizes a shared purpose of the two
authors?
1328
To explain how genome sequencing in animals and plants can benefit
people in unexpected ways
(A)
To summarize how genome sequencing has changed the field of
medicine and the study of diseases
(B)
To inform readers about how scientific research can be applied to
improving the world economy
(C)
To convince readers to support funding for research in genome
sequencing of plants and animals
(D)
39. As used in line 8, “compelled” most nearly means
forced.(A)
driven.(B)
required.(C)
constrained.(D)
40. As used in line 65, “maintenance” most nearly means
preservation.(A)
protection.(B)
organization.(C)
repair.(D)
1329
41. Which point is the author of Passage 1 trying to make by using the
phrase “a pillar of the world economy” in line 1 to refer to the coffee
industry?
Research into the coffee plant is important and should be continued.(A)
The coffee industry plays a significant role in global economics.(B)
Many jobs will be lost if the coffee industry goes into decline.(C)
The coffee industry provides financial stability for millions of
people worldwide.
(D)
42. Which of the following can reasonably be inferred based on the
information in both passages?
Studying the genomes of animals closely related to humans can help
scientists learn about diseases that affect humans.
(A)
Expanding the customer base of the coffee industry will lead to
higher profits and increase the stability of the global economy.
(B)
The scientists who study coffee and those who study gibbons could
learn more by collaborating.
(C)
The genomes of other plants and nonhuman animals hold secrets that
can benefit people and are worthy of exploration.
(D)
1330
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Biomimicry Passage
In 1948, Swiss chemist George de Mestral was
impressed with the clinging power of burrs snagged
in his dog’s fur and on his pant legs after he returned
from a hike. While examining the burrs under a
microscope, he observed many hundreds of small(5)
fibers that grabbed like hooks. He experimented
with replicas of the burrs and eventually invented
Velcro,® a synthetic clinging fabric that was first
marketed as “the zipperless zipper.” In the 1960s,
NASA used de Mestral’s invention on space suits,(10)
and now, of course, we see it everywhere.
You might say that de Mestral was the father of
biomimicry, an increasingly essential field that stud-
ies nature, looking for efficiencies in materials and
systems, and asks the question “How can our homes,(15)
our electronics, and our cities work better?” As one
biomimetics company puts it: “Nature is the largest
laboratory that ever existed and ever will.”
Architecture is one field that is constantly
1331
exploring new ways to incorporate biomimicry.(20)
Architects have studied everything from beehives to
beaver dams to learn how to best use materials,
geometry, and physics in buildings. Termite mounds,
for example, very efficiently regulate temperature,
humidity, and airflow, so architects in Zimbabwe are(25)
working to apply what they’ve learned from termite
mounds to human-made structures.
Says Michael Pawlyn, author of Biomimicry in
Architecture, “If you look beyond the nice shapes
in nature and understand the principles behind(30)
them, you can find some adaptations that can lead
to new, innovative solutions that are radically more
resource-efficient. It’s the direction we need to take
in the coming decades.”
Designers in various professional fields are draw-(35)
ing on biomimicry; for example, in optics, scientists
have examined the surface of insect eyes in hopes of
reducing glare on handheld device screens. Engi-
neers in the field of robotics worked to replicate the
property found in a gecko’s feet that allows adhesion(40)
to smooth surfaces.
Sometimes what scientists learn from nature isn’t
more advanced, but simpler. The abalone shrimp, for
example, makes its shell out of calcium carbonate,
1332
the same material as soft chalk. It’s not a rare or(45)
complex substance, but the unique arrangement of
the material in the abalone’s shell makes it extremely
tough. The walls of the shell contain microscopic
pieces of calcium carbonate stacked like bricks,
which are bound together using proteins just as(50)
concrete mortar is used. The result is a shell three
thousand times harder than chalk and as tough as
Kevlar® (the material used in bullet-proof vests).
Often it is necessary to look at the nanoscale
structures of a living material’s exceptional properties(55)
in order to re-create it synthetically. Andrew Parker,
an evolutionary biologist, looked at the skin of the
thorny devil (a type of lizard) under a scanning elec-
tron microscope, in search of the features that let the
animal channel water from its back to its mouth.(60)
Examples like this from the animal world abound.
Scientists have learned that colorful birds don’t
always have pigment in their wings but are some-
times completely brown; it’s the layers of keratin
in their wings that produce color. Different colors,(65)
which have varying wavelengths, reflect differently
through keratin. The discovery of this phenomenon
can be put to use in creating paints and cosmetics
that won’t fade or chip. At the same time, paint for
1333
outdoor surfaces can be made tougher by copying(70)
the structures found in antler bone. Hearing aids
are being designed to capture sound as well as the
ears of the Ormia fly do. And why can’t we have a
self-healing material like our own skin? Researchers
at the Beckman Institute at the University of Illinois(75)
are creating just that; they call it an “autonomic
materials system.” A raptor’s feathers, a whale’s fluke,
a mosquito’s proboscis—all have functional features
we can learn from.
The driving force behind these innovations, aside(80)
from improved performance, is often improved
energy efficiency. In a world where nonrenew-
able energy resources are dwindling and carbon
emissions threaten the planet’s health, efficiency has
never been more important. Pawlyn agrees: “For(85)
me, biomimicry is one of the best sources of inno-
vation to get to a world of zero waste because those
are the rules under which biological life has had to
exist.”
Biomimicry is a radical field and one whose prac-(90)
titioners need to be radically optimistic, as Pawlyn
is when he says, “We could use natural products
such as cellulose, or even harvest carbon from the
atmosphere to create bio-rock.”
1334
Tiny florets in a sunflower’s center are arranged in an interlocking
spiral, which inspired engineers in the design of this solar power plant.
Mirrors positioned at the same angle as the florets bounce light toward
the power plant’s central tower.
Adapted from David Ferris, “Innovate: Solar Designs from Nature.” © 2014 by Sierra Club.
43. The central idea of the passage is primarily concerned with
the field of biomimicry, the study of materials and systems found in
nature and replicated in ways that benefit people.
(A)
the work of George de Mestral, the Swiss chemist who invented
Velcro® after observing burrs under a microscope.
(B)
the ways in which architects use termite mounds as models for
human-made structures in Zimbabwe.
(C)
how scientists are seeking ways to improve energy efficiency as
nonrenewable energy sources decline.
(D)
1335
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-6 (“In 1948…hooks”)(A)
Lines 12-18 (“You might say…ever will’”)(B)
Lines 23-27 (“Termite mounds…structures”)(C)
Lines 80-85 (“The driving…more important”)(D)
45. The author includes a quote in paragraph 4 in order to
explain why architects are looking to biomimicry for solutions in
architecture.
(A)
provide an argument for more scientists to study biomimicry.(B)
give an explanation as to why someone might choose a career in
architecture.
(C)
provide a counterargument to the author’s central claim.(D)
46. Based on the information in paragraph 6, how does the shell of an
abalone shrimp compare with soft chalk?
1336
The essential building blocks are arranged in a similar manner, but
the material that makes up the shell of an abalone shrimp is harder.
(A)
Both are made from the same essential building blocks, but the shell
of the abalone shrimp is much harder because of the manner in which
the materials are arranged.
(B)
The essential building blocks of both are the same, but the abalone
shrimp shell is harder because the soft chalk lacks a protein binding
the materials together.
(C)
They are made from different essential building blocks, but they
have a similar hardness because the materials are arranged in a
similar manner.
(D)
47. In paragraph 9, what is the most likely reason that the author included
the quote from Pawlyn about efficiency?
To convince readers that Pawlyn is an expert in his field(A)
To prove that great strides are being made in creating products that
do not generate waste
(B)
To demonstrate the limits of what biomimicry can achieve(C)
To support the statement that energy efficiency “has never been more
important”
(D)
1337
48. In line 30, “principles” most nearly means
sources.(A)
attitudes.(B)
standards.(C)
theories.(D)
49. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that
more scientists will utilize solutions developed through biomimicry
in the future.
(A)
the field of biomimicry will eventually decline as more
nonrenewable resources are discovered.
(B)
scientists will leave the fields they are currently working in and
begin research in biomimicry.
(C)
doctors will create a self-healing skin called an “autonomic
materials system” using methods based in biomimicry.
(D)
50. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1338
Lines 35-38 (“Designers…screens”)(A)
Lines 54-56 (“Often it is…synthetically”)(B)
Lines 61-79 (“Examples like…learn from”)(C)
Lines 89-94 (“Biomimicry…bio-rock”)(D)
51. As used in line 90, “radical” most nearly means
pervasive.(A)
drastic.(B)
essential.(C)
revolutionary.(D)
52. The graphic and caption that accompany this passage help illustrate
how biomimicry can be used to
make a solar plant more attractive.(A)
decrease waste generated by energy sources.(B)
improve the efficiency of existing models.(C)
replicate a pattern common in nature.(D)
1339
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1340
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
1341
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
1342
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
The Age of the Librarian
When Kristen Harris  in college, she worked in her university’s
library and was constantly told, “You really should be studying to be a
librarian; this is  Harris was pursuing a bachelor’s
degree in elementary education at the time. Little did she realize that
becoming a school librarian was indeed . During the 21st century,
the age of information, what could be more necessary than an individual
trained to gather, process, and disseminate information? So, after teaching
children in the classroom, Harris went back to school to earn her Master of
Library Science degree.
Today, Harris is preparing a story time for a group of young students.
As it has done with everything else, the technology revolution has elevated
the school library to “Library 2.0,” and Harris’s tablet-integrated story
is
1
your home” however
2
elective
3
1343
time begins when she projects images for The Very Cranky Bear onto a
projector screen. As a child, Harris got excited whenever a puppet
appeared during story time, but now she uses an interactive app
(application software) to enhance her own story time and  this next
generation of children.
As she introduces the children to the problem of cheering up a cranky 
 scouring the library shelves for another book by a
popular author. 
“It will always be satisfying,” reflects Harris, “the act of finding books
for students and having them return to say, ‘I really liked that one. Are there
any more by that author?’”
integrate
4
bear, Harris sees Miguel
5
Miguel had said asking Harris for a book two weeks earlier “If you have
any funny stories, I like those.”
6
1344
7 These days, Harris would call herself a media mentor as much as a
librarian because she regularly visits her favorite websites for reviews of
apps and other digital tools to suggest to students and parents. Librarians
have always been an important resource for families in a community, but
this importance has grown exponentially because of the advent of
technology. Librarians are offering guidance about new media to address
the changing information needs in our communities. Furthermore, libraries
are becoming increasingly technology driven, for example, 
So, in Harris’s opinion, librarians must be masters of the digital world. 
9
Harris finishes her story time and heads across the library. A young
student stops her and asks, “Ms. Harris, what’s new in the library?”
enabling access to collections of other libraries, offering remote access to
databases, or they house video produc​tion studios.
8
1345
 and thinks about the many collections, services, and programs
their school library offers. “Have you seen the Trendy 10 list? You read the
books on the list and blog  ideas about them. I’ll set you up with a
password and username so you can blog,” says Harris. In this library full
of information, she’s the gatekeeper.
She chuckles
10
your
11
1. 
NO CHANGE(A)
has been(B)
was(C)
had been(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
your home,” however Harris(B)
your home.”; However Harris(C)
your home.” However, Harris(D)
3. 
1346
NO CHANGE(A)
imminent(B)
threatening(C)
optional(D)
4. 
NO CHANGE(A)
enervate(B)
energize(C)
elucidate(D)
5. 
NO CHANGE(A)
bear; Harris sees Miguel(B)
bear: Harris sees Miguel(C)
bear Harris sees Miguel(D)
6. 
1347
NO CHANGE(A)
Miguel had said, “If you have any funny stories, I like those, “asking
Harris for a book two weeks earlier.
(B)
Asking Harris for a book two weeks earlier, Miguel had said, “If
you have any funny stories, I like those.”
(C)
Miguel asked Harris for a book two weeks earlier had said, “If you
have any funny stories, I like those.”
(D)
7. Which sentence could be added to the paragraph to most effectively
establish its main idea?
Harris maintains active profiles on multiple social media networks
to better connect with her students.
(A)
The role of the school librarian has changed rapidly to meet the
needs of students who are digital citizens.
(B)
Librarians still perform many traditional tasks such as putting great
literature in the hands of their students.
(C)
In the future, many school libraries are unlikely to have books on the
shelves because students prefer electronic media.
(D)
8. 
1348
NO CHANGE(A)
by enabling access to collections of other libraries, offering remote
access to databases, or by housing video production studios.
(B)
they enable access to collections of other libraries, offering remote
access to databases, or they house video production studios.
(C)
enabling access to collections of other libraries, offering remote
access to databases, or housing video production studios.
(D)
9. Which sentence would provide evidence to effectively support the main
idea of the paragraph?
Harris sponsors a weekly “Fun Read” book discussion club that is
well attended by many of the students at her school.
(A)
Librarians continue to help students and teachers locate the perfect
book in the library’s collection.
(B)
Teachers frequently ask Harris to recommend educational apps to
support early literacy for their students.
(C)
Many parents are concerned with online safety and digital
citizenship due to the proliferation of social media.
(D)
10. 
1349
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
Unforeseen Consequences: The Dark Side of the
Industrial Revolution
There is no doubt that the Industrial Revolution guided America through
the nascent stages of independence 
. Inventions like the cotton
NO CHANGE(A)
He chuckles(B)
Harris chuckles(C)
They chuckle(D)
11. 
NO CHANGE(A)
they’re(B)
you’re(C)
their(D)
and into being a robust economic powerhouse
12
1350
gin revolutionized the textile industry, and the steam engine ushered in the
advent of expeditious cross-country distribution.
The Industrial Revolution marked a shift from an agrarian to an
industry-centered society. People eschewed farming in favor of 
 existing
local resources. Necessary goods such as 
 also had to be shipped in order
to meet the dietary needs of a consolidated population. And because there
were fewer people farming, food had to travel farther and in higher
quantities to meet demand. Issues like carbon dioxide emissions, therefore,
arose not only as byproducts of industrial production but also from the
delivery of these products. As a result, booming metropolises needed
additional lumber, metal, and coal shipped from rural areas to sustain
population and industrial growth.
more lucrative enterprises in urban areas which put a strain on
13
food crops, vegetables, and meat products
14
1351
15 [1] The negative effects of such expansion on humans were
immediately apparent. Improper water sanitization led to cholera outbreaks
in big cities. [2] Miners suffered from black lung after spending hours
harvesting coal in dark caverns. [3] Combusted fossil fuels 
, resulting in respiratory ailments. [4] The fact remains that smog, now an
internationally recognized buzzword, simply did not exist before the
factories that produced it.
The critical impact on the environment must also 
 were either not in place or not
enforced. Industrial waste was often disposed of in the nearest river or
buried in landfills, where it  groundwater essential for wildlife to
thrive. Deforestation across the United States served the dual purpose of
providing inhabitable land and wood, but it also caused animals to migrate
or die out completely.
released unprecedented amounts of human-made carbon dioxide into the air
16
be taken into account. Proper regulations
17
polluted
18
1352
Although the Industrial Revolution heralded an age of consumer ease
and excess, it also invited a cyclical process of destruction and reduced
resources. . Numerous
health problems caused by  working conditions prevented rural
emigrants from thriving. And the environment that had cradled humankind
since its inception was slowly being  in the name of progress.
22
Greenhouse gases were released into the atmosphere
19
depressing
20
degraded. All
21
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
and into the role of a robust economic powerhouse.(B)
and turned into a robust economic powerhouse.(C)
and then became a robust economic powerhouse.(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
more lucrative enterprises in urban areas, which put a strain on(B)
more lucrative enterprises in urban areas; which put a strain on(C)
more lucrative enterprises in urban areas. Which put a strain on(D)
1353
14. 
NO CHANGE(A)
food(B)
food crops(C)
vegetables and meat products(D)
15. To effectively transition from paragraph 2, which sentence should begin
paragraph 3?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 4(D)
16. Which graphic would best support the underlined claim?
1354
A line graph plotting an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide over
time
(A)
A pie chart comparing the present percentages of carbon dioxide and
other atmospheric gases
(B)
A timeline tracking carbon dioxide emissions testing dates(C)
A bar graph showing levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide in
different locations
(D)
17. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined
portion?
be taken into account, and proper regulations(A)
be taken into account since without proper regulations(B)
be taken into account, as proper regulations(C)
be taken into account; however, proper regulations(D)
18. 
NO CHANGE(A)
disturbed(B)
drained(C)
enhanced(D)
1355
19. Which choice should be added to the end of the underlined sentence to
better support the claim in the preceding sentence?
NO CHANGE(A)
while carbon dioxide-consuming trees were cut down to make way
for new living spaces.
(B)
and caused an increase in global temperatures as well as a rise in
coastal sea levels.
(C)
faster than they could be absorbed by the atmosphere’s shrinking
ozone layer.
(D)
20. 
NO CHANGE(A)
urban(B)
substandard(C)
developing(D)
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
degraded; all(B)
degraded! All(C)
degraded—all(D)
1356
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
Remembering Freud
Psychology has grown momentously over the past century, largely due
to the influence of Sigmund Freud, a pioneer of the field. This Austrian-
born neurologist founded the practice of psychoanalysis and 
scientific study of the unconscious mind. 
22. Which choice most effectively states the central idea of the essay on the
previous page?
The Industrial Revolution created a new consumer society that
replaced the existing farming society.
(A)
Politicians and historians today disagree about the true
consequences of the Industrial Revolution.
(B)
Although some analysts suggest that industrialization had many
problems, its immense benefits outweigh these concerns.
(C)
Unfortunately, progress came at the expense of environmental and
ecological preservation and may well have ruined the future that
once looked so bright.
(D)
began
23
1357
a common cultural and scientific reference point.
serves to indicate how this psychologist lingers powerfully in Western
memory.
As neuroscience has progressed, many early practices and theories,
including some of Freud’s, have been dismissed as outdated, unscientific,
or even harmful. Much of Freud’s theory, clinical practice, and even
lifestyle are now discredited. But when considered in his historical
context, alongside the astounding progress catalyzed by his work, Freud’s
contribution was significant indeed.
Since his career which ended in the mid-twentieth century, Freud has
remained
24
Even the abiding popularity of terms such as “id,” “ego,” or talking about a
“Freudian slip”
25
1358
For Freud, this was both study and treatment. It helped doctors to
understand patients, but more importantly it helped patients to understand
themselves. Freud employed the classic (now largely outdated) psychiatric
style in which the patient lies face-up on a clinical bed, allegedly enabling
access to deep  of the mind. These recesses, better known as the
unconscious or subconscious, fascinated Freud.
. For Freud, understanding the activity of the innermost mind was essential.
there was a great deal going on beneath the “surface” of the psyche. He
thought it was possible to reunite external, or conscious, thought with the
Because he is now widely referred to as the Father of Psychoanalysis,
Freud was among the first to develop the now-commonplace psychological
method of invit​ing patients to freely speak.
26
parts
27
He believed that uncovering repressed memories, was necessary for
recovery
28
In dealing with the conditions of patients, like neurosis or other
psychological trauma, he suspected that
29
1359
internal, or unconscious. 30  Moreover, the method of inviting patients to
speak and process their thoughts aloud remains central to today’s
psychological practice.
Freud altered the course of twentieth-century medicine by initiating
what would become a grand, global conversation about the 
 had barely
scratched the surface in understanding mental health. Patients were met
with very few answers, let alone recovery protocols. 
Since then, decades of ever-sharpening science have used his work as a
launching pad. Therefore, as long as occasions arise to celebrate the
progress of 
enabled countless advances.
still vastly mysterious human mind before Freud, medicine
31
Through trial and error—scientific method in action—Freud’s finding of a
method that seemed to work.
32
the field, Sigmund Freud will be remem​bered for groundbreaking work that
33
1360
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
continued(B)
spearheaded(C)
led to(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Since his career, which ended in the mid-twentieth century, Freud
has remained
(B)
Since his career ending in the mid-twentieth century; Freud has
remained
(C)
Since his career (ending in the mid-twentieth century) Freud has
remained
(D)
25. 
1361
NO CHANGE(A)
Even the abiding popularity of terms such as the “id,” “ego,” or a
“Freudian slip”
(B)
Even the abiding popularity of terms such as talking about an “id,”
“ego,” or “Freudian slip”
(C)
Even the abiding popularity of terms such as “id,” “ego,” or
“Freudian slip”
(D)
26. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Widely remembered as the Father of Psychoanalysis, Freud was
among the first to develop the now-commonplace psychological
method of inviting patients to freely speak.
(B)
Freud was among the first to develop the now-commonplace
psychological method of inviting patients to freely speak, which is
why he is now widely remembered as the Father of Psychoanalysis.
(C)
Although he is widely remembered as the Father of Psychoanalysis,
Freud was among the first to develop the now-commonplace
psychological method of inviting patients to freely speak.
(D)
27. 
1362
NO CHANGE(A)
recesses(B)
places(C)
components(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
He believed that uncovering repressed memories, being necessary
for recovery.
(B)
He believed that uncovering repressed memories was necessary for
recovery.
(C)
He believed that uncovering, repressed memories was necessary for
recovery.
(D)
29. 
NO CHANGE(A)
In dealing with patients’ conditions, like neurosis or other
psychological trauma, he suspected that
(B)
In dealing with patients like neurosis or other psychological trauma
conditions he suspected that
(C)
He suspected that, in dealing with patients’ conditions like neurosis
or other psychological trauma,
(D)
1363
30. Which detail would provide the best support for the ideas presented in
this section?
At the same time that Freud practiced, many people were interested
in spiritualism.
(A)
Freud lived and worked mostly in London although he had originally
trained in Austria.
(B)
While some of Freud’s more unusual practices have been criticized
or abandoned, his interest in the unconscious altered the trajectory of
the field.
(C)
Psychologists today employ many theories, not just those developed
by Freud.
(D)
31. 
NO CHANGE(A)
still vastly mysterious human mind. Before Freud, medicine(B)
still vastly mysterious human mind, before Freud, medicine(C)
still vastly mysterious human mind before Freud. Medicine(D)
32. 
1364
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Success in Montreal
NO CHANGE(A)
Through trial and error—scientific method in action—Freud’s
finding a method that seems to work.
(B)
Through trial and error—scientific method in action—Freud finds a
method that seemed to work.
(C)
Through trial and error—scientific method in action—Freud found a
method that seemed to work.
(D)
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the field; Sigmund Freud will be remembered for groundbreaking
work that
(B)
the field Sigmund Freud will be remembered for groundbreaking
work that
(C)
the field Sigmund Freud will be remembered for groundbreaking
work, and that
(D)
1365
The Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer is
an international treaty that was created to ensure that steps would be taken
to reverse damage to Earth’s ozone layer and  future damage. 
 created restrictions on chemicals that
were known to be dangerous to the protective barrier that the ozone layer
offers Earth. Without the ozone layer, the sun’s dangerous UV rays would
alter our climate so drastically, life on land and in water would cease to
exist.
A hole in Earth’s ozone layer was discovered over Antarctica 
 to the signing of the treaty. The discovery
brought the human impact on the environment to the forefront of 
 was evidence that a global
response was necessary and that large-scale action was needed. The
Montreal Protocol became effective January 1, 1989, and nearly 100 gases
deemed dangerous to the ozone layer have been phased out. As a result, 
preventing
34
It was signed in 1987. This document
35
as long as two years prior
36
international conversation, the massive hole
37
the size of the ozone hole decreased signifi​cantly during the 1990s.
38
1366
Now that a substantial amount of time has passed since the treaty was
put into place, the effects can begin to be . As a part of the treaty,
the Montreal Protocol’s Scientific Assessment Panel was created to gauge 
 effect on the hole in the ozone layer.
The Panel has since reported the results every four years. The Panel
predicts that the ozone layer will return to its former state of health by
2060-2075. 41
While the treaty is already an obvious success, work continues to
ensure that human strides in technology and industry do not reverse the
healing process. The Montreal Protocol’s Multilateral Fund was
established to help developing countries transition away from the
consumption and production of harmful chemicals. So far, over $3 billion
has been invested by the Fund. The developing countries are referred to as
“Article 5 countries.” 42
looked at
39
their
40
1367
[1] The Montreal Protocol is a living document. [2] A current
amendment proposition has been put forth by the United States, Mexico,
and Canada jointly. [3] It aims to cut down on harmful gases that were put
into use as an alternative to the gases specified in the original Montreal
Protocol treaty. [4] It has been amended four times since its inception. [5]
Combating the erosion of our ozone layer will take time and flexibility, but
the research is clear: If humans stay conscious of what we emit into the
atmosphere, we can not only stall the damage we have done in the past, but
we can  it. 44change
43
1368
Adapted from Ozone Hole Watch, NASA Goddard Space Flight Center.
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
to prevent(B)
prevented(C)
was preventing(D)
1369
35. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences in the underlined
portion?
Signed in 1987, this document(A)
Because it was signed in 1987, this document(B)
It was signed in 1987, and this document(C)
It was signed in 1987 so this document(D)
36. 
NO CHANGE(A)
long ago, two years prior(B)
two years prior(C)
years prior(D)
37. 
NO CHANGE(A)
international conversation, yet the massive hole(B)
international conversation. The massive hole(C)
international conversation, so the massive hole(D)
1370
38. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic?
NO CHANGE(A)
the average size of the ozone hole leveled off beginning in the 1990s.(B)
the average size of the ozone hole decreased beginning in the 2000s.(C)
the average size of the ozone hole increased beginning in the 1980s.(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
controlled(B)
measured(C)
governed(D)
40. 
NO CHANGE(A)
its(B)
it’s(C)
there(D)
1371
41. Which choice could be added to paragraph 3 to most effectively convey
its central idea?
It is the Panel’s current estimation that the ozone layer is beginning
to heal, but the rate of progress is slow.
(A)
The Panel meets once a year to assess the increase or decrease of
each gas that has been identified as dangerous.
(B)
Of much concern to the Panel was the effect of ultraviolet radiation
on the ozone layer.
(C)
The Panel has recently updated procedures for the nomination and
selection of its membership.
(D)
42. Which sentence in paragraph 4 provides the least support for the
central idea of the paragraph?
While the treaty is already an obvious success, work continues to
ensure that human strides in technology and industry do not reverse
the healing process.
(A)
The Montreal Protocol’s Multilateral Fund was established to help
developing countries transition away from the consumption and
production of harmful chemicals.
(B)
So far, over $3 billion has been invested by the Fund.(C)
The developing countries are referred to as “Article 5 countries.”(D)
1372
43. 
NO CHANGE(A)
switch(B)
invert(C)
reverse(D)
44. For the sake of cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 4 should be placed
where it is now.(A)
before sentence 1.(B)
after sentence 1.(C)
before sentence 3.(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1373
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1374
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a cirlce is 2π.
1375
1. The graph above shows the amount that a new, high-tech video arcade
charges its customers. What could the y-intercept of this graph
represent?
The cost of playing 5 games(A)
The cost per game, which is $5(B)
The entrance fee to enter the arcade(C)
The number of games that are played(D)
2. 
1376
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression above, given that
x  ≠ −5 ?
2x(A)
(B)
(C)
2 x  + 4(D)
3. The graph of the equation above is a circle. What is the area, in square
units, of the circle?
4π(A)
5π(B)
16π(C)
25π(D)
1377
4. The figure above shows the graph of f(x). For which value(s) of x does
f(x) equal 0?
3 only(A)
−3 only(B)
−2 and 3(C)
−3, −2, and 3(D)
5. In the equation above, what is the value of d?
1378
Source: Data from Eurostat.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1379
6. One indicator of a declining economy is a continued decline in birth
rates. In 2010, birth rates in Europe were at an all-time low, with the
average number of children that a woman has in her lifetime at well
below two. In the figure above, f(t) represents birth rates for Portugal
between 1960 and 2010, and g(t) represents birth rates in Slovakia for
the same time period. For which value(s) of t  is f ( t ) > g ( t )?
1960 < t  < 1980 only(A)
1980 < t  < 2000 only(B)
1960 < t  < 1980 and 1990 < t  < 2000(C)
1960 < t  < 1980 and 2000 < t  < 2010(D)
1380
7. The blue whale is the largest creature in the world and has been found
in every ocean in the world. A marine biologist surveyed the blue
whale population in Monterey Bay, off the coast of California, every
three years between 1995 and 2010. The figure above shows her
results. If w is the number of blue whales present in Monterey Bay and t
is the number of years since the study began in 1995, which of the
following equations best represents the blue whale population of
Monterey Bay?
w  = 100 + 2 t(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1381
8. The figure above shows the straight-line depreciation of a laptop
computer over the first five years of its use. According to the figure,
what is the average rate of change in dollars per year of the value of the
computer over the five-year period?
−1,100(A)
−220(B)
−100(C)
100(D)
9. What is the coefficient of x  when  is multiplied by
 ?
2
1382
−4(A)
−2(B)
2(C)
4(D)
10. The graph above could represent which of the following equations?
−6 x  − 4 y  = 5(A)
−6 x  − 4 y  = −5(B)
−6 x  + 4 y  = 5(C)
−6 x  + 4 y  = −5(D)
1383
11. 
If the system of linear equations above has no solution, and k is a
constant, what is the value of k?
(A)
(B)
3(C)
4(D)
12. In Delray Beach, Florida, you can take a luxury golf cart ride around
downtown. The driver charges $4 for the first  mile, plus $1.50 for
each additional  mile. Which inequality represents the number of
miles, m, that you could ride and pay no more than $10?
1384
3.25 + 1.5 m  ≤ 10(A)
3.25 + 3 m  ≤ 10(B)
4 + 1.5 m  ≤ 10(C)
4 + 3 m  ≤ 10(D)
13. The graph of g(x) is shown in the figure above. If h ( x ) = − g ( x ) + 1,
which of the following statements is true?
The range of h(x) is −3 ≤ y  ≤ 3.(A)
The minimum value of h(x) is −4.(B)
The coordinates of point A on the function h(x) are (2, 4).(C)
The graph of h(x) is increasing between x  = −5 and x  = −2.(D)
1385
14. If a  + bi  represents the complex number that results from multiplying
3 + 2 i  times 5 − i , what is the value of a?
2(A)
13(B)
15(C)
17(D)
15. 
In order to create safe drinking water, cities and towns use water
treatment facilities to remove contaminants from surface water and
groundwater. Suppose a town has a treatment plant but decides to build
a second, more efficient facility. The new treatment plant can filter the
water in the reservoir four times as quickly as the older facility.
Working together, the two facilities can filter all the water in the
reservoir in 72 hours. The equation above represents the scenario.
Which of the following describes what the term  represents?
1386
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
The portion of the water the older treatment plant can filter in 1 hour(A)
The time it takes the older treatment plant to filter the water in the
reservoir
(B)
The time it takes the older treatment plant to filter  of the water in
the reservoir
(C)
The portion of the water the new treatment plant can filter in 4 hours(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
1387
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not  ).
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1388
16. If  , what is the value of x  + 2 y ?
1389
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
17. If (a, b) is a point in the solution region for the system of inequalities
shown above and a  = 6, what is the minimum possible value for b?
18. 
If x  is the simplified form of the expression above, what is the value of
n?
n
1390
19. In the figure above, the area of the shaded region is 52 square units.
What is the height of the larger triangle?
20. If y  = ax  + bx  + c  passes through the points (−3, 10), (0, 1), and (2,
15), what is the value of a  + b  + c ?
2
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1391
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1392
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a cirlce is 2π.
1393
1. Oceans, seas, and bays represent about 96.5% of Earth’s water,
including the water found in our atmosphere. If the volume of the water
contained in oceans, seas, and bays is about 321,000,000 cubic miles,
which of the following best represents the approximate volume, in
cubic miles, of all the world’s water?
308,160,000(A)
309,765,000(B)
332,642,000(C)
334,375,000(D)
2. An electrician charges a one-time site visit fee to evaluate a potential
job. If the electrician accepts the job, he charges an hourly rate plus the
cost of any materials needed to complete the job. The electrician also
charges for tax, but only on the cost of the materials. If the total cost of
completing a job that takes h hours is given by the function C ( h ) =
45 h  + 1.06(82.5) + 75, then the term 1.06(82.5) represents
the hourly rate.(A)
the site visit fee.(B)
the cost of the materials, including tax.(C)
the cost of the materials, not including tax.(D)
1394
3. The figure above shows the solution set for the system
 . Which of the following is not a solution to the
system?
(0, 3)(A)
(1, 2)(B)
(2, 4)(C)
(3, 3)(D)
1395
4. Each of the following quadratic equations represents the graph shown
above. Which equation reveals the exact values of the x-intercepts of
the graph?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1396
5. Margo surveyed all the students in the government classes at her school
to see what they thought should be the most important concern of a
national government. The results of the survey are shown in the figure
above. If the ratio of students who answered “Foreign Policy” to those
who answered “Environment” was 5:3, what percentage of the students
answered “Environment”?
16%(A)
21%(B)
24%(C)
35%(D)
1397
6. Which of the following best describes the type of association shown in
the scatterplot above?
linear, positive(A)
linear, negative(B)
exponential, positive(C)
exponential, negative(D)
1398
Data from U.S. Energy Information Administration.
7. The figure above shows the average annual gas prices in the United
States from 2003 to 2013. Based on the information shown, which of
the following conclusions is valid?
A gallon of gas cost more in 2008 than in 2013.(A)
The price more than doubled between 2003 and 2013.(B)
The drop in price from 2008 to 2009 was more than $1.00 per
gallon.
(C)
The overall change in price was greater between 2003 and 2008
than it was between 2008 and 2013.
(D)
1399
8. If (x, y) is a solution to the system of equations above, what is the sum
of x and y?
(A)
−4(B)
(C)
−3(D)
1400
9. A voltage divider is a simple circuit that converts a large voltage into a
smaller one. The figure above shows a voltage divider that consists of
two resistors that together have a total resistance of 294 ohms. To
produce the desired voltage of 330 volts, R  must be 6 ohms less than
twice R . Solving which of the following systems of equations gives the
individual resistances for R  and R ?
2
1
1 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. If  , what is the value of x?
1401
x  = −2(A)
x  = 2(B)
There is no value of x for which the equation is true.(C)
There are infinitely many values of x for which the equation is true.(D)
11. Crude oil is being transferred from a full rectangular storage container
with dimensions 4 meters by 9 meters by 10 meters into a cylindrical
transportation container that has a diameter of 6 meters. What is the
minimum possible length for a transportation container that will hold
all of the oil?
40π(A)
(B)
60π(C)
(D)
12. The percent increase from 5 to 12 is equal to the percent increase from
12 to what number?
1402
16.8(A)
19.0(B)
26.6(C)
28.8(D)
13. 
The brightness of a celestial body, like a star, decreases as you move
away from it. In contrast, the luminosity of a celestial body is a constant
number that represents its intrinsic brightness. The inverse square law,
shown above, is used to find the brightness, b, of a celestial body when
you know its luminosity, L, and the distance, d, in meters to the body.
Which equation shows the distance to a celestial body, given its
brightness and luminosity?
1403
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
Each month, the Bureau of Labor Statistics conducts a survey called the
Current Population Survey (CPS) to measure unemployment in the United
States. Across the country, about 60,000 households are included in the
survey sample. These households are grouped by geographic region. A
summary of the January 2014 survey results for male respondents in one
geographic region is shown in the table below.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1404
Employed Unemployed Not in the Labor Force Total
16 to 19 8 5 10 23
20 to 24 26 7 23 56
25 to 34 142 11 28 157
35 to 44 144 8 32 164
45 to 54 66 6 26 98
Over 54 65 7 36 152
Total 451 44 155 650
14. According to the data in the table, for which age group did the smallest
percentage of men report that they were unemployed in January 2014?
20 to 24 years(A)
35 to 44 years(B)
45 to 54 years(C)
Over 54 years(D)
1405
15. If one unemployed man from this sample is chosen at random for a
follow-up survey, what is the probability that he will be between the
ages of 45 and 54?
6.0%(A)
13.6%(B)
15.1%(C)
44.9%(D)
16. Which of the following are solutions to the quadratic equation
 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1406
17. Damien is throwing darts. He has a total of 6 darts to throw. He gets 5
points for each dart that lands in a blue ring and 10 points for each dart
that lands in a red ring. If x of his darts land in a blue ring and the rest
land in a red ring, which expression represents his total score?
10x(A)
10x + 5(B)
5x + 30(C)
60 − 5x(D)
18. Red tide is a form of harmful algae that releases toxins as it breaks
down in the environment. A marine biologist is testing a new spray,
composed of clay and water, hoping to kill the red tide that almost
completely covers a beach in southern Florida. He applies the spray to
a representative sample of 200 square feet of the beach. By the end of
the week, 184 square feet of the beach is free of the red tide. Based on
these results, and assuming the same general conditions, how much of
the 10,000-square-foot beach would still be covered by red tide if the
spray had been used on the entire area?
1407
800 sq ft(A)
920 sq ft(B)
8,000 sq ft(C)
9,200 sq ft(D)
19. If (a, b) is a solution to the system of equations above, which of the
following could be the value of b?
−3(A)
−2(B)
1(C)
2(D)
20. Given the function  , what domain value corresponds
to a range value of 3?
1408
−6(A)
−2(B)
6(C)
9(D)
21. A landscaper buys a new commercial-grade lawn mower that costs
$2,800. Based on past experience, he expects it to last about 8 years,
and then he can sell it for scrap metal with a salvage value of about
$240. Assuming the value of the lawn mower depreciates at a constant
rate, which equation could be used to find its approximate value after x
years, given that x  < 8?
y  = −8 x  + 2,560(A)
y  = −240 x  + 2,800(B)
y  = −320 x  + 2,800(C)
y  = 240 x  − 2,560(D)
22. A microbiologist is studying the effects of a new antibiotic on a culture
of 20,000 bacteria. When the antibiotic is added to the culture, the
number of bacteria is reduced by half every hour. What kind of function
best models the number of bacteria remaining in the culture after the
antibiotic is added?
1409
A linear function(A)
A quadratic function(B)
A polynomial function(C)
An exponential function(D)
23. An airline company purchased two new airplanes. One can travel at
speeds of up to 600 miles per hour and the other at speeds of up to 720
miles per hour. How many more miles can the faster airplane travel in
12 seconds than the slower airplane?
(A)
(B)
2(C)
30(D)
1410
State Minimum Wage per Hour
Idaho $7.25
Montana $7.90
Oregon $9.10
Washington $9.32
24. The table above shows the 2014 minimum wages for several states that
share a border. Assuming an average workweek of between 35 and 40
hours, which inequality represents how much more a worker who earns
minimum wage can earn per week in Oregon than in Idaho?
x  ≥ 1.85(A)
7.25 ≤ x  ≤ 9.10(B)
64.75 ≤ x  ≤ 74(C)
253.75 ≤ x  ≤ 364(D)
25. In the United States, the maintenance and construction of airports,
transit systems, and major roads is largely funded through a federal
excise tax on gasoline. Based on the 2011 statistics given below, how
much did the average household pay per year in federal gasoline taxes?
1411
The federal gasoline tax rate was 18.4 cents per gallon.
The average motor vehicle was driven approximately 11,340 miles
per year.
The national average fuel economy for noncommercial vehicles was
21.4 miles per gallon.
The average American household owned 1.75 vehicles.
$55.73(A)
$68.91(B)
$97.52(C)
$170.63(D)
1412
26. Following the catastrophic oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico in April of
2010, more than 900 bottlenose dolphins were found dead or stranded
in the oil spill area. The figure above shows the weight of a rescued
dolphin during its recovery. Based on the quadratic model fit to the data
shown, which of the following is the closest to the average rate of
change in the dolphin’s weight between week 2 and week 8 of its
recovery?
1413
4 pounds per week(A)
16 pounds per week(B)
20 pounds per week(C)
40 pounds per week(D)
27. As shown in the figure above, a lifeguard sees a struggling swimmer
who is 40 feet from the beach. The lifeguard runs 60 feet along the edge
of the water at a speed of 12 feet per second. He pauses for 1 second to
locate the swimmer again, and then dives into the water and swims
along a diagonal path to the swimmer at a speed of 5 feet per second.
How many seconds go by between the time the lifeguard sees the
struggling swimmer and the time he reaches the swimmer?
16(A)
22(B)
50(C)
56(D)
1414
28. What was the initial amount of gasoline in a fuel trailer, in gallons, if
there are now x gallons, y gallons were pumped into a storage tank, and
then 50 gallons were added to the trailer?
x  + y  + 50(A)
x  + y  − 50(B)
y  − x  + 50(C)
x  − y  − 50(D)
1415
29. The figure above shows the net change, as a percentage, for U.S. import
and export prices from January to July 2014 as reported by the Bureau
of Labor Statistics. For example, U.S. import prices declined 0.2
percent in July while export prices remained unchanged for that month.
Based on this information, which of the following statements is true for
the time period shown in the figure?
On average, export prices increased more than import prices.(A)
Import prices showed an increase more often than export prices.(B)
Import prices showed the greatest change between two consecutive
months.
(C)
From January to July, import prices showed a greater overall
decrease than export prices.
(D)
1416
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
30. The Ironman Triathlon originated in Hawaii in 1978. The format of the
Ironman has not changed since then: it consists of a 3.86-km swim, a
180.2-km bicycle ride, and a 42.2-km run, all raced in that order and
without a break. Suppose an athlete bikes 10 times as fast as he swims
and runs 5 times as fast as he swims. The variable x in the expression
above represents the rate at which the athlete swims, and the whole
expression represents the number of hours that it takes him to complete
the race. If it takes him 16.2 hours to complete the race, how many
kilometers did he swim in 1 hour?
0.85(A)
1.01(B)
1.17(C)
1.87(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
1.
1417
correctly.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  not  ).
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1418
31. What value of x satisfies the equation  ?
1419
32. Some doctors base the dosage of a drug to be given to a patient on the
patient’s body surface area (BSA). The most commonly used formula
for calculating BSA is  , where w is the patient’s
weight (in kg), h is the patient’s height (in cm), and BSA is measured in
square meters. How tall (in cm) is a patient who weighs 150 kg and has
a BSA of  m ?2
33. A college math professor informs her students that rather than curving
final grades, she will replace each student’s lowest test score with the
next to lowest test score, and then re-average the test grades. If Leeza
has test scores of 86, 92, 81, 64, and 83, by how many points does her
final test average change based on the professor’s policy?
34. In the figure above,  ,  , and  are diameters of the circle. If
y  = 2 x  − 12, and the shaded area is  of the circle, what is the value
of x?
1420
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
Chemical Makeup of One Mole of Chloroform
Element Number of Moles Mass per Mole (grams)
Carbon 1 12.011
Hydrogen 1 1.008
Chlorine 3 35.453
35. If the slope of a line is  and a point on the line is (4, 7), what is the
y-intercept of the line?
36. Rory left home and drove straight to the airport at an average speed of
45 miles per hour. He returned home along the same route, but traffic
slowed him down and he only averaged 30 miles per hour on the return
trip. If his total travel time was 2 hours and 30 minutes, how far is it, in
miles, from Rory’s house to the airport?
1421
A chemical solvent is a substance that dissolves another to form a solution.
For example, water is a solvent for sugar. Unfortunately, many chemical
solvents are hazardous to the environment. One eco-friendly chemical
solvent is chloroform, also known as trichloromethane (CHCl ). The table
above shows the chemical makeup of one mole of chloroform.
3
37. Carbon makes up what percent of the mass of one mole of chloroform?
Round your answer to the nearest whole percent and ignore the percent
sign when entering your answer.
38. If a chemist starts with 1,000 grams of chloroform and uses 522.5
grams, how many moles of chlorine are left?
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1422
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
1423
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how Morris uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from Elisabeth Woodbridge Morris’s essay “The Tyranny
of Things.” In this portion, Morris paints a portrait of American
consumerism in 1917 and offers a distinct perspective on the joy of
freedom from “things, things, things.”
1424
Two fifteen-year-old girls stood eyeing one another on first
acquaintance. Finally one little girl said, “Which do you like best,
people or things?” The other little girl said, “Things.” They were
friends at once.
I suppose we all go through a phase when we like things best; and not
only like them, but want to possess them under our hand. The passion for
accumulation is upon us. We make “collections,” we fill our rooms, our
walls, our tables, our desks, with things, things, things.
Many people never pass out of this phase. They never see a flower
without wanting to pick it and put it in a vase, they never enjoy a book
without wanting to own it, nor a picture without wanting to hang it on
their walls. They keep photographs of all their friends and Kodak
albums of all the places they visit, they save all their theater
programmes and dinner cards, they bring home all their alpenstocks.
Their houses are filled with an undigested mass of things, like the
terminal moraine where a glacier dumps at length everything it has
picked up during its progress through the lands.
But to some of us a day comes when we begin to grow weary of things.
We realize that we do not possess them; they possess us. Our books are
a burden to us, our pictures have destroyed every restful wall-space, our
china is a care, our photographs drive us mad, our programmes and
*
1425
alpenstocks fill us with loathing. We feel stifled with the sense of things,
and our problem becomes, not how much we can accumulate, but how
much we can do without. We send our books to the village library, and
our pictures to the college settlement. Such things as we cannot give
away, and have not the courage to destroy, we stack in the garret, where
they lie huddled in dim and dusty heaps, removed from our sight, to be
sure, yet still faintly importunate.
Then, as we breathe more freely in the clear space that we have made
for ourselves, we grow aware that we must not relax our vigilance, or
we shall be once more overwhelmed….
It extends to all our doings. For every event there is a “souvenir.” We
cannot go to luncheon and meet our friends but we must receive a token
to carry away. Even our children cannot have a birthday party, and play
games, and eat good things, and be happy. The host must receive gifts
from every little guest, and provide in return some little remembrance
for each to take home. Truly, on all sides we are beset, and we go
lumbering along through life like a ship encrusted with barnacles, which
can never cut the waves clean and sure and swift until she has been
scraped bare again. And there seems little hope for us this side our last
port.
1426
And to think that there was a time when folk had not even that hope!
When a man’s possessions were burned with him, so that he might,
forsooth, have them all about him in the next world! Suffocating thought!
To think one could not even then be clear of things, and make at least a
fresh start! That must, indeed, have been in the childhood of the race.
Once upon a time, when I was very tired, I chanced to go away to a little
house by the sea…. There was nothing in the house to demand care, to
claim attention, to cumber my consciousness with its insistent,
unchanging companionship. There was nothing but a shelter, and outside,
the fields and marshes, the shore and the sea. These did not have to be
taken down and put up and arranged and dusted and cared for. They
were not things at all, they were powers, presences….
If we could but free ourselves once for all, how simple life might
become! One of my friends, who, with six young children and only one
servant, keeps a spotless house and a soul serene, told me once how she
did it. “My dear, once a month I give away every single thing in the
house that we do not imperatively need. It sounds wasteful, but I don’t
believe it really is….”
1427
Write an essay in which you explain how Morris builds an
argument to persuade her audience that possessions are
oppressive. In your essay, analyze how Morris uses one or more
of the features listed in the box that precedes the passage (or
features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and
persuasiveness of her argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Morris’s
claims, but rather explain how Morris builds an argument to
persuade her audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1428
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. C
1429
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. A
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. A
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41. B
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. D
48. D
49. A
50. C
51. D
52. C
1431
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. A
1432
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. B
1433
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. C
1434
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
1435
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. 20
17. 1
18. 2
19. 14
20. 6
1436
1437
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. B
1438
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. 1
32. 192
33. 3.4
34. 40
35. 14
36. 45
37. 10
38. 12
1439
1440
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
Anna Karenina
1. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Make sure to read the passage closely so events are
clearly understood.
Getting to the Answer: The first paragraph explicitly states how Levin
knew that Kitty was there. Choice (A) matches the information stated in
the passage.
1441
2. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Use context clues to help you distinguish the shades
of meaning each word has.
Getting to the Answer: Two of the answer choices have a somewhat
negative connotation. The author is not describing the scene in a
negative way. In this passage, the word “swarmed” means “gathered.”
Therefore, (B) is the correct answer. The other words’ connotations do
not fit with the context of the sentence.
3. C
1442
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for clues in the text that suggest what Levin is
like.
Getting to the Answer: Emotionally charged phrases, such as “the
rapture and the terror that seized on his heart,” help reveal Levin’s
personality. Choice (C) reflects the depiction of Levin as a passionate
person.
4. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that don’t include a
description of Levin.
Getting to the Answer: Because the excerpt focuses on Levin’s
feelings toward Kitty, evidence of the kind of person he is will probably
reflect this. Choice (C) provides the best evidence.
1443
5. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: The central theme of a passage is the insight about
life that the author is trying to get across to the reader. Eliminate any
themes that are not revealed by the experiences of Levin.
Getting to the Answer: Though you may personally agree with more
than one of the themes presented, (A) is the only answer choice that is
supported by details in the passage. Levin’s feelings and actions support
this theme.
6. C
1444
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Examine the passage to see what other characters do
in response to Levin.
Getting to the Answer: The other skaters go about their business. Most
take little notice of Levin. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
7. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote in the context of the passage. This
will help you decide the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: Of all the answer choices, Nikolay’s way of
greeting Levin is the strongest evidence that people think Levin seems
normal. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
1445
8. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: The context of the passage can help reveal the
meaning of the word. Insert each choice in the sentence to see which one
makes the most sense.
Getting to the Answer: Levin speaks directly to his heart, asking it to
behave. Choice (A), “begged,” comes closest to meaning the same thing
as “conjured” in this context.
9. D
1446
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the entire scene described in the passage
and decide why the author chose to describe Levin’s heart as
“throbbing.”
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. The author
chose this word to capture Levin’s agitated state.
10. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are clearly not
representative of the author’s feelings or attitude about Levin.
Getting to the Answer: The author presents Levin’s situation as one
that is painful. The passage’s tone suggests that Levin is worthy of the
reader’s empathy. Choice (A) fits this tone.
1447
Franklin Delano Roosevelt Speech
11. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that indicate broad supporting
goals. The correct answer will reflect the specific intent of President
Roosevelt in giving this address.
Getting to the Answer: The introduction to the passage states that
President Roosevelt reveals his intention to preserve and spread
American democratic ideals. Roosevelt’s remarks regarding taxation,
patriotism, and sacrifice suggest that he wishes to gain the support of the
American people for these goals and to persuade them to connect the
fight for global democracy with their own democratic interests. Choice
(A) makes clear the president’s purpose in winning citizens’ support for
the battles abroad.
12. D
1448
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that do not provide direct
evidence to support the president’s purpose. The correct answer will
relate specifically to the stated purpose, or intent, of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: President Roosevelt makes clear that his
intention is to provide support for global efforts to end tyranny and
spread democracy and to garner the support of the American people for
these goals. In the previous question, his stated purpose is “to make its
people conscious of their individual stake in the preservation of
democratic life in America.” The two elements of that purpose are the
American people and the preservation of democratic life. Only (D)
provides direct evidence for the previous question.
13. D
1449
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: All answer choices are alternate meanings of the
word “sacrifice.” The correct answer will relate directly to the context
of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Despite the fact that Roosevelt gave the speech
on the eve of America’s involvement in World War II, neither B nor C is
the meaning he’s after. Choice (D), “surrender of interests to a greater
good,” is the correct answer.
14. B
1450
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that you’re looking for a relationship
that is suggested, not stated. To reach the correct answer, you must infer,
or make a logical guess, based on information in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer will provide support for
the stated purpose of the passage while demonstrating a logical
relationship. Choice (B) provides support for the stated goal of winning
support among U.S. citizens for the spread of democracy abroad. It does
so by suggesting that the security of U.S. democracy depends on the
advancement of human rights and freedoms globally.
15. D
1451
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers that provide evidence for incorrect
answers to the previous question. The correct answer will use language
reflective of the correct answer above to demonstrate a relationship.
Getting to the Answer: Principles and ideas such as democracy,
freedom, and protection of human rights are used interchangeably
throughout Roosevelt’s speech. The lines in (D) draw the connection
between freedom at home and freedom everywhere.
16. C
1452
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each answer choice for the word in
question and decide which one fits the context provided in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In the context of the passage, (C) works best. It
draws a distinction between individual citizens’ monetary interests, or
their pocketbooks, and the cause of patriotism, or the greater good.
17. A
1453
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the correct answer will relate
directly to the meaning of the elements in the identified lines.
Getting to the Answer: President Roosevelt is arguing against those
who would oppose the overarching goal of his speech, namely to recruit
American public support for the war effort and the spread of democracy
overseas. Choice (A) fits best; Roosevelt asserts that his goals are
realistic and attainable, not just idealistic visions, as his opponents
might claim.
18. D
1454
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Be wary of answers like A and B that seem to offer
specific advice or state specific goals relevant to the purpose of the
passage without suggesting how those goals might be achieved. The
correct answer will offer a tool, a condition, or another asset for
achieving the passage’s claim—in this case, the spread of democracy.
Getting to the Answer: The previous question identifies that President
Roosevelt considers the spread of global democracy achievable. This
question asks you to identify how the president envisions achieving that
purpose. Choice (D) matches the intent. In this line, President Roosevelt
identifies “our unity of purpose” as an asset that will help achieve his
goal.
19. C
1455
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers that cite other policies that the
president might support that are not related to the lines quoted. The
correct answer will relate directly to the specific lines in question.
Getting to the Answer: In this speech, Roosevelt identifies four
freedoms that he views the United States as obligated to defend. The
freedom from want signifies a commitment to helping struggling
populations at home and abroad. Choice (C) fits. The president urges
economic understandings among nations to help those in need.
20. C
1456
Women’s Suffrage
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers like A that offer other viable
uses of rhetoric within the larger passage. The correct answer will
relate specifically to the text cited in the question.
Getting to the Answer: Roosevelt suggests that the preservation of
American freedoms cannot exist without the preservation of human
rights on a global scale. To cement this connection, he contrasts
democratic movements with tyrannical movements occurring in the
world. Choice (C) is the correct answer. President Roosevelt references
“the so-called new order of tyranny” in order to show what might
happen should the United States and the American people not support
other nations in their fight against such tyranny.
21. C
1457
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the “stance” of an author refers to
his or her perspective or attitude toward the topic.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is written by a secondary source,
such as a scholar or a historian, who is looking back on the events that
led to the adoption of the Nineteenth Amendment. It is not written by a
primary source, such as a legislator or an advocate in the midst of the
movement’s events. For this reason, (C) is the correct answer. The
author of the passage is most clearly a scholar evaluating not just the
motivation of women’s suffrage leaders but the key events and impact of
the movement as a whole.
22. B
1458
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers like A that refer to related issues not
relevant to the passage’s purpose and answers like D that go too far. The
correct answer will identify a claim made explicitly in the quote.
Getting to the Answer: In the quote, the author notes that election laws
following passage of the Nineteenth Amendment did not secure equal
voting rights for all. From this statement, it is fairly clear that other
groups of people still needed support for their voting rights. Answer (B)
is correct.
23. D
1459
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread the line quoted in the previous question and
notice that it occurs in the passage after ratification of the Nineteenth
Amendment. Therefore, the evidence you’re looking for will refer to an
event that came later.
Getting to the Answer: The author suggests that the Nineteenth
Amendment did not win equal voting rights for all citizens but that it did
serve as an important step on the way to free and fair elections. Choice
(D) demonstrates that a later event expanded voting rights further, to
citizens regardless not only of gender but also of race.
24. C
1460
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Consider the events that are being described in the
paragraph in which the word appears. This will help you choose the
best answer.
Getting to the Answer: It’s clear in this paragraph that the women’s
suffrage movement was gaining momentum at this time. Events and
tactics excited those who supported the movement and attracted more
supporters. Therefore, (C) reflects the correct meaning of “galvanized.”
25. A
1461
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Carefully review the paragraph in which the line
appears before choosing the best answer.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) demonstrates the connection
between successfully changing one element (people’s minds) in order to
change the other (laws).
26. A
1462
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be wary of answers like D that go too far in
asserting unsubstantiated causal relationships. The correct answer will
reference an idea or a relationship that is supported by the content of the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) expresses the idea implicit in the
passage that the American government responds, sometimes slowly, to
the changing needs and sentiments of the American people.
27. D
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Watch for answers like A and C that cite specific
changes or examples that might seem to support the implicit meaning but
do not go far enough. The correct answer will reflect the full
relationship or idea described in the implicit meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to the previous question
states the idea implicit in the passage that the government responds and
adapts to changes in U.S. society. This suggests a change that takes place
over time. Choice (D) demonstrates the idea that both society and the
government have changed over time as the civil rights movement of the
late twentieth century overcame social and legal inequalities inherited
from earlier in the nation’s history.
28. C
1464
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers that aren’t backed by sufficient
evidence in the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows proof that women’s
suffrage unfolded through a series of events over a long period of time.
Choice (C) is the correct answer.
29. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence in which the word appears. The
correct answer should be interchangeable with the word.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that “Posters … called into
question the authenticity of a free country with unjust laws.” Choice (C)
is the correct answer, as “legitimacy” refers to something that is in
accordance with established rules or principles.
1465
30. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be cautious about answers that state true events but
that do not directly relate to the content of the question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. Wilson’s
framing of the conflict abroad as a fight for democracy and freedom
helped women suffragists draw attention to the fact that the U.S.
government was fighting for justice abroad while denying justice at
home.
31. D
1466
Paired Passages—Genomes
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: A question like this is asking you to compare
information provided in the graphic with information provided in the
passage text. Consider each answer choice as you make your
comparison.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. Both the
graphic and the passage indicate that women’s suffrage gained early
victories in several states quite a few years before becoming law at the
federal level through passage of the Nineteenth Amendment.
32. B
1467
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Look for the answer choice that describes an idea
supported throughout the passage rather than a specific detail.
Getting to the Answer: Collectively, the details in the passage support
the idea that the coffee market can be expanded and, as a result, the
profits generated from coffee sales can be increased by applying
information gained in sequencing the genome of coffee plants. Choice
(B) is the correct answer.
33. B
1468
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers that are not directly supported by
evidence in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Eliminate answers such as A and C, which are
not supported by the main idea of the passage. In contrast, there is
evidential support for (B). The author would most likely agree that
studying other nonhuman primates could be beneficial to people.
34. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Watch out for answer choices that seem plausible but
are not directly implied by the evidence in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. In the last
paragraph, the author discusses how research that is currently being
conducted could impact the future of coffee production.
1469
35. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Look back at the previous question. Find the lines
from the passage that describe research that could increase the
profitability of coffee for producers.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. In the last
paragraph, the author describes how current research could lead to a
way to produce coffee plants without caffeine in a more cost-effective
manner.
36. B
1470
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that may sound
plausible but take the information presented in the passage too far.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the research being
conducted on the DNA of gibbons could provide scientists with a way to
start figuring out how to prevent cancer and other human ailments.
Choice (B) is the correct answer.
37. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Look at your answer for the previous question. Skim
the passage to find the paragraph you used to select your answer.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the quote from the passage that
directly supports the idea that more research would be needed before
current findings could be applied to curing diseases in humans.
1471
38. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Remember that you’re looking for a statement that
expresses the purposes of both passages, not just one.
Getting to the Answer: Both passages discuss how sequencing the
genome of a nonhuman organism can benefit people. Therefore, (A) is
the correct answer.
39. B
1472
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answer choices that are synonyms for
“compelled” but do not make sense in the context in which they’re used
in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) makes the most sense in context.
The scientists felt driven to pursue genome sequencing of the coffee
plant.
40. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Replace the word in the sentence with each answer
choice and eliminate those that do not make sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: In the context, (A) makes the most sense.
“Maintenance” most nearly means “preservation.”
1473
41. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answer choices that are not directly
related to the phrase being considered.
Getting to the Answer: The author of Passage 1 is making a
generalization about the coffee industry in order to introduce the main
topic to the reader. The author uses the phrase a “pillar of the world
economy” to show that the coffee industry plays a vital role in the world
economy. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
42. D
1474
Biomimicry Passage
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answer choices that make inferences
based on only one of the passages.
Getting to the Answer: Each passage describes a way that genome
sequencing of an organism other than a human has benefited people.
Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
43. A
1475
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Look for the answer choice that describes an idea
supported throughout the passage rather than a specific detail.
Getting to the Answer: The passage cites several examples of
biomimicry, the study of how materials and systems found in nature can
be replicated to benefit humans. Therefore, (A) is the best summary of
the central idea of the passage.
44. B
1476
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Think back to why you chose your answer to the
previous question. This will help you pick the correct quote as
evidence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer because it
provides evidence for the central idea that the author presents about the
field of biomimicry.
45. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the main idea of the quote. Eliminate any
answer choices that don’t support this main idea.
Getting to the Answer: The quote explains why architects turn to
biomimicry for solutions in their work. Choice (A) is the correct
answer.
1477
46. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph that the question is asking
about. Look for specific details about the abalone shrimp shell and soft
chalk.
Getting to the Answer: The passage clearly states that the abalone
shrimp shell is harder than soft chalk because of the way the basic
material composing each is arranged, so (B) is the correct answer.
47. D
1478
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: In order to understand why an author includes a
quote from another person, examine the surrounding sentences. This
often makes clear the author’s reason for including the quotation.
Getting to the Answer: The author includes the quote from Pawlyn to
support and strengthen his or her own view that energy efficiency “has
never been more important.” Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
48. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Replace the word in question with each of the
answer choices. This will help you eliminate the ones that don’t make
sense in the context.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D), “theories,” is the only answer
choice that makes sense in this context.
1479
49. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that you’re being asked to make an
inference, a logical guess based on information in the passage.
Therefore, the correct answer is not stated in a passage.
Getting to the Answer: The variety of examples of biomimicry
mentioned in the passage make it reasonable to infer that more scientists
will utilize solutions developed through biomimicry in the future.
Choice (A) is the correct answer.
50. C
1480
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quotation in the context of the passage.
Consider which one is the best evidence to support the inference made
in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The examples cited in (C) provide strong
evidence for the inference that more scientists will probably make use
of biomimicry in years to come.
51. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are synonyms for the
word in question but do not work in the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Because biomimicry is such an innovative
approach, it makes sense that the meaning of “radical” in this context is
closest to (D), “revolutionary.”
1481
52. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Remember that a graphic might not refer to something
explicitly stated in the passage. Instead, it often provides a visual
example of how an important concept discussed in the passage works.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic and its caption help illustrate an
example of biomimicry not mentioned in the passage: that of a solar
power plant designed to mimic the arrangement of petals in a sunflower.
This directs more energy toward the power plant’s central tower and
improves the efficiency of the power plant. Choice (C) is the correct
answer.
1482
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
The Age of the Librarian
1. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Examine the verb tense in the rest of the sentence.
This will help you find the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: As written, the sentence switches verb tense
midsentence. Other verbs in the sentence, “worked” and “was,” indicate
that the events happened in the past. Choice (C) is the correct choice
because it correctly uses the past tense of the target verb.
1483
2. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Pay attention to the quotation marks. Make sure a
complete sentence is properly punctuated within the quotation marks.
Getting to the Answer: Reading through the sentence and the answer
choices shows that two issues might need correcting. The sentence
inside the quotation marks is a complete sentence. The correct answer
needs to punctuate that sentence before closing the quote. Additionally,
“however” is being used as a connector or transition word and needs to
be followed by a comma after beginning the new sentence. Choice (D)
appropriately uses a period prior to the end quotes and correctly inserts
a comma after the transition “However.”
3. B
1484
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that distort the tone of the
passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage suggests that people expected or
anticipated that Harris would become a librarian. Evidence for this idea
is found in the statement that she was “constantly told” that she “should
be studying to be a librarian.” Harris was certainly aware that people
anticipated this course of study for her, but the presence of the phrase
“Little did she realize” tells you that she didn’t expect to become one.
The correct choice is (B), “imminent,” meaning that becoming a
librarian was about to occur despite her own expectations.
4. C
1485
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence carefully for context clues. Also,
think about the tone of what is being described. This will help you
choose the best answer.
Getting to the Answer: Given the phrasing of the sentence, the answer
must be close in meaning to “excited,” which is used earlier in the
sentence. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
5. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether a clause is independent or
dependent to decide between a comma and a semicolon.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. The sentence
is correctly punctuated as written because it uses a comma at the end of
the introductory clause.
1486
6. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence carefully. The sentence sounds
clunky and awkward. Look for an answer choice that makes the sentence
clear and easy to understand. Notice that the word “asking” is part of a
participial phrase that modifies “Miguel.”
Getting to the Answer: A participial phrase should be placed as close
as possible to the noun it modifies. When a participial phrase begins a
sentence, it should be set off with a comma.
Choice (C) is correct. The placement of commas and modifiers makes
the content easy to understand, and the sentence is free of grammatical or
punctuation errors.
7. B
1487
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph carefully and predict the
main idea. Then look for a close match with your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph discusses how the role of
librarian has changed due to an increased use of technology. Choice (B)
is the correct answer, as it explicitly addresses the changing role of the
librarian due to technology.
8. D
1488
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and note the series of examples. A
series should have parallel structure.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is not correct as written. The
items in the series switch forms from participial phrases beginning with
“enabling” and “offering” to “they house.” All of the items need to fit the
same pattern or form. Choice (D) is correct because it appropriately
begins each item in the series with a participle.
9. C
1489
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Don’t be fooled by answer choices that are true
statements but do not directly support the main idea of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph concerns how the role of the
librarian has changed due to an increased use of technology. The correct
answer needs to support the idea that librarians work with technology in
new ways. Choice (C) works best. It offers a specific example of how
teachers look to the librarian to be a “media mentor” and illustrates this
new role for school librarians.
10. C
1490
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence prior to the pronoun and determine
whom the pronoun is referencing. Pronouns should not be ambiguous,
and they must match the verb in number.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is ambiguous as written. “She”
would presumably refer back to the “young student,” but it seems
unlikely that the student would be laughing and thinking about the
collections in the library after asking the librarian a question. Choice
(C) is the best choice. It clearly indicates the subject of the sentence
(Harris) and avoids ambiguity.
11. A
1491
Unforeseen Consequences: The Dark Side of the
Industrial Revolution
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Figure out whom the pronoun refers to and make sure
it matches the antecedent in number. Watch out for confusing
contractions and possessives.
Getting to the Answer: The pronoun in the sentence needs to indicate
who will have the ideas. Harris is talking to a single student, so you will
need a singular possessive pronoun.
Choice (A) is correct. As it is, the sentence correctly uses a singular
possessive pronoun.
12. B
1492
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers that sound correct when they
stand alone but do not conform to the structure of the sentence as a
whole.
Getting to the Answer: The existing text is incorrect, as it does not
maintain parallel structure. Choice (B) is the correct answer, as it
maintains the parallel structure of preposition (“into”) + noun (“the
role”).
13. B
1493
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers that confuse the usage of commas
and semicolons.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. Without the comma, the
following clause modifies “urban areas” when it should modify the
entire preceding clause.
14. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Avoid choices that are redundant and imprecise. The
correct answer will use the clearest, most concise terminology to
communicate the idea.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. It is the most concise—
and clearest—word choice. The other choices use more words than
necessary to convey meaning.
1494
15. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: The first sentence should function as a transition
between ideas in the previous paragraph and ideas in the current
paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) makes sense. This choice connects
ideas from the previous paragraph with the content of paragraph 3. The
sentences that follow provide details to support that introductory idea.
16. A
1495
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers like B that fail to directly support
the cited sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The underlined sentence references
“unprecedented amounts of human-made carbon dioxide into the air.”
This suggests an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere over time. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
17. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Choose the answer that presents the correct
relationship between ideas.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. It shows the causal
relationship without adding verbiage.
1496
18. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Plug in the answer choices and select the one that
reflects a specific meaning relevant to the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph focuses on the negative effects
of industrialization and waste production. Therefore, (A) is the correct
answer.
19. B
1497
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Be careful of choices that relate to the underlined
portion of the text without showing clearly how the underlined portion
supports the full implication of the preceding sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph explains that industrialization
resulted in the destruction of resources. The correct answer, (B), serves
as clear evidence of the “process of destruction and reduced resources.”
20. C
1498
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers that make sense but do not
fully support the meaning of the content. The correct answer will not
only flow logically but will also reflect the precise purpose and
meaning of the larger sentence and paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer.
“Substandard” communicates clearly that the working conditions were
the cause of the health problems.
21. D
1499
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Eliminate choices that result in sentence fragments or
fragmented clauses. The correct answer will maintain appropriate
syntax without misusing punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. It sets off the dependent
clause without using incorrect punctuation to signal a hard break before
an independent clause or second complete sentence.
22. D
1500
Remembering Freud
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers that draw on similar ideas but
combine those ideas in a way that communicates a proposition not
supported by the essay as a whole. The correct answer will make sense
within the larger context of the essay.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea of the entire essay is that
industrialization and progress came at a cost that made the promise of a
bright future difficult to fulfill. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
23. C
1501
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider the fact that there may be a choice that
helps make the meaning of the sentence very precise.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) most accurately indicates that
Freud led a whole movement.
24. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Plug in each answer choice and select the one that
seems most correct.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) makes it clear to the reader that
this is extra information modifying the word “career.”
25. D
1502
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Remember that in a list, all things listed should be
presented with the same grammatical structure.
Getting to the Answer: “Id,” “ego,” and “Freudian slip” are all nouns.
Choice (D) is the correct answer because it uses a parallel structure for
all three nouns.
26. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Notice that the underlined sentence is the first
sentence in the paragraph. Think about which choice would make the
best topic sentence, given the content of the rest of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) correctly makes the free-speaking
technique the focus of the paragraph’s topic sentence, while suggesting
that the technique was radical enough to earn Freud his title.
1503
27. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any choices that don’t seem as precise as
others.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The word “recesses” is
more precise; it connotes smaller parts of the brain and a sense of being
hidden.
28. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Try reading the sentence in question aloud. This often
helps you get a good sense of whether or not a comma is needed.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) would fit here. The sentence
eliminates the unneeded comma and is a correct sentence.
1504
29. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Remember that a modifier should be adjacent to the
noun it is modifying and set off by punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The modifier “like
neurosis or other psychological trauma” should come directly after
“conditions.”
30. C
1505
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Consider how this sentence relates to the one before
it and the one that follows it. Does it offer strong support of the
connecting ideas?
Getting to the Answer: This section discussed the development and
lasting influence of Freud’s ideas. The best supporting sentence will
provide details connecting these concepts. Choice (C) is correct. It
emphasizes that Freud developed new ideas that have had a lasting
influence on psychological practices.
31. B
1506
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Notice that you are dealing with a run-on sentence.
Identify the point in the run-on where it appears two sentences have
been fused together.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. This choice splits the
run-on sentence into two separate, grammatically correct sentences.
32. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are not complete
sentences or do not maintain the correct verb tense.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) correctly changes the phrase
“Freud’s finding of a method” to “Freud found a method,” making the
sentence complete. It also corrects the verb tense.
1507
Success in Montreal
33. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Recall that when a dependent clause precedes an
independent clause, it should be set off with a comma.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the best choice. Although
lengthy, the dependent clause in the sentence (“So as long as occasions
arise…”) is correctly combined with its independent clause (“Sigmund
Freud will be remembered…”) by use of a comma.
34. B
1508
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Always check whether two or more verbs that serve
the same function have a parallel structure.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. “To prevent” is in the
infinitive form like the first verb in the sentence, “to reverse.”
35. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look for the choice that most concisely and correctly
joins the two sentences.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the best fit. This option joins the
sentences concisely and correctly.
36. C
1509
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Remember that the best answer is the most concise
and effective way of stating the information while ensuring that the
information is complete.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) works best here. It uses the fewest
necessary words to convey the complete information.
37. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any choices that use transition words
inappropriately.
Getting to the Answer: Two complete thoughts should be separated
into two different sentences. Therefore, (C) is the best choice.
1510
38. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Examine the graphic for details that suggest which
answer is correct.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) accurately reflects the information
in the graphic. Beginning in the 1990s, the size of the ozone hole began
to level off.
39. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Check each word to see how it fits with the context
of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: While all of the words have similar meanings,
only one fits the context of the paragraph. Choice (C), “measured,” has a
connotation that corresponds to “gauge” in the following sentence.
1511
40. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Remember that the possessive form must agree with
its antecedent.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer will reflect the gender and
number of its antecedent; in this case, the word “treaty.” Therefore, (B)
is correct.
41. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the central idea of a paragraph, identify
important details and then summarize them in a sentence or two. Then
find the choice that is the closest to your summary.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) most clearly states the paragraph’s
central idea.
1512
42. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the correct answer, first determine the central
idea of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the least essential sentence in the
paragraph, so it is the correct answer.
43. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Context clues tell which word is appropriate in the
sentence. Check to see which word fits best in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The word “reverse,” (D), fits with the context
of the sentence and connotes a more precise action than does “change.”
1513
44. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Examine the entire paragraph. Decide whether the
sentence provides more information about a topic mentioned in one of
the other sentences.
Getting to the Answer: This sentence provides more information
related to sentence 1, “The Montreal Protocol is a living document”; it
describes how the document is “living.” Choice (C) is the correct
answer.
1514
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: To determine what the y-intercept could mean in the
context of a word problem, examine the labels on the graph and note
what each axis represents.
Getting to the Answer: According to the labels, the y-axis represents
cost, and the x-axis represents the number of games played. The y-
intercept, (0, 5), has an x-value of 0, which means 0 games were played,
yet there is still a cost of $5. The cost must represent a flat fee that is
charged before any games are played, such as an entrance fee to enter
the arcade.
1515
2. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: To divide one rational expression by another,
multiply the first expression by the reciprocal (the flip) of the second
expression.
Getting to the Answer: Rewrite the division as multiplication, factor
any factorable expressions, and then simplify if possible.
Note that the question also states that x  ≠ −5. This doesn’t affect your
answer—it is simply stated because the denominators of rational
expressions cannot equal 0.
1516
3. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: When the equation of a circle is written in the form
( x  – h )  + ( y  – k )  = r , the point (h, k) represents the center of the
circle on a coordinate plane, and r represents the length of the radius.
Getting to the Answer: To find the area of a circle, use the formula, A
= π r . In the equation given in the question, r  is the constant on the
right-hand side (25)—you don’t even need to solve for r because the
area formula involves r , not r. So, the area is π(25) or 25π.
2 2 2
2 2
2
4. C
1517
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: When using function notation, f(x) is simply another
way of saying y, so this question is asking you to find the values of x for
which y  = 0, or in other words, where the graph crosses the x-axis.
Getting to the Answer: The graph crosses the x-axis at the points (–2,
0) and (3, 0), so the values of x for which f ( x ) = 0 are –2 and 3.
5. B
1518
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question. You
could start by cross-multiplying to get rid of the denominators, but
simplifying the numerators first will make the calculations easier.
Getting to the Answer:
6. D
1519
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: This is a crossover question, so quickly skim the first
couple of sentences. Then look for the relevant information in the last
couple of sentences. It may also help to circle the portions of the graph
that meet the given requirement.
Getting to the Answer: Because greater means higher on a graph, the
statement f ( t ) > g ( t ) translates to “Where is f(t) above g(t)?” The
solid curve represents f and the dashed curve represents g, so f  > g
between the years 1960 and 1980 and again between the years 2000 and
2010. Look for these time intervals in the answer choices: 1960 < t  <
1980 and 2000 < t  < 2010.
7. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Use the shape of the data to predict the type of
equation that might be used as a model. Then, use specific values from
1520
the graph to choose the correct equation.
Getting to the Answer: According to the graph, the population of the
whales grew slowly at first and then more quickly. This means that an
exponential model is probably the best fit, so you can eliminate A
(linear) and B (quadratic). The remaining equations are both
exponential, so choose a data point and see which equation is the closest
fit. Be careful—the vertical axis represents hundreds of whales, and the
question states that t represents the number of years since the study
began, so t  = 0 for 1995, t  = 3 for 1998, and so on. If you use the data
for 1995, which is the point (0, 100), the results are the same for both
equations, so choose a different point. Using the data for 2007, t  = 2007
– 1995 = 12, and the number of whales was 800. Substitute these values
into C and D to see which one is true. Choice C is not true because
 . Choice (D) is correct because
is true.
8. B
1521
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Average rate of change is the same as slope, so use
the slope formula.
Getting to the Answer: To find the average rate of change over the 5-
year period, find the slope between the starting point (0, 1,200) and the
ending point (5, 100).
The average rate of change is negative because the laptop decreases in
value over time.
Note: Because the question involves straight-line depreciation, you
could have used any two points on the graph to find the slope. As a
general rule, however, you should use the endpoints of the given time
interval.
9. B
1522
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When multiplying polynomials, carefully multiply
each term in the first factor by each term in the second factor. This
question doesn’t ask for the entire product, so check to make sure you
answered the right question (the coefficient of x ).
Getting to the Answer:
The coefficient of x  is 2 + (–4) = –2.
2
2
10. A
1523
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Notice that there are no grid-lines and no numbers on
the axes. This is a great clue that the numbers in the equations don’t
actually matter.
Getting to the Answer: The line is decreasing, so the slope (m) is
negative. The line crosses the y-axis below 0, so the y-intercept (b) is
also negative. Put each answer choice in slope-intercept form, one at a
time, and examine the signs of m and b. Begin with A:
You don’t need to check any of the other equations. Choice (A) has a
negative slope and a negative y-intercept, so it is the correct equation.
11. C
1524
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Graphically, a system of linear equations that has no
solution indicates two parallel lines or, in other words, two lines that
have the same slope. So, write each of the equations in slope-intercept
form ( y  = mx  + b ) and set their slopes (m) equal to each other to solve
for k. Before finding the slopes, multiply the top equation by 4 to make it
easier to manipulate.
Getting to the Answer:
The slope of the first line is  , and the slope of the second line is  .
Set them equal and solve for k.
1525
12. B
1526
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to units, particularly when a
question involves rates. The $4.00 for the first  mile is a flat fee.
Before you write the inequality, you need to find the per-mile rate for the
remaining miles.
Getting to the Answer: The driver charges $4.00 for the first  mile,
which is a flat fee, so write 4. The additional charge is $1.50 per 
mile, or 1.50 times 2 = $3.00 per mile. The number of miles after the
first  mile is  , so the cost of the trip, not including the first 
mile, is  . This means the cost of the whole trip is
 . The clue “no more than $10” means that much or
less, so use the symbol ≤. The inequality is  ,
which simplifies to 3.25 + 3 m  ≤ 10.
13. A
Difficulty: Hard
1527
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Think about how the transformations affect the graph
of g(x) and draw a sketch of h(x) on the same grid. Compare the new
graph to each of the answer choices until you find one that is true.
Getting to the Answer: The graph of h ( x ) = – g ( x ) + 1 is a vertical
reflection of g(x), over the x-axis, that is then shifted up 1 unit. The
graph looks like the dashed line in the following graph:
Now, compare the dashed line to each of the answer choices: the range
of h(x) is the set of y-values from lowest to highest (based on the dashed
line). The lowest point occurs at point B’ and has a y-value of –3; the
highest value occurs at both ends of the graph and is 3, so the range is
1528
 . This means (A) is correct and you can move on to the
next question. Don’t waste valuable time checking the other answer
choices unless you are not sure about the range. (Choice B: The
minimum value of h(x) is –3, not –4. Choice C: The coordinates of point
A on h(x) are (–2, –2), not (2, 4). Choice D: the graph of h(x) is
decreasing, not increasing, between x  = –5 and x  = –2.)
14. D
1529
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: Multiply the two complex numbers just as you would
two binomials (using FOIL). Then, combine like terms and use the
definition i  = –1 to simplify the result.
Getting to the Answer:
The question asks for a in a  + bi , so the correct answer is 17.
2
15. A
1530
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Think of the rate given in the question in terms of the
constant term you see on the right-hand side of the equation. Working
together, the two treatment plants can filter the water in 72 hours. This is
equivalent to saying that they can filter  of the water in 1 hour.
Getting to the Answer: If  is the portion of the water the two
treatment plants can filter together, then each term on the left side of the
equation represents the portion that each plant can filter individually in
1 hour. Because the new facility is 4 times as fast as the older facility, 
represents the portion of the water the new plant can filter in 1 hour, and
 represents the portion of the water the older plant can filter in 1 hour.
16. 20
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
1531
Strategic Advice: Only one equation is given, and it has two variables.
This means that you don’t have enough information to solve for either
variable. Instead, look for the relationship between the variable terms in
the equation and those in the expression that you are trying to find, x  +
2 y .
Getting to the Answer: First, move the y-term to the left side of the
equation to make it look more like the expression you are trying to find.
The expression doesn’t have fractions, so clear the fractions in the
equation by multiplying both sides by 4. This yields the expression that
you are looking for, x + 2 y , so no further work is required—just read
the value on the right-hand side of the equation. The answer is 20.
17. 1
Difficulty: Medium
1532
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: This question is extremely difficult to answer unless
you draw a sketch. It doesn’t have to be perfect—you just need to get an
idea of where the solution region is. Don’t forget to flip the inequality
symbol when you graph the second equation.
Getting to the Answer: Sketch the system.
If (a, b) is a solution to the system, then a is the x-coordinate of any
point in the darkest shaded region and b is the corresponding y-
coordinate. When a  = 6, the minimum possible value for b lies on the
lower boundary line, 2 x  – 3 y  ≤ 9. It looks like the y-coordinate is 1,
1533
but to be sure, substitute x  = 6 into the equation and solve for y. You can
use = in the equation, instead of the inequality symbol, because you are
finding a point on the boundary line.
18. 2
1534
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Rewrite the radicals as fraction exponents:
 and  .
Getting to the Answer: Write each factor in the expression in
exponential form. Then use the rules of exponents to simplify the
expression. Add the exponents of the factors that are being multiplied
and subtract the exponent of the factor that is being divided:
Because n is the power of x, the value of n is 2.
19. 14
Difficulty: Hard
1535
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: The shaded region is the area of the larger triangle
minus the area of the smaller triangle. Set up and solve an equation using
the information from the figure. Before you grid in your answer, check
that you answered the right question (height of larger triangle).
Getting to the Answer: You don’t know the height of the smaller
triangle, so call it h. You do know the area of the shaded region—it’s 52
square units.
Larger triangle: base = 12; height = h  + 3 + 3
Smaller triangle: base = 8; height = h
Shaded area = large area – small area
1536
The question asks for the height of the larger triangle, so the correct
answer is 8 + 3 + 3 = 14.
20. 6
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: The highest power of x in the equation is 2, so the
function is quadratic. Writing quadratic equations can be tricky and
time-consuming. If you know the roots, you can use factors to write the
equation. If you don’t know the roots, you need to create a system of
equations to find the coefficients of the variable terms.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t know the roots of this equation, so
start with the point that has the easiest values to work with, (0, 1), and
substitute them into the equation y = ax  + bx  + c .
Now your equation looks like y  = ax  + bx  + 1. Next, use the other
two points to create a system of two equations in two variables.
2
2
1537
You now have a system of equations to solve. None of the variables has
a coefficient of 1, so use elimination to solve the system. If you multiply
the top equation by 2 and the bottom equation by 3, the b-terms will
eliminate each other.
Now, find b by substituting a  = 2 into either of the original equations.
Using the top equation, you get:
The value of a + b  + c  is 2 + 3 + 1 = 6.
1538
1539
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. C
1540
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: You can use the formula 
whenever you know two out of the three quantities.
Getting to the Answer: The clue “all” tells you that the “whole” is
what you don’t know. The percent is 96.5, and the part is 321,000,000.
The answer choices are rounded to the nearest thousand, so the answer
is 332,642,000.
2. C
1541
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: A one-time fee does not depend on the variable and
is therefore a constant. A unit rate, however, is always multiplied by the
independent variable.
Getting to the Answer: The total cost consists of the site visit fee (a
constant), an hourly cost (which depends on the number of hours), and
the cost of the materials (which are taxed). The constant in the equation
is 75 and is therefore the site visit fee; 45 is being multiplied by h (the
number of hours), so $45 must be the hourly rate. That leaves the
remaining term, 1.06(82.5), which must be the cost of the materials
($82.50) plus a 6% tax.
3. D
1542
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The intersection (overlap) of the two shaded regions
is the solution to the system of inequalities. Check each point to see
whether it lies in the region with the darkest shading. Don’t forget to
check that you answered the right question—you are looking for the
point that is not a solution to the system.
Getting to the Answer: Each of the first three points clearly lies in the
overlap. The point (3, 3) looks like it lies on the dashed line, which
means it is not included in the solution. To check this, plug (3, 3) into
the easier inequality: 3 ≯ 3 (3 is equal to itself, not greater than itself),
so (D) is correct.
4. A
1543
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Quadratic equations can be written in several forms,
each of which reveals something special about the graph. For example,
the vertex form of a quadratic equation gives the minimum or maximum
value of the function, while the standard form reveals the y-intercept.
Getting to the Answer: The factored form of a quadratic equation
reveals the solutions to the equation, which graphically represent the x-
intercepts. Choice (A) is the only equation written in this form and
therefore must be correct. You can set each factor equal to 0 and solve
to find that the x-intercepts of the graph are  and  .
5. B
1544
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into steps. Before you can use the
ratio, you need to find the percent of the students who answered either
“Foreign Policy” or “Environment.”
Getting to the Answer: The ratio given in the question is 5:3, so write
this as 5 parts “Foreign Policy”and 3 parts “Environment.” You don’t
know how big a part is, so call it x. This means that 5 x  + 3 x  = the
percent of the students who answered either “Foreign Policy” or
“Environment,” which is 100% – all the other answers:
Each part has a value of 7, and 3 parts answered “Environment,” so the
correct percentage is 3(7) = 21%.
6. C
1545
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Examine both the shape and the direction of the data
to pick the best description of the association.
Getting to the Answer: A data set that has a linear association follows
the path of a straight line; a data set that is exponential follows a path
that is similar to linear data, but with a curve to it because the rate of
increase (or decrease) changes over time. This data set has a curve to it,
so “exponential” describes the association better than “linear.” This
means you can eliminate A and B. A positive association between two
variables is one in which higher values of one variable correspond to
higher values of the other variable, and vice versa. In other words, as
the x-values of the data points go up, so do the y-values. This is indeed
the case for this data set, so (C) is correct.
7. D
1546
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Your only choice for this question is to compare each
statement to the figure. Don’t waste time trying to figure out the exact
value for each bar—an estimate is good enough to determine whether
each statement is true.
Getting to the Answer: Choice A is incorrect because the price in
2008 was slightly less (not more) than $3.50, while the price in 2013
was right around $3.50. Choice B is incorrect because the price in 2003
was more than $2.00, and the price in 2013 was not more than twice that
($4.00). Choice C is incorrect because the price in 2008 was about
$3.25 and the price in 2009 was about $2.75—this is not a difference of
more than $1.00. This means (D) must be correct. You don’t have to
check it—just move on. (Between 2003 and 2008, the change in price
was about $3.40 − $2.30 = $1.10; between 2008 and 2013, the change
in price was only about $3.50 − $3.40 = $0.10; the change in price was
greater between 2003 and 2008.)
8. B
1547
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Because none of the variable terms has a coefficient
of 1, solve the system of equations using elimination by addition
(combining the equations). Before you choose an answer, check that you
answered the right question (the sum of x and y).
Getting to the Answer: Multiply the top equation by 2 to eliminate the
terms that have y’s in them.
Now, substitute the result into either of the original equations and
simplify to find y:
1548
The question asks for the sum, so add x and y to get −3 + (−1) = −4.
9. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Take a quick peek at the answers just to see what
variables are being used, but don’t study the equations. Instead, write
your own system using the same variables as given in the answer
choices.
Getting to the Answer: One of the equations in the system should
represent the sum of the two resistors ( R  + R ), which is equal to 294.
This means you can eliminate C and D. The second equation needs to
satisfy the condition that R  is 6 less than twice R , or R  = 2 R  − 6.
This means (A) is correct.
1 2
2 1 2 1
10. C
1549
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Use the distributive property to simplify each of the
terms that contains parentheses. Then use inverse operations to solve for
x.
Getting to the Answer:
All of the variable terms cancel out, and the resulting numerical
statement is false (because negative 2 does not equal positive 2), so
there is no solution to the equation. Put another way, there is no value of
x for which the equation is true.
11. B
1550
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Think about this question logically before you start
writing things down—after it’s transferred, the volume of the oil in the
cylindrical container will be the same volume as the rectangular
container, so you need to set the two volumes equal and solve for h.
Getting to the Answer: The volume of the rectangular container is 4 ×
9 × 10, or 360 cubic meters. The volume of a cylinder equals the area of
its base times its height, or  . Because the diameter is 6 meters, the
radius, r, is half that, or 3 meters. Now we’re ready to set up an
equation and solve for h (which is the height of the cylinder or, in this
case, the length of the transportation container):
12. D
1551
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Even though this question uses the word percent, you
are never asked to find the actual percent itself. Set this question up as a
proportion to get the answer more quickly. Remember, percent change
equals amount of change divided by the original amount.
Getting to the Answer:
13. A
Difficulty: Medium
1552
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t spend too much time reading the scientific
explanation of the equation. Focus on the question at the very end—it’s
just asking you to solve the equation for d.
Getting to the Answer: First, cross-multiply to get rid of the
denominator. Then, divide both sides of the equation by 4πb to isolate d
. Finally, take the square root of both sides to find d.
Unfortunately, this is not one of the answer choices, so you’ll need to
simplify further. You can take the square root of 4 (it’s 2), but be careful
—it’s in the denominator of the fraction, so it comes out of the square
root as  .
2
1553
The simplified equation is  .
14. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: You do not need to use all of the information
presented in the table to find the answer. Read the question carefully to
make sure you use only what you need.
Getting to the Answer: To calculate the percentage of men in each age
group who reported being unemployed in January 2014, divide the
number in that age group who were unemployed by the total number in
that age group. There are six age groups but only four answer choices,
so don’t waste time on the age groups that aren’t represented. Choice
(D) is correct because 7 ÷ 152 ≈ 0.046 = 4.6%, which is a lower
percentage than that for any other age group (20 to 24 = 12.5%; 35 to 44
= 4.9%; 45 to 54 = 6.1%).
15. B
1554
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The follow-up survey targets only those respondents
who said they were unemployed, so focus on that column in the table.
Getting to the Answer: There were 6 respondents out of 44
unemployed males who were between the ages of 45 and 54, so the
probability is  , or about 13.6%.
16. B
1555
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Taking the square root is the inverse operation of
squaring, and both sides of the equation are already perfect squares, so
take their square roots. Then solve the resulting equations. Remember,
there will be two equations to solve.
Getting to the Answer:
Now, simplify each equation:  and
 .
17. D
1556
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is to determine
how many darts land in each color ring. If there are 6 darts total and x
land in a blue ring, the rest, or 6 − x , must land in a red ring.
Getting to the Answer: Write the expression in words first: points per
blue ring (5) times number of darts in blue ring (x), plus points per red
ring (10) times number of darts in red ring (6 − x ). Now, translate the
words into numbers, variables, and operations: 5 x  + 10(6 − x ). This is
not one of the answer choices, so simplify the expression by distributing
the 10 and then combining like terms: 5 x  + 10(6 − x ) = 5 x  + 60 − 10 x
= 60 − 5 x .
18. A
1557
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: This is a science crossover question. Read the first
two sentences quickly—they are simply describing the context of the
question. The last two sentences pose the question, so read those more
carefully.
Getting to the Answer: In the sample, 184 out of 200 square feet were
free of red tide after applying the spray. This is  of
the area. For the whole beach, 0.92(10,000) = 9,200 square feet should
be free of the red tide. Be careful—this is not the answer. The question
asks how much of the beach would still be covered by red tide, so
subtract to get 10,000 − 9,200 = 800 square feet.
19. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
1558
Strategic Advice: The solution to a system of equations is the point(s)
where their graphs intersect. You can solve the system algebraically by
setting the equations equal to each other, or you can solve it graphically
using your calculator. Use whichever method gets you to the answer
more quickly.
Getting to the Answer: Both equations are given in calculator-friendly
format (y = …), so graphing them is probably the more efficient
approach. The graph looks like:
The solution point in the question is given as (a, b), so b represents the
y-coordinate of the solution. The y-coordinates of the points of
intersection are −3 and −1.25, so choice (A) is correct.
20. A
1559
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Don’t answer this question too quickly—you may be
tempted to substitute 3 for x, but 3 is the output (range), not the input
(domain).
Getting to the Answer: The given range value is an output value, so
substitute 3 for g(x) and use inverse operations to solve for x, which is
the corresponding domain value.
You could also graph the function and find the value of x (the domain
value) for which the value of y (the range value) is 3. The point on the
graph is (−6, 3).
1560
21. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t peek at the answers. Write your own equation
using the initial cost and the rate of change in the value of the lawn
mower. Remember—when something changes at a constant rate, it can
be represented by a linear equation.
Getting to the Answer: When a linear equation in the form y  = mx  +
b  is used to model a real-world scenario, m represents the constant rate
of change, and b represents the starting amount. Here, the starting amount
is easy—it’s the purchase price, $2,800. To find the rate of change, think
of the initial cost as the value at 0 years, or the point (0, 2,800), and the
salvage amount as the value at 8 years, or the point (8, 240). Substitute
these points into the slope formula to find that
so the equation is y  = −320 x  + 2,800.
22. D
1561
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Functions
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the change in the number of
bacteria is a common difference (linear function) or a common ratio
(exponential function) or if the number of bacteria changes direction
(quadratic or polynomial function).
Getting to the Answer: The question tells you that the number of
bacteria is reduced by half every hour after the antibiotic is applied. The
microbiologist started with 20,000, so after one hour, there are 10,000
left, or  . After 2 hours, there are 5,000 left, or
 , and so on. The change in the number of bacteria is a
common ratio  , so the best model is an exponential function of the
form  . In this scenario, a is 20,000.
23. B
1562
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question guide you to the
solution. The speeds of the airplanes are given in miles per hour, but the
question asks about the number of miles each airplane can travel in 12
seconds, so convert miles per hour to miles per second.
Getting to the Answer:
Slower airplane:
Faster airplane:
The faster plane can travel 2.4 – 2 = 0.4 miles farther, which is the same
as  miles.
1563
24. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The best way to answer this question is to pretend
you are the worker. How much more would you earn for one hour in
Oregon than in Idaho? If you worked 35 hours per week, how much
more would this be? If you worked 40 hours per week, how much more
would this be?
Getting to the Answer: Based on the data in the table, a worker would
earn $9.10 − $7.25 = $1.85 more for one hour of work in Oregon than in
Idaho. If he worked 35 hours per week, he would earn 35(1.85) =
$64.75 more. If he worked 40 hours per week, he would earn 40(1.85)
= $74 more. So, the worker would earn somewhere between $64.75 and
$74 more per week, which can be expressed as the compound inequality
64.75 ≤ x  ≤ 74.
25. D
1564
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This is another question where the units can help you
find the answer. Use the number of vehicles owned to find the total
number of miles driven to find the total number of gallons of gas used to
find the total tax paid. Phew!
Getting to the Answer:
26. C
1565
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: The average rate of change of a function over a given
interval, from a to b, compares the change in the outputs, f ( b ) − f ( a ),
to the change in the inputs, b  −  a . In other words, it is the slope of the
line that connects the endpoints of the interval, so you can use the slope
formula.
Getting to the Answer: Look at the quadratic model, not the data
points, to find that the endpoints of the given interval, week 2 to week 8,
are (2, 280) and (8, 400). The average rate of change is
 .
On average, the dolphin’s weight increased by 20 pounds per week.
27. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
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Strategic Advice: In this question, information is given in both the
diagram and the text. You need to relate the text to the diagram, one
piece of information at a time, to calculate how long the lifeguard ran
along the beach and how long he swam. Before you find the swim time,
you need to know how far he swam.
Getting to the Answer: Whenever you see a right triangle symbol in a
diagram, you should think Pythagorean theorem or, in this question,
special right triangles. All multiples of 3-4-5 triangles are right
triangles, so the length of the lifeguard’s swim is the hypotenuse of a 30-
40-50 triangle, or 50 feet. Add this number to the diagram. Now
calculate the times using the distances and the speeds given. Don’t forget
the 1 second that the lifeguard paused.
Run time = 
Pause time = 1 sec
Swim time = 
Total time = 5 + 1 + 10 = 16 seconds
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28. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Write an equation in words first and then translate
from English to math. Finally, rearrange your equation to find what
you’re interested in, which is the initial amount of gasoline.
Getting to the Answer: Call the initial amount A. After you’ve written
your equation, solve for A.
Amount now ( x ) = Initial amount ( A) minus y , plus 50
x  = A  − y  + 50
x  + y  − 50 = A
The initial amount was x  +  y  − 50 gallons. Note that you could also use
Picking Numbers to answer this question.
29. B
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: When a question involves reading data from a graph,
it is sometimes better to skip an answer choice if it involves long
calculations. Skim the answer choices for this question—A involves
finding two averages, each of which is composed of 7 data values. Skip
this choice for now.
Getting to the Answer: Start with (B). Be careful—you are not looking
for places where the line segments are increasing. The y-axis already
represents the change in prices, so you are simply counting the number
of positive values for the imports (5) and for the exports (4). There are
more for the imports, so (B) is correct and you don’t need to check any
of the other statements. Move on to the next question.
30. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
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Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is deciding what
you’re trying to find. The question tells you that x represents the athlete’s
swim rate, and you are looking for the number of kilometers he swam in
one hour—these are the same thing. If you find x (in kilometers per
hour), you will know how many kilometers he swam in one hour.
Getting to the Answer: Set the equation equal to the total time, 16.2,
and solve for x. To do this, write the variable terms over a common
denominator, 10x, and combine them into a single term. Then cross-
multiply and go from there.
31. 1
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Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question. If
you distribute the  , it creates messy calculations. Instead, clear the
fraction by multiplying both sides of the equation by 3. Then use the
distributive property and inverse operations to solve for x.
Getting to the Answer:
32. 192
Difficulty: Medium
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Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: This looks like a word problem, but don’t let it
intimidate you. Once you read it, you’ll see that it boils down to
substituting a few given values for the variables and solving the
equation.
Getting to the Answer: Before you start substituting values, quickly
check that the units given match the units required to use the equation—
they do, so proceed. The patient’s weight (w) is 150 and the patient’s
BSA is  , so the equation becomes  . The only
variable left in the equation is h, and you are trying to find the patient’s
height, so you’re ready to solve the equation. To do this, square both
sides of the equation and then continue using inverse operations. Be
careful when you square the left side—you must square both the 2 and
the root 2.
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33. 3.4
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The test average is the same as the mean of the data.
The mean is the sum of all the values divided by the number of values.
Break the question into short steps to keep your calculations organized.
Before gridding in your answer, make sure you answered the right
question (how much the final test average changes).
Getting to the Answer:
Step 1: Find the original test average:
Step 2: Find the average of the tests after replacing the lowest score
(64) with the next to lowest score (81):
Step 3: Subtract the original average from the new average: 84.6 − 81.2
= 3.4.
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34. 40
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Because  ,  , and  are diameters, the sum
of x, y, and the interior angle of the shaded region is 180 degrees. The
question tells you that the shaded region is  of the circle, so the
interior angle must equal  of the degrees in the whole circle, or  of
360.
Getting to the Answer: Use what you know about y (that it is equal to
2 x  – 12) and what you know about the shaded region (that it is  of 360
degrees) to write and solve an equation.
35. 14
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When you know the slope and one point on a line,
you can use y  = mx  + b  to write the equation. Substitute the slope for
m and the coordinates of the point for x and y and then solve for b, the y-
intercept of the line.
Getting to the Answer: The slope is given as  , so substitute this
for m. The point is given as (4, 7), so x  = 4 and y  = 7. Now, find b:
The y-intercept of the line is 14.
You could also very carefully graph the line using the given point and
the slope. Start at (4, 7) and move toward the y-axis by rising 7 and
running to the left 4 (because the slope is negative). You should land at
the point (0, 14).
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36. 45
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Make a chart that represents rate, time, and distance
and fill in what you know. Then use your table to solve for distance. If it
took Rory t hours to get to the airport, and the total trip took 2 hours and
30 minutes (or 2.5 hours), how long (in terms of t) did the return trip
take?
Getting to the Answer:
Rate Time Distance
To airport 45 mph t d
Back to home 30 mph 2.5 − t d
Now use the formula d  = r  × t  for both parts of the trip: d = 45 t  and
d  = 30(2.5 – t ). Because both are equal to d, you can set them equal to
each other and solve for t:
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Now plug back in to solve for d:
37. 10
1578
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to know chemistry to answer this
question. All the information you need is in the table. Use the formula
 .
Getting to the Answer: To use the formula, find the part of the mass
represented by the carbon;there is 1 mole of carbon, and it has a mass of
12.011 grams. Next, find the whole mass of the mole of chloroform; 1
mole carbon (12.011 g) + 1 mole hydrogen (1.008 g) + 3 moles chlorine
(3 × 35.453 = 106.359 g) = 12.011 + 1.008 + 106.359 = 119.378. Now
use the formula:
Before you grid in your answer, make sure you follow the directions—
round to the nearest whole percent, which is 10.
1579
38. 12
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This part of the question contains several steps.
Think about the units given in the question and how you can use what
you know to find what you need.
Getting to the Answer: Start with grams of chloroform; the chemist
starts with 1,000 and uses 522.5, so there are 1,000 – 522.5 = 477.5
grams left. From the previous question, you know that 1 mole of
chloroform has a mass of 119.378 grams, so there are 477.5 ÷ 119.378 =
3.999, or about 4 moles of chloroform left. Be careful—you’re not
finished yet. The question asks for the number of moles of chlorine, not
chloroform. According to the table, each mole of chloroform contains 3
moles of chlorine, so there are 4 × 3 = 12 moles of chlorine left.
1580
SAT PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates...
4—Advanced • (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details and
how they interrelate; and effectively use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source text.
• (Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
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claims or points made in the student’s essay; and focus
consistently on features of the source text that are most
relevant to addressing the task.
• (Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise central
claim; create an effective organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; successfully employ a variety of
sentence structures; use precise word choice; maintain a
formal style and objective tone; and show command of
the conventions of standard written English so that the
essay is free of errors.
3—Proficient • (Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source text.
• (Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
sufficient support for the claims or points made in the
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student’s essay; and focus primarily on features of the
source text that are most relevant to addressing the
task.
• (Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and show
control of the conventions of standard written English
so that the essay is free of significant errors.
2—Partial • (Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details and
how they interrelate; and use evidence (quotations,
paraphrases, or both) from the source text.
• (Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s use
of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and persuasive
elements, and/or other features of the student’s own
choosing; make use of support for the claims or points
1583
made in the student’s essay; and focus on relevant
features of the source text.
• (Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word choice;
maintain an appropriate style and tone; or show control
of the conventions of standard written English, resulting
in certain errors that detract from the quality of the
writing.
1—Inadequate • (Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
• (Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements; choose support for claims or
points; or focus on relevant features of the source text.
• (Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word choice;
maintain an appropriate style and tone; or show control
of the conventions of standard written English, resulting
1584
in numerous errors that undermine the quality of the
writing.
Sample Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
As anyone knows who has had to help their family move house, find a
textbook in a cluttered room, or even just clean a crowded apartment,
possessions can have a huge amount of power over people. Far from
being simply objects that we enjoy or that bring us pleasure, it can
sometimes feel that our possessions oppress us. This is the point Morris
eloquently makes in her essay “The Tyranny of Things.” By using
anecdotes, examples, reasoning, and powerful imagery, Morris argues
that the very things we cherish are nearly crushing the life out of us.
The author begins by relating an anecdote about two teenagers becoming
fast friends over their love of things. It is a touching moment, one to
which readers can easily relate; even Morris herself says that we all
probably go through this phase. This helps establish her credibility with
readers, because her examples make sense to them. Gradually, however,
Morris makes it clear that this touching moment has a sinister side—the
love of things will only result in resentment.
1585
Morris reasons that while it’s natural to go through a phase of wanting
objects, it is unhealthy to remain in this state. “Many people never pass
out of this phase,” she writes ominously. “They never see a flower
without wanting to pick it … they bring home all their alpenstocks.” It
begins to sound obsessive, this need to control things. Morris goes on to
develop her argument by suggesting that possessions are metaphorically
suffocating us. She makes the idea of too many possessions sound
repulsive by describing them as “an undigested mass of things.” The
things almost take on a kind of life force, according to Morris: “they
possess us.” They “have destroyed” our empty spaces and we feel
“stifled.”
Another way Morris supports her argument is by giving examples of the
unnecessary “tokens” associated with social occasions. She describes
how at events, luncheons, and parties, gifts are given and received. She
then uses powerful negative imagery to describe the effects of these
gifts, comparing the recipient to a “ship encrusted with barnacles” that
needs to be “scraped bare again.” This language suggests that the gifts
are burdensome and even harmful.
By contrast, the imagery Morris uses to describe a simple life filled
with fewer things is imagery of ease and relaxation. “We breathe more
freely in the clear space that we have made for ourselves,” she writes. It
is not just that we have literally regained control from our possessions
1586
and are now acting rather than being acted upon; it is that we are
physically more at ease.
In her conclusion, Morris longs for a day when we can live more
simply, with fewer possessions. She describes a “house by the sea” that
was simple and empty; it did not “demand care” or “claim attention” or
otherwise act upon her. Her wish is that “we could but free ourselves”
from the tyranny of things that she feels is draining us of our freedom.
And at this point, it is likely the reader’s wish, too.
Sample Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
Although as people we like to think of ourselves as owners of things, in
fact it can sometimes feel like the things we own end up owning us. At
least this is what Morris argues in her essay “The Tyranny of Things.”
Through her use of evidence, reasoning, and word choice, she makes a
strong argument that we should own fewer things if we ever want to be
truly happy.
Morris tells a story about two teenage girls who instantly know they
will be friends because they both like things. They are not happy just to
be. They have to own things. It’s like their own experiences aren’t
enough for them. But Morris says that this is bad for people, because
they will end up feeling like their possessions own them.
1587
Morris’s reasoning is that we can basically get control back over our
own lives if we stop needing things so much. If we have too many
things, “they possess us.” So we have to get rid of things, and then we
can feel better. At least these days we aren’t buried with our things
anymore, like they were in the olden days.
The word choices in the essay are interesting. She talks about the way
things become a problem for us: “our books are a burden to us, our
pictures have destroyed every restful wall-space, our china is a care.”
By using a lot of repetition, it shows how powerful things are.
Morris’s essay encourages people to free themselves from their things.
If they do so, they will be happier. Through her personal anecdotes,
reasoning, and repetitive word choices, she makes her essay very
powerful.
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SAT Practice Test 6 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
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1590
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SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
Walden
1593
The following passage is adapted from Henry David Thoreau’s Walden, a
mid-19th-century philosophical and personal reflection on the writer’s
experience living in nature and simplicity. This excerpt is from the
chapter titled “Where I Lived, and What I Lived For.”
It matters not what the clocks say or the attitudes
and labors of men. Morning is when I am awake
and there is a dawn in me. Moral reform is the
effort to throw off sleep. Why is it that men give so
poor an account of their day if they have not been(5)
slumbering? They are not such poor calculators. If
they had not been overcome with drowsiness, they
would have performed something. The millions are
awake enough for physical labor; but only one in
a million is awake enough for effective intellectual(10)
exertion, only one in a hundred millions to a poetic
or divine life. To be awake is to be alive. I have
never yet met a man who was quite awake. How
could I have looked him in the face?
We must learn to reawaken and keep ourselves(15)
awake, not by mechanical aids, but by an infinite
expectation of the dawn, which does not forsake us
in our soundest sleep. I know of no more encourag-
ing fact than the unquestionable ability of man to
elevate his life by a conscious endeavor. It is some-(20)
1594
thing to be able to paint a particular picture, or to
carve a statue, and so to make a few objects beauti-
ful; but it is far more glorious to carve and paint the
very atmosphere and medium through which we
look, which morally we can do. To affect the quality(25)
of the day, that is the highest of arts. Every man is
tasked to make his life, even in its details, worthy of
the contemplation of his most elevated and critical
hour. If we refused, or rather used up, such paltry
information as we get, the oracles would distinctly(30)
inform us how this might be done.
I went to the woods because I wished to live
deliberately, to front only the essential facts of
life, and see if I could not learn what it had to teach,
and not, when I came to die, discover that I had(35)
not lived. I did not wish to live what was not life,
living is so dear; nor did I wish to practice resigna-
tion, unless it was quite necessary. I wanted to live
deep and suck out all the marrow of life, to live so
sturdily and Spartan-like as to put to rout all that(40)
was not life, to cut a broad swath and shave close,
to drive life into a corner, and reduce it to its lowest
terms, and, if it proved to be mean, why then to get
the whole and genuine meanness of it, and publish
its meanness to the world; or if it were sublime, to(45)
1595
know it by experience, and be able to give a true
account of it in my next excursion. For most men,
it appears to me, are in a strange uncertainty about
it, whether it is of the devil or of God, and have
somewhat hastily concluded that it is the chief end(50)
of man here to “glorify God and enjoy him forever.”
Still we live meanly, like ants; though the fable
tells us that we were long ago changed into men;
like pygmies we fight with cranes; it is error upon
error, and clout upon clout, and our best virtue has(55)
for its occasion a superfluous and evitable wretch-
edness. Our life is frittered away by detail.
An honest man has hardly need to count more
than his ten fingers, or in extreme cases he may add
his ten toes, and lump the rest. Simplicity, simplic-(60)
ity, simplicity! I say, let your affairs be as two or
three, and not a hundred or a thousand; instead
of a million count half a dozen, and keep your
accounts on your thumb-nail. In the midst of this
chopping sea of civilized life, such are the clouds(65)
and storms and quicksands and thousand-and-one
items to be allowed for, that a man has to live, if
he would not founder and go to the bottom and
not make his port at all, by dead reckoning, and he
must be a great calculator indeed who succeeds.(70)
1596
Simplify, simplify. Instead of three meals a day, if
it be necessary eat but one; instead of a hundred
dishes, five; and reduce other things in proportion.
1. The activities described in lines 20-25 (“It is something … morally we
can do”) explain how people can
develop a satisfying and morally upright career.(A)
give an elevated and proper account of their day.(B)
learn to reawaken and live by conscious endeavor.(C)
awaken enough for effective intellectual exertion.(D)
2. As used in lines 37-38, “resignation” most nearly means
compliance.(A)
departure.(B)
quitting.(C)
revival.(D)
3. The first paragraph of the passage most strongly suggests that which of
the following is true of the author?
1597
He believes that to affect the quality of the day is the highest form of
art.
(A)
He feels that people perform poorly at work because they sleep too
much.
(B)
He is determined to spend as many waking hours as possible
working.
(C)
He believes that most people have yet to realize their fullest
potential in life.
(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 4-6 (“Why is … slumbering”)(A)
Lines 8-12 (“The millions … life”)(B)
Line 12 (“To be … alive”)(C)
Lines 12-13 (“I have … awake”)(D)
5. Based on details in the passage, what central idea does the author
express about our society as a whole?
1598
The few artists in our society do not receive the recognition they
deserve.
(A)
Our society willingly focuses too much on drudgery and insignificant
details.
(B)
Too many people hastily choose to dedicate their lives to religion.(C)
People should move to the woods to find their own conscious
endeavor.
(D)
6. What does the passage most strongly suggest about the author’s views
on religion?
He believes too few people critically examine their religious
beliefs.
(A)
He thinks that his studies in the woods will prove that God is
sublime.
(B)
He thinks that meanness and the sublime are the same in nature.(C)
He believes that oracles give us clues about how to live a sublime
life.
(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1599
Lines 26-29 (“Every man … hour”)(A)
Lines 32-36 (“I went … not lived”)(B)
Lines 38-47 (“I wanted … excursion”)(C)
Line 47-51 (“For most … forever”)(D)
8. As used in line 40, “Spartan-like” most nearly means
indulgent.(A)
rigid.(B)
pioneering.(C)
austere.(D)
9. The author uses such words as “meanly” and “wretchedness” in lines
52-57 in order to imply that
people are cruel to one another.(A)
society will destroy itself in time.(B)
our existence is harsh and mundane.(C)
negative tendencies ruin our intelligence.(D)
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Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
“The Opening of the Library”
This passage is adapted from “The Opening of the Library” by W.E.B.
DuBois, professor of Economics and History at Atlanta University,
published in the Atlanta Independent on April 3, 1902.
10. Which of the following describes an approach to life that is similar to
the one Thoreau promotes in this passage?
Taking courses and acquiring books on how to simplify your life(A)
Hiring people to help you do your chores so you can live more
simply
(B)
Cleaning out your closet so that you are left with only the most
essential items of clothing
(C)
Traveling to a cabin without cell phone service to get away from
life’s complications for a weekend
(D)
“With simple and appropriate exercises the
beautiful new Carnegie Library was thrown open
to the public yesterday.” So says the morning paper
of Atlanta, Georgia….
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The white marble building, the gift of Andrew(5)
Carnegie, is indeed fair to look upon. The site
was given the city by a private library association,
and the City Council appropriates $5,000 annually
of the city moneys for its support. If you will climb
the hill where the building sits, you may look down(10)
upon the rambling city. Northward and southward
are 53,905 white people, eastward and westward are
35,912 African Americans.
And so in behalf of these 36,000 people my
companions and I called upon the trustees of the(15)
Library on this opening day, for we had heard that
black folk were to have no part in this “free public
library,” and we thought it well to go ask why. It
was not pleasant going in, for people stared and
wondered what business we had there; but the(20)
trustees, after some waiting, received us courte-
ously and gave us seats—some eight of us in all. To
me, unfortunately, had fallen the lot to begin the
talking. I said, briefly:
“Gentlemen, we are a committee come to ask(25)
that you do justice to the black people of Atlanta
by giving them the same free library privileges that
you propose giving the whites. Every argument
which can be adduced to show the need of libraries
1602
for whites applies with redoubled force to the(30)
blacks. More than any other part of our population,
they need instruction, inspiration and proper
diversion; they need to be lured from the tempta-
tions of the streets and saved from evil influences,
and they need a growing acquaintance with what(35)
the best of the world’s souls have thought and done
and said. It seems hardly necessary in the 20th
century to argue before men like you on the neces-
sity and propriety of placing the best means of
human uplifting into the hands of the poorest and(40)
lowest and blackest….
I then pointed out the illegality of using public
money collected from all for the exclusive ben-
efit of a part of the population, or of distributing
public utilities in accordance with the amount of(45)
taxes paid by any class or individual, and finally I
concluded by saying:
“The spirit of this great gift to the city was not
the spirit of caste or exclusion, but rather the
catholic spirit which recognizes no artificial differ-(50)
ences of rank or birth or race, but seeks to give all
men equal opportunity to make the most of them-
selves. It is our sincere hope that this city will prove
itself broad enough and just enough to administer
1603
this trust in the true spirit in which it was given.”(55)
Then I sat down. There was a little pause, and the
chairman, leaning forward, said: “I should like to
ask you a question: Do you not think that allow-
ing whites and blacks to use this library would be
fatal to its usefulness?”(60)
There come at times words linked together
which seem to chord in strange recurring reso-
nance with words of other ages and one hears
the voice of many centuries and wonders which
century is speaking….(65)
I said simply, “I will express no opinion on that
point.”
Then from among us darker ones another arose.
He was an excellent and adroit speaker. He thanked
the trustees for the privilege of being there, and(70)
reminded them that but a short time ago even this
privilege would have been impossible. He said we
did not ask to use this library, we did not ask equal
privileges, we only wanted some privileges some-
where. And he assured the trustees that he had(75)
perfect faith in their justice.
The president of the Trustee Board then arose,
gray-haired and courteous. He congratulated the
last speaker and expressed pleasure at our call. He
1604
then gave us to understand four things:(80)
1.   African Americans would not be permitted to
        use the Carnegie Library in Atlanta.
2.   That some library facilities would be provided
        for them in the future.
3.   That to this end the City Council would be(85)
        asked to appropriate a sum proportionate to the
        amount of taxes paid by blacks in the city.
4.   That an effort would be made, and had been
        made, to induce Northern philanthropists to aid
        such a library, and he concluded by assuring us(90)
        that in this way we might eventually have a bet-
        ter library than the whites.
Then he bade us adieu politely and we walked
home wondering.
11. Which choice best explains why DuBois wrote this passage?
1605
To encourage philanthropists such as Andrew Carnegie to fund new
libraries
(A)
To present the trustees’ explanation of why African Americans could
not use the library
(B)
To contrast his position on public access to libraries with that of the
trustees
(C)
To state his support for construction of a new library for just African
Americans
(D)
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 14-18 (“And so … ask why”)(A)
Lines 42-46 (“I then … or individual”)(B)
Lines 69-72 (“He thanked … impossible”)(C)
Lines 88-92 (“That an effort … than the whites”)(D)
13. As used in line 23, “lot” most nearly means
1606
a predictable result.(A)
a random decision.(B)
an unaccepted consequence.(C)
an agreed upon responsibility.(D)
14. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that
the trustees would consider the construction of segregated public
library facilities.
(A)
the trustees disagreed with DuBois’s arguments in favor of
expanding access to public libraries.
(B)
the trustees were open to the idea of integrating Atlanta’s public
library system.
(C)
the trustees proposed concrete plans to provide public library
facilities for African Americans.
(D)
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1607
Lines 56-60 (“There was a little … to its usefulness”)(A)
Lines 77-79 (“The president … at our call”)(B)
Lines 81-82 (“African Americans … in Atlanta”)(C)
Lines 83-84 (“That some … in the future”)(D)
16. As used in line 35, “growing acquaintance” most nearly means
a friendly relationship.(A)
an increasing comprehension.(B)
an active involvement.(C)
a brief initiation.(D)
17. Which claim does DuBois make to the trustees?
Allowing all of Atlanta’s residents to use the new library would
render it useless.
(A)
African Americans will benefit less from access to public libraries
than white residents.
(B)
Poor African Americans have greater need for a public library than
other residents.
(C)
Atlanta should invest in public libraries and schools for all of its
residents.
(D)
1608
18. DuBois uses the example of a “catholic spirit” (line 50) to support the
argument that
the city’s neighborhoods continue to be segregated by race and
economic class.
(A)
Atlanta has an obligation to provide equal opportunity for all its
residents to better themselves.
(B)
access to public libraries should be based on the amount of taxes
one pays.
(C)
Northern philanthropists should provide private money to help pay
for a public library.
(D)
19. The author’s reflections expressed in lines 61-65 most likely indicate
that he
wishes he lived in a different century.(A)
is frustrated that people’s attitudes have not changed over time.(B)
is thinking about a time when another person said the exact same
words to him.
(C)
is planning a detailed response to the chairman’s question.(D)
20. The four-point list in the passage can be described as
1609
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Diderot Passage
a summary of the author’s supporting points.(A)
an acknowledgement of a counterargument.(B)
an introduction to a counterargument.(C)
a response to the author’s main argument.(D)
Over a thirty-year period, Denis Diderot tire-
lessly undertook a bold endeavor; the philosopher
and writer furthered technology education by
creating one of the most important books of the
18th century. He documented the Western world’s(5)
collective knowledge through a massive set of
volumes called the Encyclopédie. Today, Diderot’s
Encyclopédie remains one of the most accessible
primary sources for the study of technology during
the Enlightenment, having received exposure in(10)
recent times through the Internet.
Since Diderot didn’t know all there was to
know, he sought contributors, more than 150, and
1610
organized their 72,000 articles into entries on
politics, economics, technology, and other topics.(15)
His goal was to create an intellectual work instruc-
tionally useful to all, but soon, his Encyclopédie
became mired in controversy, and this precursor to
the modern encyclopedia was seized after its incep-
tion, its publication banned by the French govern-(20)
ment. The encyclopedia, however, had already
sparked mass interest in the secrets of manufactur-
ing and more, and so this “how-to” compendium
was widely circulated underground after eventually
being published in 1765 by a Swedish printer.(25)
Undoubtedly, the Encyclopédie served then as a
beacon of free thought, and questions about control
of its content caused critics to boil over. For in
building a compilation of human knowledge, Di-
derot made a direct political statement. Essentially,(30)
the political statement was: You, the average person,
can now know what only kings knew before.
In particular, Diderot created an “encyclopedic
revolution” by integrating scientific discover-
ies with the liberal arts. He linked technology to(35)
culture when he divided the Encyclopédie into three
categories: history, philosophy, and poetry. Diderot
then assigned subjects to these three groupings
1611
such as industry, political theory, theology, agricul-
ture, and the arts and sciences.(40)
The execution was deceptively simple enough
because Diderot pursued everyday trade topics
such as cloth dying, for example, accompanying his
explanations with diagrams and illustrations. Thus,
Diderot elevated “unacademic” craft knowledge(45)
to a scholarly status, challenging viewpoints about
erudition held by the aristocratic ruling class of the
time. More important, Diderot suggested that ev-
eryone could have access to the rational, down-to-
earth truth, since he believed that knowledge about(50)
reality could be obtained by reason alone, rather
than through authority or other means.
Not surprisingly, such rationalist philosophy
was considered radical. The new idea of showing in
amazing detail how the production techniques used(55)
in tanning and metalwork were accomplished dis-
pleased those in power. Trade guilds held control of
such knowledge, and so Diderot’s Encyclopédie was
viewed as a threat to the establishment. Diderot’s
ideology of progress by way of better quality(60)
materials, technical research, and greater produc-
tion speed was unprecedented in printed books.
Royal authorities did not want the masses
1612
exposed to Diderot’s liberal views such as this one:
“The good of the people must be the great purpose(65)
of government. By the laws of nature and of reason,
the governors are invested with power to that end.
And the greatest good of the people is liberty.”
But the opposition was too late. Despite an
official ban, the Encyclopédie’s beautiful bookplates(70)
survived, recording production techniques dating to
the Middle Ages. Ironically, with the advent of both
the English Industrial Revolution and the French
Revolution, the trades shown in Diderot’s work
changed significantly after the encyclopedia’s(75)
publication. Therefore, instead of becoming a
technical dictionary, the Encyclopédie rather serves
today as a history of technology, showing us what
trades were like before machines swept in to trans-
form industry.(80)
1613
21. Which choice expresses a central idea of the passage?
1614
Diderot crafted a revolutionary guide for the development of
industrial technology.
(A)
Diderot provided students with a superb reference for the study of
scientific principles.
(B)
Diderot’s Encyclopédie continues to serve as a valuable technical
resource.
(C)
Diderot’s Encyclopédie helped promote the liberalization and
expansion of knowledge.
(D)
22. The passage most clearly reflects the author’s
devotion to the study of science.(A)
disdain for intellectualism.(B)
interest in early printing methods.(C)
respect for individual innovation.(D)
23. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1615
Lines 33-35 (“In particular … liberal arts”)(A)
Lines 54-57 (“The new idea … in power”)(B)
Lines 63-66 (“Royal … of government”)(C)
Lines 72-76 (“Ironically … publication”)(D)
24. According to the passage, Diderot’s main goal in developing the
Encyclopédie was to
express his views.(A)
challenge political authority.(B)
provide information and instruction.(C)
create a historical record of technology.(D)
25. As used in line 24, “underground” most nearly means
cautiously.(A)
secretly.(B)
perilously.(C)
privately.(D)
1616
26. In lines 26-27, the author most likely uses the phrase “a beacon of free
thought” to suggest that Diderot’s work
attracted more people to the pursuit of knowledge.(A)
provided information for people most likely to use it.(B)
encouraged revolutionary thinking.(C)
spread scientific theory among intellectual circles.(D)
27. The passage most strongly suggests that during this time period
access to information was limited to select demographics.(A)
advances in printing resulted in comparable advances in other fields.(B)
demands for political and social reform were severely punished.(C)
intellectuals were widely respected and elevated to elite status.(D)
28. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 12-15 (“Since Diderot … topics”)(A)
Lines 41-44 (“The execution … illustrations”)(B)
Lines 57-59 (“Trade guilds … establishment”)(C)
Lines 69-72 (“Despite … Middle Ages”)(D)
1617
29. As used in line 47, “erudition” most nearly means
hierarchy.(A)
sophistication.(B)
skill.(C)
learning.(D)
30. Which choice best describes how the impact of the Encyclopédie
changed over time?
Advances in science and industry made the Encyclopédie obsolete.(A)
Advances in science and industry changed the Encyclopédie from a
“how-to” source into a history of technology.
(B)
Advances in science and industry turned the Encyclopédie into an
affordable, mass-produced publication used by millions.
(C)
Advances in science and industry led to an expansion of the number
of Encyclopédie volumes in each set.
(D)
31. Based on the passage and the graphic, which of the following is most
likely to be true?
1618
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passages.
Paired Passages—Acidity
Passage 1
Diderot would not have included information about Galileo’s
scientific observations.
(A)
Diderot would have included information on the production
techniques used to create the first telescope.
(B)
Diderot would not have included information about the discovery of
Uranus.
(C)
Diderot would have included information about Einstein’s theory of
relativity.
(D)
In the past century, due to the burning of
fossil fuels in energy plants and cars, acid rain
has become a cause of harm to the environment.
However, rain would still be slightly acidic even if
these activities were to stop. Acid rain would con-(5)
tinue to fall, but it would not cause the problems
we see now. The environment can handle slightly
acidic rain; it just cannot keep up with the level of
1619
acid rain caused by burning fossil fuels.
A pH of 7 is considered neutral, while pH below(10)
7 is acidic and pH above 7 is alkaline, or basic.
Pure rain water can have a pH as low as 5.5. Rain
water is acidic because carbon dioxide gas in the air
reacts with the water to make carbonic acid. Since
it is a weak acid, even a large amount of it will not(15)
lower the pH of water much.
Soil, lakes, and streams can tolerate slightly
acidic rain. The water and soil contain alkaline
materials that will neutralize acids. These include
some types of rocks, plant and animal waste, and(20)
ashes from forest fires. Altogether, these materials
can easily handle the slightly acidic rain that occurs
naturally. The alkaline waste and ashes will slowly
be used up, but more will be made to replace it.
Anthropomorphic causes of acid rain, such as(25)
the burning of fossil fuels, release nitrogen oxide
and sulfur oxide gases. These gases react with water
to make nitric acid and sulfuric acid. Since these
are both strong acids, small amounts can lower
the pH of rain water to 3 or less. Such a low pH(30)
requires much more alkaline material to neutral-
ize it. Acid rain with a lower pH uses up alkaline
materials faster, and more cannot be made quickly
1620
Passage 2
enough to replace what is used up. Soil and water
become more acidic and remain that way, as they(35)
are unable to neutralize the strong acid.
In humans, keeping a constant balance between
acidity and alkalinity in the blood is essential. If
blood pH drops below 7.35 or rises above 7.45,
all of the functions in the body are impaired and(40)
life-threatening conditions can soon develop. Many
processes in the body produce acid wastes, which
would lower the pH of blood below the safe level
unless neutralized. Several systems are in place
to keep pH constant within the necessary range.(45)
Certain conditions, however, can cause acids to be
made faster than these systems can react.
Most of the pH control involves three related
substances: carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, and
bicarbonate ions. Carbonic acid is formed when(50)
carbon dioxide reacts with water. Bicarbonate
ions are formed when the carbonic acid releases a
hydrogen ion. Excess carbonic acid lowers the pH,
while excess bicarbonate ions raise it.
The kidneys store bicarbonate ions and will(55)
release or absorb them to help adjust the pH of
1621
the blood. Breathing faster removes more carbon
dioxide from the blood, which reduces the amount
of carbonic acid; in contrast, breathing more slowly
has the opposite effect. In a healthy body, these(60)
systems automatically neutralize normal amounts
of acid wastes and maintain blood pH within the
very small range necessary for the body to function
normally.
In some cases, these systems can be overwhelmed.(65)
This can happen to people with diabetes if their
blood sugar drops too low for too long. People with
diabetes do not make enough insulin, which the
body uses to release stored sugar into the blood to
supply the body with energy. If a person’s insulin(70)
level gets too low for too long, the body breaks down
fats to use for energy. The waste produced from
breaking down fats is acidic, so the blood pH drops.
If the kidneys exhaust their supply of bicarbonate
ions, and the lungs cannot remove carbon dioxide(75)
fast enough to raise pH, all of the other functions in
the body begin to fail as well. The person will need
medical treatment to support these functions until
the pH balancing system can catch up. The system
will then keep the blood pH constant, as long as the(80)
production of acid wastes does not exceed the body’s
1622
capacity to neutralize them.
32. Passage 1 most strongly suggests that
the environment will be seriously damaged if people do not reduce
the burning of fossil fuels. 
(A)
scientists must find a way to introduce more alkaline materials into
the water supply to combat acid rain.
(B)
acid rain will not be a problem in the future as we move away from
fossil fuels and toward alternative energy sources.
(C)
acidic rain water is more of a problem than acidic soil because soil
contains more alkaline materials.
(D)
33. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 7-9 (“The environment … fuels”)(A)
Lines 12-14 (“Rain water … acid”)(B)
Lines 17-18 (“Soil, lakes … rain”)(C)
Lines 25-27 (“Anthropomorphic … gases”)(D)
1623
34. According to the information in Passage 1, which pH level for rain
water would cause the most damage to the environment?
2.25(A)
4(B)
5(C)
9.1(D)
35. As used in line 17, “tolerate” most nearly means
accept.(A)
endure.(B)
acknowledge.(C)
distribute.(D)
36. Passage 2 most strongly suggests that
a pH of 7.35 is ideal for blood in the human body.(A)
acid wastes in the blood multiply if not neutralized.(B)
the normal range of blood pH narrows as a person ages.(C)
small amounts of acid wastes in the blood are a normal condition.(D)
1624
37. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 38-41 (“If blood pH … develop”)(A)
Lines 46-47 (“Certain conditions … react”)(B)
Lines 60-64 (“In a healthy … normally”)(C)
Lines 67-70 (“People with … energy”)(D)
38. As used in line 74, “exhaust” most nearly means
fatigue.(A)
consume.(B)
deplete.(C)
dissolve.(D)
39. Which of the following plays a role in the environment most similar to
the role played by excess bicarbonate ions in the blood?
Acid rain(A)
Ashes from a forest fire(B)
Sulfur oxide gases(C)
Fossil fuels(D)
1625
40. Based on the information in Passage 2, which of the following can
cause the body to break down fats to use for energy?
An excess of carbonic acid(A)
Low blood pH(B)
A drop in blood sugar(C)
Not enough insulin(D)
41. Which of the following best describes a shared purpose of the authors
of both passages?
To encourage readers to care for delicate systems such as the
environment and human body
(A)
To explain how the human body neutralizes acid wastes that it
produces and deposits in the blood
(B)
To describe systems that can neutralize small amounts of acids but
become overwhelmed by large amounts
(C)
To persuade readers to work toward reducing acid rain by cutting
consumption of fossil fuels
(D)
42. Both passages support which of the following generalizations?
1626
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Hydrogen Passage
The human body and environment are delicate systems that require
balance to function properly.
(A)
There are many similarities between the systems that make up the
human body and the water cycle.
(B)
Acid rain is an important issue that will continue to impact the
environment until we reduce the use of fossil fuels.
(C)
Medical treatment is necessary when the pH of a person’s blood
drops below 7.35 or rises above 7.45.
(D)
Scientists worldwide have been working
diligently to advance hydrogen as a renewable
energy source. Hydrogen, the most abundant
element in the universe, is found primarily with
oxygen in water. Because it can be safely used as(5)
fuel, it is a candidate for gasoline replacement in
passenger vehicles.
The potential benefits to moving away from
petroleum-based fuel are plentiful. Since hydrogen
1627
can be produced within the United States, discovering(10)
ways to safely and economically switch to hydrogen
fuel would drastically reduce our dependency on
other petroleum-producing nations. In addition
to making us more independent, hydrogen produces
no pollution, including greenhouse gasses, when(15)
used as fuel. For this reason alone, forward-thinking
scientists have made it a priority to invent new ways to
use hydrogen.
Until now, there have been several challenges
preventing hydrogen from becoming a mainstream(20)
form of clean energy. In the United States, engines
that run on hydrogen are much more expensive
than gasoline. Additionally, it is difficult to store
enough hydrogen to get comparable mileage to a
gasoline vehicle. However, these factors have not(25)
been the biggest drawback in producing hydro-
gen for use in fuel cells; the biggest drawback has
been that fossil fuels were needed to generate large
amounts of hydrogen. Relying on fossil fuels to
produce this element nearly negates the environ-(30)
mental benefit behind the concept.
Recently, a new method has been discovered,
allowing scientists to create large quantities of the
element using lower amounts of energy derived
1628
from renewable sources. As in traditional methods,(35)
scientists employ electrolysis, a process during
which electricity is used to break the bonds between
the atoms found in water by passing a current
through the water via a semiconductor. Once the
water molecules are broken into separate hydrogen(40)
and oxygen atoms, both are released as individual
gasses and the hydrogen can be harvested.
When people think of solar power, huge panels
usually come to mind, the type of panels that could
not be used to power consumer vehicles in a way(45)
equivalent to gasoline. However, scientists have
recently been successful at employing solar power as
the catalyst in electrolysis, harvesting energy from
the sun and using it to break apart water molecules.
The same scientists who made this achievement then(50)
built a semiconductor out of affordable, oxide-based
materials. When these two advances are coupled,
they also reduce the economic and environmental
cost of generating and processing hydrogen.
Another bonus to this new method of produc-(55)
tion is that it is significantly more efficient than
older production methods. The team of researchers
attained the most efficient solar-to-fuel conversion to
date, and they did it without using cost-prohibitive
1629
materials.(60)
There are still several challenges to be overcome
before hydrogen is a viable gasoline replacement.
This new method of creation, though, is a huge
step in the right direction. There are many ongoing
research initiatives that aim to make hydrogen(65)
extraction even more cost-effective, as well as easy
to store. When these issues are solved, hydrogen will
become a fuel that works for humanity and the earth
at the same time.
1630
43. With which of the following statements would the author most likely
agree?
Scientists should consider the final cost to consumers when
exploring alternatives to petroleum-based fuels.
(A)
The development of hydrogen fuel for automobiles will give a boost
to the economy in the United States.
(B)
Safety concerns surrounding hydrogen used as fuel pose the biggest
problem for scientists studying alternative energy.
(C)
Gasoline must be eliminated as a source of fuel for automobiles
within the next decade.
(D)
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 5-7 (“Because it … vehicles”)(A)
Lines 9-13 (“Since hydrogen … nations”)(B)
Lines 21-23 (“In the United States … gasoline”)(C)
Lines 52-69 (“When these … time”)(D)
45. According to the passage, which of the following is true of hydrogen?
1631
It exists mostly with oxygen in water molecules in its natural state.(A)
It is more efficient than solar power as an energy source.(B)
It can be used as fuel in most types of engines.(C)
It can be easily harvested from water molecules.(D)
46. As used in line 2, “diligently” most nearly means
impulsively.(A)
persistently.(B)
rapidly.(C)
perpetually.(D)
47. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of petroleum-based fuel?
Its cost is higher than most alternative fuels.(A)
Its use has a negative effect on the environment.(B)
It cannot be produced in the United States.(C)
It is more efficient than other types of fuel.(D)
1632
48. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-3 (“Scientists … source”)(A)
Lines 13-16 (“In addition … as fuel”)(B)
Lines 55-57 (“Another bonus … methods”)(C)
Lines 57-60 (“The team … materials”)(D)
49. In paragraph 2, why does the author explain that hydrogen energy will
reduce our dependency on petroleum-producing nations?
To illustrate why scientists in other countries are not working to
develop hydrogen energy
(A)
To highlight how hydrogen energy is superior to other forms of
alternative energy
(B)
To suggest how hydrogen energy can help protect the environment(C)
To clarify why the development of hydrogen as a fuel source is
important
(D)
50. As used in line 34, “derived” most nearly means
1633
gained.(A)
received.(B)
obtained.(C)
copied.(D)
51. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
about methods of extracting hydrogen from water?
Much additional research is needed to perfect hydrogen extraction.(A)
Scientific breakthroughs will soon make hydrogen extraction
unnecessary.
(B)
Scientists are on course to develop a safe way to extract hydrogen
within one year.
(C)
It is unlikely that hydrogen extraction will ever be done in an
environmentally friendly way.
(D)
52. It can be reasonably inferred from the information in the passage and
the graphic that
1634
compressed natural gas is the most environmentally friendly form of
automobile fuel.
(A)
scientists are making great advances in the development of hydrogen
as a fuel for automobiles.
(B)
electricity produces less air pollution than hydrogen and compressed
natural gas.
(C)
switching from gasoline to hydrogen to fuel automobiles would
significantly reduce air pollution.
(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1635
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
1636
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
1637
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Sorting Recyclables for Best Re-Use
From the time a plastic container is thrown into a recycling bin to the
time the plastic 1  are actually recycled, it passes through several sorting
cycles. In addition to being separated from the non-plastic items, the
plastics themselves must be 2  detached, because not all plastics are
alike, making some easier to recycle than others.
During manual sorting, people 3  very thoroughly check the numbers
on the bottom of each plastic item. The numbers indicate the type of plastic
each is made from. Some sorting can be automated by using machines that
can detect the composition of the plastic. The detectors in these machines
use infrared light to characterize and sort the plastics, similar to how a
human might use visible light to sort materials by their color. By either
method, the plastics can eventually be arranged into bins or piles
corresponding to the recycling code numbers running from one to seven. 4
In some cases, plastics are further sorted by the method by which they
were manufactured. 5  However, 6  bottles, tubs and trays are
1638
typically 7  made from either PET (polyethylene terephthalate) or HDPE
(high density polyethylene), two of the least recovered plastics. Bottles are
produced by a process called blow-molding, in which the plastic is heated
until soft, then blown up, much like a balloon, while being pushed against a
mold. Tubs and trays are usually made by a process called injection
molding, in which the plastic is heated until it can be pushed through
nozzles into a mold. Different additives are added to the plastics before 
8  molding. It depends on the method. Since the additives for injection
molding might not be suitable for blow-molding of the recycled plastic,
PET and HDPE bottles are often separated out from the other PET and
HDPE plastics.
While the numbers 1 through 6 indicate a 9  specific plastic, number
7 indicates that the plastic is either one of many other plastics, or that it is a
blend of plastics. These plastics are more difficult to recycle, as different
amounts of the various types of number 7 plastics will be sent to recycling
each day. They are typically used for products in which the plastic will be
mixed with other materials.
Although there are many types of plastics to be found in a typical
recycling bin, each one can play a part in a recycled 10  product, the many
cycles of sorting guarantee that each piece can be correctly processed and
sent off for re-use. 11
1639
1. 
NO CHANGE(A)
is(B)
has been(C)
will be(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
demolished(B)
flanked(C)
categorized(D)
1640
3. 
NO CHANGE(A)
completely and thoroughly check(B)
thoroughly check(C)
make sure to thoroughly check(D)
4. Which sentence could be added to the paragraph to most effectively
establish the central idea?
Special machines have been developed to assist in sorting plastics.(A)
Sorting by hand is less efficient than using machines to sort plastics.(B)
Classifying plastics can be done manually or by machines.(C)
Plastics are widely used today, so they need to be recycled.(D)
5. 
NO CHANGE(A)
For example,(B)
Consequently,(C)
Similarly,(D)
6. 
1641
NO CHANGE(A)
bottles, tubs, and trays(B)
bottles tubs and trays(C)
bottles, tubs, and, trays(D)
7. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic?
NO CHANGE(A)
made from PET (polyethylene terephthalate) or HDPE (high density
polyethylene), the two most recovered plastics after the leading type,
LDPE
(B)
made from PP (polypropene) or PS (polystyrene), the two most
recovered plastics after the leading type, PVC
(C)
made from PP (polypropene) or PS (polystyrene), the two most
recovered plastics after the leading type, EPS
(D)
8. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined
portion?
1642
molding, however, it depends(A)
molding, depending(B)
molding despite depending(C)
molding, it depends(D)
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
vague(B)
common(C)
pending(D)
10. 
NO CHANGE(A)
product the many(B)
product. The many(C)
product, so the many(D)
11. Which choice most effectively establishes a summative concluding
sentence for the paragraph?
1643
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
Interpreter at America’s Immigrant Gateway
Throughout his career as an interpreter at America’s largest immigrant
processing station, Kaufman has spent many ferry rides mentally preparing
himself for the vivid realities of his job. Although some of his
contemporaries might consider his work menial or inconsequential, he
cherishes his opportunity to witness and contribute to the unfolding stories
of countless immigrants. These immigrant stories, Kaufman knows, hold 
12  great significance for his and American history. Most of the brave,
sea-worn travelers who disembark at Ellis Island will soon depart as new
Americans, 13  lugging all there courage, hope, and worldly possessions
into New York City. Many 14  will remain in the city and some other
people will disperse across the nation. 15
Sorting ensures that plastics will not linger in the landfills, but
continue to be of use.
(A)
Sorting different types of plastics is done in many ways, either by
hand or machine.
(B)
Oftentimes, people are required to sort their own plastics by type.(C)
There are many different kinds of plastics, and each one is useful.(D)
1644
[1] The year is 1907: the busiest year Kaufman, or Ellis Island, has
seen. [2] One and a quarter million immigrants have been admitted to the
U.S. this year. [3] Only about 2 percent of Ellis Island’s immigrants are
denied, typically for perceived potential criminal or public health threats.
[4] The rest will establish life in America, although not without difficulty
and perseverance. [5] At the immigration station, Kaufman regularly sees
the range of raw human emotion, from deep, exhausted grief to powerful
hope. [6] He has witnessed it all. 16
17  Many Ellis Island interpreters were born to European immigrants. 
18  His heritage, and surrounding community, enabled him to learn six
languages. Fluency in six languages is typical for Ellis Island interpreters,
although Kaufman knows some who speak as many as twelve or thirteen.
Kaufman knows that in some ways, his ability to listen and translate
effectively can impact the course of an immigrant’s future. For this reason,
he constantly hones his language skills, picking up various 19  shades and
dialects in hopes to better help those he serves.
Kaufman assists colleagues at every checkpoint. Ellis Island is
equipped with a hospital, dining room, and boarding room, in addition to
the more central processing facilities. 20 This morning, he helps an Italian
family discuss their child’s health with nurses. Later, he translates for a
Polish woman who expects to meet her brother soon. When Kaufman meets
1645
immigrants whose language he cannot speak, he finds another interpreter
21  to help speak to them instead of him doing it.
To some extent, Kaufman sees himself distinctly in the shoes of these
immigrants. He intimately knows the reality that almost all Americans,
somewhere in their ancestry, were aliens in this nation. With every
encounter, Kaufman hopes that these immigrants will soon find whatever
they crossed oceans to seek. He hopes, as he still does for his own family,
that life in America will someday render the 22  advantages of leaving
home worthwhile.
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
great significance for his—and America’s—history.(B)
great significance for his: and America’s history.(C)
great significance for his, and America’s, history.(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
lugging all they’re courage,(B)
lugging all their courage,(C)
lugging all there are courage,(D)
1646
14. 
NO CHANGE(A)
will remain in the city, but other people will nonetheless disperse
across the
(B)
will remain in the city; many others will disperse across the(C)
will remain in the city, though yet others will disperse across the(D)
15. Which sentence, if added to the beginning of paragraph 1, would set the
appropriate tone for the remainder of the paragraph?
Among the many diverse and fascinating possibilities for a career,
David Kaufman chose language interpretation.
(A)
Many people never consider language interpretation as a job, but
David Kaufman knows all about it.
(B)
All jobs come with difficulties, and David Kaufman believes
language interpretation is no different.
(C)
A pale horizon meets the early-morning sky as David Kaufman’s
commuter ferry crosses the New York Harbor, bound for Ellis
Island.
(D)
16. For the sake of the cohesion of the paragraph, sentence 1 should be
placed
1647
where it is now.(A)
after sentence 2.(B)
after sentence 3.(C)
after sentence 4.(D)
17. Which sentence most effectively establishes the central idea of the
paragraph?
NO CHANGE(A)
Like many Ellis Island interpreters, Kaufman was born to European
immigrants.
(B)
Language ability was especially important among Ellis Island
interpreters.
(C)
Some accused children of European immigrants of having an unfair
advantage in getting jobs at Ellis Island.
(D)
18. 
1648
NO CHANGE(A)
His heritage, and surrounding community enabled him to learn six
languages.
(B)
His heritage and surrounding community, enabled him to learn six
languages.
(C)
His heritage and surrounding community enabled him to learn six
languages.
(D)
19. 
NO CHANGE(A)
meanings(B)
tricks(C)
nuances(D)
20. Which sentence, if added at this point, would best support the central
idea of the paragraph?
1649
Kaufman is one of an army of Ellis Island employees spread around
the enormous compound.
(A)
From medical screening to records confirmation to inspection,
Kaufman interprets as needs arise.
(B)
Sometimes, Kaufman feels the stress of being pulled in many
different directions, but ultimately he finds his job worthwhile.
(C)
Kaufman and his colleagues work, eat, and practically live together,
making them feel closer than typical coworkers.
(D)
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
to help speak instead of him.(B)
helping him out with speaking.(C)
to help.(D)
22. 
NO CHANGE(A)
journeys(B)
difficulties(C)
penalties(D)
1650
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
Software Sales: A Gratifying Career
Ever since she was a young girl, Stephanie Morales took on the role of
family problem-solver. 23  She remembers her brother never being able
to find his favorite movie when he wanted to watch it: So, she alphabetized
the family DVD collection. 24  “They’re about efficiency and what makes
sense to a user,” Morales says, “and putting systems in place so that using
something becomes effortless.”
Growing up, Morales became notorious amongst her friends as the one
to plan parties and trips, and she was always voted team captain because
everyone knew she could see the big picture and enact a plan. 25  After
college, she tried a career in interior design, but homes and offices didn’t
excite her. “I didn’t have a passion for furniture or architecture. I knew
there must be a field out there that really tapped into my particular skill
set,” Morales says.
[1]To her surprise, that career turned out to be software consulting. [2]
Morales returned from a backpacking trip around Europe to her parents’
New Hampshire home, needing income. [3] New Hampshire also has many
fine backpacking trails. 26 [4] Although she had no direct experience in
1651
the field, Morales convinced a family friend to hire her as a software
consultant to work with new clients. 27
28  “I had helped many of my friends with their computers. Knowing
my interpersonal skills were strong,” Morales says.
29  For example, Morales worked with a manufacturing company that
was growing quickly but had trouble 30  maintaining employees. The
company’s human resources department could not keep up with regular
payroll and billing, plus running advertisements and interviewing potential
replacement employees. Morales used staff management software to gather
data about employee satisfaction. Analysis showed that employees found
the shift work too challenging for their schedules. The company changed
the hours of the morning and evening shifts to meet employees’ needs,
which led to fewer workers leaving the company.
Nowadays, Morales works with what she calls “big data,” such as
information about consumer habits gathered through a supermarket
membership card. These stores of information are a treasure trove to
Morales, because they tell the story of how people interact with the world
around them. She uses the information data to make changes—just like
alphabetizing a DVD collection. Her goal is to 31  vacillate into the
health care field, where she wants to bring the benefits of technology to
people’s physical and mental well-being. 32
1652
“Our health is extremely important, and every time someone fills a
prescription online or has a follow-up visit with their doctor, that’s
information about the efficacy of the medication. The technological
revolution has the power 33  to quicken doctor’s visits, improve the care
we get, and even save lives.”
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
She remembers her brother never being able to find his favorite
movie, when he wanted to watch it so she alphabetized the family
DVD collection.
(B)
She remembers her brother never being able to find his favorite
movie; when he wanted to watch it, so she alphabetized the family
DVD collection.
(C)
She remembers her brother never being able to find his favorite
movie when he wanted to watch it, so she alphabetized the family
DVD collection.
(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
It’s(B)
Their(C)
Its(D)
1653
25. 
NO CHANGE(A)
After college, she tried a career in interior design, but homes and
offices, didn’t excite her.
(B)
After college, she tried a career in interior design but homes, and
offices didn’t excite her.
(C)
After college she tried a career, in interior design, but homes and
offices didn’t excite her.
(D)
26. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Although she had no direct experience in the field, Morales
convinces
(B)
Although she has no direct experience in the field, Morales
convinced
(C)
Although she will have no direct experience in the field, Morales
convinces
(D)
27. Which sentence is least relevant to the paragraph’s topic and purpose?
1654
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 4(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
“I had helped many of my friends; with their computers and I knew
my interpersonal skills were strong,” Morales says.
(B)
“I had helped many of my friends with their computers; knew my
interpersonal skills were strong,” Morales says.
(C)
“I had helped many of my friends with their computers, and I knew
my interpersonal skills were strong,” Morales says.
(D)
29. Which choice most effectively establishes the topic sentence of the
paragraph?
1655
Because she was willing to work in a factory, she was able to
achieve success as a consultant.
(A)
Morales’s management of data led to the success of the company’s
advertising campaign.
(B)
Where the job really matched up with her strengths was in problem-
solving and finding creative solutions.
(C)
Morales’s advice to the human resources department resulted in
higher wages for employees.
(D)
30. 
NO CHANGE(A)
retaining(B)
constraining(C)
detaining(D)
31. 
NO CHANGE(A)
convert(B)
transition(C)
fluctuate(D)
1656
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.
32. Which choice best supports the topic sentence of the paragraph?
For example, Morales is also interested in whether people pay for
their medications with credit or debit cards.
(A)
For example, Morales spends countless hours walking through
discount stores surveying the customers.
(B)
For example, Morales still gets great satisfaction from organizing
her friends’ and family’s DVD collections.
(C)
For example, Morales can use “big data” to determine how many
patients from a particular clinic use online automated refills.
(D)
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
to quicken doctor’s visits improve the care we get, and even save
lives.
(B)
to quicken doctor’s visits, improve the care we get, and even, save
lives.
(C)
to quicken doctor’s visits; improve the care we get, and even save
lives.
(D)
1657
The Art of Collecting
At an art exhibition for artist Henri Matisse, enthusiasts can also view
a black and white photograph of two siblings. These sisters, wearing
Victorian-style dresses and top hats, are the renowned art collectors
Claribel and Etta Cone. When Etta passed away in 1949, she 34
bequeathed some 3,000 objects to the Baltimore Museum of Art (BMA).
Now, works from the Cone Collection, internationally renowned and
consisting of masterpieces by early 20th century artists, travel on loan from
BMA so that people can experience the Cone sisters’ visionary passion for
and dedication to modern art. 35
What made the Cone sisters innovative was their recognition of the
value of art pieces by virtually unknown avant-garde artists of their time,
such as Pablo Picasso. Critics failed to understand the Cones’ 36  tastes
and such opinions did not squelch the sisters’ passion for collecting.
According to Katy Rothkopf, senior curator at the BMA, Matisse’s use of
vibrant color, for example, was initially shocking. “At first the Cones …
really found [the art] quite scary,” states Rothkopf. However, the siblings
befriended Matisse and other artists, gaining respect for the painters’
unorthodox experimentation. As the Cones began buying and collecting art,
37  there selections improved.
1658
“It took a lot of gall—guts—to paint it,” Matisse once said about a
controversial painting, “but much more to buy it.” Claribel and Etta had
that kind of gall. 38  Each had took risks by not purchasing traditional
landscape paintings and instead amassing works that at the time were
considered contemptuous and wild.
[1] A further legacy of the Cone Collection was its documentation of
post-World War I Europe. [2] The art the Cones collected 39  suggested
changes in Europe, such as the increasing use of machines in contemporary
life and the emergence of modern thinking. [3] Traditional limitations in art
were overcome by experimental forms and new media, allowing artists to
explore their creativity. [4] Today, there are even more experimental forms
of art than there were after World War I. 40
41  Additionally in visiting Paris, Budapest, Athens, Cairo, and
Shanghai, the Cones represented the beginning of the new woman at the turn
of the century. 42  Though their unconventional lifestyle, the far-seeing
Cone sisters experienced freedom from narrower roles. They avoided the
gross inequalities between genders by becoming connoisseurs of radical
art. 43
Public acceptance of the 44  Cone’s avant-garde collection testifies to
their accomplishments. While the estimated value of their artwork is one
1659
billion dollars, their larger contribution is inestimable. As bold patrons,
the Cones advanced appreciation for modern art for generations to come.
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
liquidated(B)
delivered(C)
allotted(D)
35. Which choice most effectively establishes the central idea of the
paragraph?
Henri Matisse was a well-known supporter of female artists and art
patrons, and he revealed these unconventional attitudes in his work.
(A)
Together the Cones, supported by the wealth from their family’s
textile business, gathered one of the finest collections of French art
in the United States.
(B)
The Cones became great contributors to the Baltimore Museum of
Art, and their renowned exhibition was praised by artists around the
globe.
(C)
During this time period, only the wealthy could afford to purchase
original artworks, and the Cones became famous for spending their
entire fortune on art.
(D)
1660
36. 
NO CHANGE(A)
tastes, so such opinions(B)
tastes therefore such opinions(C)
tastes, but such opinions(D)
37. 
NO CHANGE(A)
they’re(B)
their(C)
her(D)
38. 
NO CHANGE(A)
They took risks(B)
They have taken risks(C)
Each will take risks(D)
39. 
1661
NO CHANGE(A)
depicted(B)
referenced(C)
divulged(D)
40. Which sentence should be deleted from the paragraph to improve its
focus?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 4(D)
41. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Additionally, in visiting: Paris,(B)
Additionally, in visiting Paris,(C)
Additionally in visiting Paris(D)
42. 
1662
NO CHANGE(A)
Therefore(B)
Thorough(C)
Through(D)
43. What changes to the paragraph would best strengthen the author’s
claims?
The author should define the terms “new woman” and “narrower
roles.”
(A)
The author should list more nations and cities visited by the Cone
sisters.
(B)
The precise centuries referenced by “turn of the century” should be
included.
(C)
The author should add reactions from contemporary critics to the
Cones’ travels.
(D)
44. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Cones’(B)
Cones(C)
Cones’s(D)
1663
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1664
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1665
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1. A biologist develops the equation y  = 20.942 x  + 127 to predict the
regrowth of a certain species of plant x months after a natural disaster
occurred. Which of the following describes what the number 20.942
represents in this equation?
1666
The estimated number of the plants after x months(A)
The estimated monthly increase in the number of the plants(B)
The estimated monthly decrease in the number of the plants(C)
The estimated number of the plants that survived the natural disaster(D)
2. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to  ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1667
3. Which of the following could be the factored form of the equation
graphed in the figure shown?
y  = (2 x  + 1)(4 x  – 3)(A)
y  = ( x  + 2)( x  – 3)(B)
(C)
(D)
1668
4. Line P is shown in the coordinate plane here. If line Q (not shown) is
the result of translating line P left 4 units and down 3 units, then what is
the slope of line Q?
(A)
−1(B)
(C)
(D)
1669
5. 
Acceleration is the rate at which the velocity of an object changes with
respect to time, or in other words, how much an object is speeding up or
slowing down. The average acceleration of an object can be found using
the formula shown above, where t is the time over which the
acceleration is being measured, v  is the final velocity, and v  is the
initial velocity. Which of the following represents t in terms of the other
variables?
f i
(A)
(B)
t = a(v  − v )(C) f i
(D)
6. Which of the following equations could represent a parabola that has a
minimum value of –5 and whose axis of symmetry is the line x  = 1?
2
1670
y  = ( x  – 5)  + 1(A) 2
y  = ( x  + 5)  + 1(B) 2
y  = ( x  – 1)  – 5(C) 2
y  = ( x  + 1)  – 5(D) 2
7. If (A, B) is the solution to the system of equations shown in the graph
above, what is the value of A  + B ?
–18(A)
–9(B)
1(C)
5.5(D)
2 3
1671
8. If A  = x  + 4 x  + 9 and B  = x  + 6 x  – 2, what is 3 A  + B ?2 3
4 x  + 18 x  + 25(A) 2
x  + x  + 10 x  + 7(B) 3 2
x  + 3 x  + 18 x  + 25(C) 3 2
3 x  + 3 x  + 30 x  + 29(D) 3 2
9. How many real values of x satisfy the quadratic equation 9 x  – 12 x  + 4
= 0?
2
0(A)
1(B)
2(C)
4(D)
10. Which of the following represents the solution set for the inequality
 ?
1672
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11. Acetaminophen is one of the most common drugs given to children and
one of the most difficult to give correctly because it’s sold in several
different forms and different concentrations. For example, the old
concentration given by dropper was 90 mg of acetaminophen per 1 ml of
liquid, while the new concentration given by syringe is 160 mg per 5 ml.
Several dosages are shown in the table below.
Infant Acetaminophen Dosages
Age 0–3 mo 4–11 mo 12–23 mo
Dropper 0.5 ml 1.0 ml 1.5 ml
Syringe 1.25 ml 2.5 ml 3.75 ml
1673
Which linear function represents the relationship between the amount of
liquid in the dropper, d, and the amount of liquid in the syringe, s?
s  = 0.4 d(A)
s  = 1.25 d(B)
s  = 2 d(C)
s  = 2.5 d(D)
12. Which of the following equations, when graphed on a coordinate plane,
will not cross the y-axis?
0.5(4 x  + y ) = y  − 9(A)
2( x  + 7) − x  = 4( y  + 3)(B)
0.25(8 y  + 4 x ) − 7 = −2(− y  + 1)(C)
6 x  − 2(3 y  + x ) = 10 − 3 y(D)
13. 
If the solution to the system of equations shown above is (2, –1), what is
the value of  ?
1674
–3(A)
– (B)
(C)
3(D)
14. It is given that sin A  = k , where A is an angle measured in radians and
 If sin B  = k , which of the following could be the value
of B?
A  − π(A)
π + A(B)
2π − A(C)
3π − A(D)
15. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression 
2
1675
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
x(A) 2
(B)
(C)
(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such4.
1676
cases, grid only one answer.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  .)
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1677
1678
16. The figure above shows the solution for the system of inequalities
 . Suppose (a, b) is a solution to the system. If a  = 0,
what is the greatest possible integer value of b?
17. Given the function  , what input value corresponds to
an output of 3?
1679
18. If the area of the shaded sector in circle C shown above is 6π square
units, what is the diameter of the circle?
19. If a circle is given by the equation x  + y  + 10 x  − 4 y  = 20, what is
its diameter?
2 2
20. In economics, the law of demand states that as the price of a commodity
rises, the demand for that commodity goes down. A company
determines that the monthly demand for a certain item that it sells can
be modeled by the function q ( p ) = −2 p  + 34, where q represents the
quantity sold in hundreds and p represents the selling price in dollars. It
costs $7 to produce this item. How much more per month in profits can
the company expect to earn by selling the item at $12 instead of $10?
(Profit = sales – costs)
1680
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1681
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1682
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1683
1. The USDA recommends that adult females consume 75 mg of ascorbic
acid, also known as vitamin C, each day. Because smoking inhibits
vitamin absorption, smokers are encouraged to consume an additional
35 mg daily. If one grapefruit contains 40 mg of vitamin C and one
serving of spinach contains 10 mg, which of the following inequalities
represents the possible intake of grapefruit g and spinach s that a
smoking female could consume to meet or surpass the USDA’s
recommended amount of vitamin C?
40 g  + 10 s  ≥ 75(A)
40 g  + 10 s  ≥ 110(B)
40 g  + 10 s  > 110(C)
(D)
1684
2. The scatterplot above shows the relationship between the amount of
time spent watching commercials each day and the amount of money
spent each week on brand name grocery products for 10 consumers. The
line of best fit for the data is also shown. Which of the following best
represents the meaning of the slope of the line of best fit in the context of
this question?
1685
The predicted amount of time spent watching commercials when a
person spends 0 dollars on brand name products 
(A)
The predicted amount of money spent on brand name products when a
person spends 0 minutes watching commercials
(B)
The predicted increase in time spent watching commercials for every
dollar increase in money spent on brand name products
(C)
The predicted increase in money spent on brand name products for
every one-minute increase in time spent watching commercials
(D)
3. There are very few states in the United States that require public schools
to pay sales tax on their purchases. For this reason, many schools pay
for student portraits and then the parents reimburse the school. Parents
can choose between the basic package for $29.50 and the deluxe
package for $44.50. If 182 parents ordered packages and the school’s
total bill was $6,509, which of the following systems of equations could
be used to find the number of parents who ordered a basic package, b,
and the number who ordered a deluxe package, d, assuming no parent
ordered more than one package?
1686
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1687
4. The graph of a polynomial function p(x) is shown above. For what
values of x does p ( x ) = −4?
–1(A)
4(B)
–7 and 5(C)
–7, 4, and 5(D)
5. If 4 x  + 3 = 19, what is the value of 4 x  – 3?
1688
–19(A)
4(B)
13(C)
19(D)
6. What is the slope of the line shown in the graph?
1689
–2(A)
(B)
(C)
2(D)
1690
7. Most crimes in the United States are governed by state law rather than
federal. Suppose two states passed laws that raised the penalty for
committing armed robbery. The figure above represents the crime rate
for armed robbery in both states after the laws were passed. Based on
the graph, which of the following statements is true?
State A’s law had a more positive impact on the crime rate for armed
robbery.
(A)
State B’s law had a more positive impact on the crime rate for armed
robbery.
(B)
The laws in both states had the same impact on the crime rate for
armed robbery.
(C)
Without axis labels, it is not possible to determine which state’s law
had a bigger impact.
(D)
8. On average, for every 2,500 cans of colored paint a home improvement
chain mixes, exactly 40 are the wrong color (defective). At this rate,
how many cans of paint were mixed during a period in which exactly
128 were defective?
1691
5,200(A)
7,500(B)
8,000(C)
64,000(D)
9. According to the American Association of University Women, the mean
age of men who have a college degree at their first marriage is 29.9
years. The mean age of women with a college degree at their first
marriage is 28.4 years. Which of the following must be true about the
combined mean age m of all people with college degrees at their first
marriage?
m  = 29.15(A)
m  > 29.15(B)
m  < 29.15(C)
28.4 < m  < 29.9(D)
10. When scuba divers ascend from deep water, they must either rise slowly
or take safety breaks to avoid nitrogen buildup in their lungs. The length
of time a diver should take to ascend is directly proportional to how
many feet she needs to ascend. If a scuba diver can safely ascend 165
feet in 5.5 minutes, then how many feet can she ascend in 90 seconds?
1692
45(A)
60(B)
75(C)
90(D)
11. The chief financial officer of a shoe company calculates that the cost C
of producing p pairs of a certain shoe is C = 17p + 1,890. The marketing
department wants to sell the shoe for $35 per pair. The shoe company
will make a profit only if the total revenue from selling p pairs is greater
than the total cost of producing p pairs. Which of the following
inequalities gives the number of pairs of shoes p that the company needs
to sell in order to make a profit?
p  < 54(A)
p  > 54(B)
p  < 105(C)
p  > 105(D)
1693
x 3 –1 –5 –7
y 0 14 28 ?
12. The human body has a very limited ability to store carbohydrates, which
is why it is important for athletes to consume them during long training
sessions or competitions. It is recommended that athletes consume
approximately 3 calories per minute in situations like these. How many
calories would an athlete biking a 74-mile race need to consume,
assuming he bikes at an average speed of 9.25 miles per hour during the
race?
480(A)
1,440(B)
1,665(C)
2,053.5(D)
13. If the values in the table represent a linear relationship, what is the
missing value?
1694
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
The figure shows the age distribution of homebuyers and the percent of the
market each age range makes up in a particular geographic region.
21(A)
30(B)
35(C)
42(D)
1695
14. A new real estate agent is deciding which age group she should market
toward in order to get the most clients. Which of the following measures
of the data would be best for her to use when making this decision?
Mean(A)
Mode(B)
Range(C)
Median(D)
15. Based on the information in the figure, which of the following statements
is true?
The shape of the data is skewed to the right, so the mean age of
homebuyers is greater than the median.
(A)
The shape of the data is skewed to the left, so the median age of
homebuyers is greater than the mean.
(B)
The shape of the data is fairly symmetric, so the mean age of
homebuyers is approximately equal to the median.
(C)
The data has no clear shape, so it is impossible to make a reliable
statement comparing the mean and the median.
(D)
1696
16. A railway company normally charges $35 round trip from the suburbs of
a city into downtown. The company also offers a deal for commuters
who use the train frequently to commute from their homes in the suburbs
to their jobs in the city. Commuters can purchase a discount card for
$900, after which they only have to pay $12.50 per round trip. How
many round trips, t, must a commuter make in order for the discount card
to be a better deal?
t  < 40(A)
t  > 40(B)
t  < 72(C)
t  > 72(D)
17. Most people save money before going on vacation. Suppose Etienne
saved $800 to spend during vacation, 20 percent of which he uses to pay
for gas. If he budgets 25 percent of the remaining money for food, allots
$300 for the hotel, and spends the rest of the money on entertainment,
what percentage of the original $800 did he spend on entertainment?
14.5%(A)
17.5%(B)
22.5%(C)
28.5%(D)
1697
 For Against Undecided Total
1L 32 16 10 58
2L 24 12 28 64
3L 17 25 13 55
Total 73 53 51 177
18. A microbiologist placed a bacteria sample containing approximately
2,000 microbes in a petri dish. For the first 7 days, the number of
microbes in the dish tripled every 24 hours. If n represents the number
of microbes after h hours, then which of the following equations is the
best model for the data during the 7-day period?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1698
19. A survey is conducted regarding a proposed change in the attendance
policy at a law school. The table above categorizes the results of the
survey by year of the student (1L, 2L, or 3L) and whether they are for,
against, or undecided about the new policy. What fraction of all 1Ls and
2Ls are against the new policy?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to (6 + 5 i ) ? (Note:
)
3
11 + 60 i(A)
216 – 125 i(B)
–234 + 415 i(C)
–3,479 + 1,320 i(D)
1699
21. If an exponential function is used to model the data shown in the figure,
and it is written in the form f ( x ) = f (0)(1 + r ) , what would be the
value of r?
x
2(A)
3(B)
4(C)
5(D)
1700
22. The Great Pyramid of Giza, built in the 26th century BC just outside of
Cairo, Egypt, had an original height of 480 feet, 8 inches, before some
of the stones in which it was encased fell away. Inside the pyramid is a
53.75-foot passage, called the Dead End Shaft, which archeologists
have yet to discover the purpose of. Suppose a museum is building a
scale model of the pyramid for patrons to explore. Because of the
museum’s ceiling height, they can only make the pyramid 71 feet, 6
inches tall. About how long should the museum’s Dead End Shaft be?
 8 feet(A)
12 feet(B)
30 feet(C)
96 feet(D)
23. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression above, given that
x  ≠ 2?
– x  – 12(A)
x  – 12(B)
12 – x(C)
x  + 12(D)
1701
24. Ethanol is an alcohol commonly added to gasoline to reduce the use of
fossil fuels. A commonly used ratio of ethanol to gasoline is 1:4.
Another less common and more experimental additive is methanol, with
a typical ratio of methanol to gasoline being 1:9. A fuel producer wants
to see what happens to cost and fuel efficiency when a combination of
ethanol and methanol are used. In order to keep the ratio of gasoline to
total additive the same, what ratio of ethanol to methanol should the
company use?
1:1(A)
4:9(B)
9:4(C)
36:9(D)
1702
25. Julia and Ravi are meeting at a museum. The figure above represents the
drives from their homes to the museum. Based on the figure, which of
the following statements is true?
Julia drove to the museum at a faster speed than Ravi.(A)
Julia and Ravi drove to the museum at about the same speed.(B)
It took Ravi longer to arrive at the museum because his home is
farther away.
(C)
It took Julia longer to arrive at the museum because her home is
farther away.
(D)
26. If the graph of the function g(x) passes through the point (8, –3), then
through which point does the graph of – g ( x  – 4) – 6 pass?
(–12, –9)(A)
(–12, –3)(B)
(4, –3)(C)
(12, –3)(D)
27. If f ( x ) = x  – 1, g ( x ) = x , and x  ≤ 0, which of the following could
not be in the range of f(g(x))?
3
1703
–27(A)
–3(B)
–1(C)
1(D)
28. Given the equation y  = −3( x  – 5)  + 8, which of the following
statements is not true?
2
The y-intercept is (0, 8).(A)
The axis of symmetry is x  = 5.(B)
The vertex is (5, 8).(C)
The parabola opens downward.(D)
29. Every weekend for 48 hours, a law firm backs up all client files by
scanning and uploading them to a secure remote server. On average, the
size of each client file is 2.5 gigabytes. The law firm’s computer can
upload the scans at a rate of 5.25 megabytes per second. What is the
maximum number of client files the law firm can back up each weekend?
(1 gigabyte = 1,000 megabytes)
1704
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
362(A)
363(B)
476(C)
477(D)
30. Main Street and 2nd Street run parallel to each other. Both are one-way
streets. Main Street runs north, and 2nd Street runs south. The city is
planning to build a new road, also one-way, that runs toward the
southeast and cuts through both streets at an angle. Traffic turning off of
Main Street would have to make a 125° turn onto the new road. What
angle would traffic turning off of 2nd Street have to make turning onto
the new road?
55°(A)
65°(B)
125°(C)
235°(D)
1705
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  .)
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1706
1707
31. What is the value of h in the equation above?
32. A company is buying two warehouses near their production plants in
two states, New York and Georgia. As is always the case in the real
estate market, the geographic location plays a major role in the price of
the property. Consequently, the warehouse in New York costs $30,000
less than four times the Georgia warehouse. Together, the two
warehouses cost the company $445,000. How many more thousand
dollars does the New York property cost than the Georgia property?
1708
33. The histogram above shows the number of vehicles that a car rental
agency currently has available to rent, categorized by fuel efficiency
ratings. If a customer randomly selects one of the available cars, what is
the probability that he will get a car that has a fuel efficiency rating of at
least 25 miles per gallon? Enter your answer as a decimal number.
34. The volume of a rectangular shipping crate being loaded onto a barge
for international shipment across the Panama Canal is 10,290 cubic feet.
If the length to width to height ratio of the crate is 3:5:2 (in that order),
what is the length of the crate in feet?
1709
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
Three cars all arrive at the same destination at 4:00 PM. The first car
traveled 144 miles mostly by highway. The second car traveled 85 miles
mainly on rural two-lane roads. The third car traveled 25 miles primarily
on busy city streets.
35. A company conducted a study comparing the overall job performance of
its regional managers with the length of time each one spent in the
company’s management-training program. The scatterplot above shows
the results of the study. What is the length of the time spent in training, in
months, of the manager represented by the data point that is the greatest
distance from the line of best fit (not shown)?
36. If (2 )  = 2 , what is the value of x?32 (2 )32 (2 )x
37. The first car traveled at an average speed of 64 mph. The second car
started its drive at 2:18 PM. How many minutes had the first car already
been traveling before the second car started its drive?
1710
38. The third car encountered heavy traffic for the first 60% of its trip and
only averaged 15 mph. Then traffic stopped due to an accident, and the
car did not move for 20 minutes. After the accident was cleared, the car
averaged 30 mph for the remainder of the trip. At what time in the
afternoon did the third car start its trip? Use only digits for your answer.
(For example, enter 1:25 PM as 125.)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1711
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
1712
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how William
Faulkner uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from William Faulkner’s Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech,
delivered in Stockholm on December 10, 1950.
I feel that this award was not made to me as a man, but to my work—a
life’s work in the agony and sweat of the human spirit, not for glory and
1713
least of all for profit, but to create out of the materials of the human
spirit something which did not exist before. So this award is only mine
in trust. It will not be difficult to find a dedication for the money part of
it commensurate with the purpose and significance of its origin. But I
would like to do the same with the acclaim too, by using this moment as
a pinnacle from which I might be listened to by the young men and
women already dedicated to the same anguish and travail, among whom
is already that one who will some day stand where I am standing.
Our tragedy today is a general and universal physical fear so long
sustained by now that we can even bear it. There are no longer problems
of the spirit. There is only the question: When will I be blown up?
Because of this, the young man or woman writing today has forgotten the
problems of the human heart in conflict with itself which alone can make
good writing because only that is worth writing about, worth the agony
and the sweat.
He must learn them again. He must teach himself that the basest of all
things is to be afraid: and, teaching himself that, forget it forever,
leaving no room in his workshop for anything but the old verities and
truths of the heart, the universal truths lacking which any story is
ephemeral and doomed—love and honor and pity and pride and
compassion and sacrifice. Until he does so, he labors under a curse. He
writes not of love but of … defeats in which nobody loses anything of
1714
value, of victories without hope and, worst of all, without pity or
compassion. His griefs grieve on no universal bones, leaving no scars
…
Until he learns these things, he will write as though he stood among and
watched the end of man. I decline to accept the end of man. It is easy
enough to say that man is immortal because he will endure: that when the
last ding-dong of doom has clanged and faded from the last worthless
rock hanging tideless in the last red and dying evening, that even then
there will still be one more sound: that of his puny inexhaustible voice,
still talking. I refuse to accept this. I believe that man will not merely
endure: he will prevail. He is immortal, not because he alone among
creatures has an inexhaustible voice, but because he has a soul, a spirit
capable of compassion and sacrifice and endurance. The poet’s, the
writer’s, duty is to write about these things. It is his privilege to help
man endure by lifting his heart, by reminding him of the courage and
honor and hope and pride and compassion and pity and sacrifice which
have been the glory of his past. The poet’s voice need not merely be the
record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help him endure
and prevail.
1715
Write an essay in which you explain how William Faulkner
builds an argument to persuade his audience that authors must
write from the heart to ensure that mankind prevails. In your
essay, analyze how Faulkner uses one or more of the features
listed in the box that precedes the passage (or features of your
own choice) to strengthen the logic and persuasiveness of his
argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the most relevant
aspects of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with
Faulkner’s claims, but rather explain how Faulkner builds an
argument to persuade his audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1716
1717
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
1718
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. D
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. A
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. D
1719
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. A
46. B
47. B
48. B
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. D
1720
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. A
1721
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. A
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. D
1722
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. B
1723
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
1724
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. 1
17. 12
18. 12
19. 14
20. 800
1725
1726
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. B
1727
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. A
30. A
31. 11.5 or 23/2 or 69/6
32. 255
33. .52
34. 21
35. 8
36. 37
37. 33
38. 220
1728
1729
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
Walden
1. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Reread the entire paragraph to assess the intention of
the sentence in question, and determine which answer choice best shows
the author’s reason for including this sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The author’s previous statements in the
paragraph directly relate to the idea that the conscious endeavors
described are the very activities that will reawaken people; therefore,
(C) is correct.
1730
2. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence for context clues, and
determine which answer choice’s definition best serves the idea
presented.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence suggests the author wants to live
actively and “suck out all the marrow of life” (line 39) rather than live
in a resigned, accepting manner; thus, (A) is correct because it best
describes how the author does not wish to live.
3. D
1731
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: The first paragraph of a passage often contains clues
to the author’s beliefs and opinions. Read the first paragraph expressly
for the purpose of determining the author’s views.
Getting to the Answer: The author suggests that most people are only
awake enough for physical labor, some for intellectual discussions, and
very few for a higher calling. This implies that he feels most people are
not working toward their fullest potential, so (D) is correct.
4. B
1732
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Choose the quote from the passage that best supports
the correct answer of the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer not just
because it shows the author’s belief that most people are not truly
awake, but also because it shows that the author thinks most people
spend their lives pursuing goals beneath their human potential.
5. B
1733
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Read the entire passage to determine the author’s
central idea about society. Then choose the answer choice that correctly
reflects this.
Getting to the Answer: Throughout the passage, the author frequently
mentions that our society focuses on mundane labor and details and that
we shun a life of conscious endeavors; therefore, (B) is the correct
answer.
6. A
1734
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Because the author’s views on religion are not
explicitly stated, you must make inferences by examining details in the
entire passage.
Getting to the Answer: Throughout the third paragraph, the author
explains that he is going to the woods to determine the sublime or mean
qualities of nature and God, and he states that far too many people
hastily agree to preconceived ideas on these topics. Choice (A) is
correct.
7. D
1735
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Choose the quote from the passage that best supports
the correct answer in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer, because it
offers the most direct evidence that the author believes a person should
critically examine his or her religious beliefs before dedicating a life to
them.
8. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues, and determine
which answer choice comes closest to reflecting the author’s intent.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence and paragraph as a whole
describe the author’s indifference to the harshness of life for the sake of
accomplishing a goal; therefore, (D), “austere,” is correct.
1736
9. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Carefully read the paragraph and ask yourself how
these particular words help Thoreau convey his message.
Getting to the Answer: The author touches on many broad, negative
aspects of human nature and existence in the paragraph, and the use of
“meanly” and “wretchedness” strengthen the negative tone of the
message. Choice (C) is correct.
10. C
1737
“The Opening of the Library”
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about the author’s intention in this passage
when he discusses his views on how life should be lived. Identify the
types of actions he promotes and review the answer choices to find the
one that is most similar.
Getting to the Answer: The author urges readers to “simplify,” and as
an example he urges them to eat one meal a day instead of three and to
reduce the number of dishes from 100 to 5. You can infer from this that
Thoreau would advocate paring down one’s clothing to the bare
essentials. Choice (C) is correct.
11. C
1738
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider which answer choice describes an idea that
is supported throughout the text.
Getting to the Answer: The passage begins with DuBois’s arguments
in favor of expanding access to public libraries and ends with the
trustees’ response to his arguments, highlighting the difference between
the two positions. Therefore, (C) is correct.
12. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will support your response to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) indicates that DuBois would
present an argument “in behalf” (line 14) of others while asking the
trustees to explain their side.
1739
13. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Make sure that your answer choice does not alter the
meaning of the sentence in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph in which the word appears
indicates that speaking on behalf of so many others was not a
responsibility DuBois took lightly, and the decision about who would
speak had been previously decided. Choice (D) is correct.
14. A
1740
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are not suggested in
the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. The president of the
Trustee Board did not make assurances, but he detailed a course of
action that would potentially result in a new library for African
Americans if the city council approved funding.
15. D
1741
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Review your answer to the previous question. Read
each choice and figure out which one provides specific support for that
answer.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) indicates the trustees’ support for
separate library facilities with approved funding. It best supports the
idea that segregated library facilities would at least be considered.
16. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Look for context clues in the sentence to help you
determine the correct meaning.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) reflects the meaning of the phrase
in the sentence; DuBois was arguing for the necessity of literacy and a
strong comprehension of the books that a library offers.
1742
17. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Pay close attention to the reasons DuBois presents
that support his argument for expanding access to public libraries. Avoid
choices that sound plausible but take the ideas too far.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. DuBois specifically
argues that the reason whites need public libraries “applies with
redoubled force” (line 30) to poor African Americans.
18. B
1743
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Look for the argument in the passage that this
particular example supports.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. Note that DuBois’s use
of the “catholic spirit” (line 50) is used to remind the trustees that we
create differences between us, and what we have in common should
inspire us to ensure that everyone has equal opportunity to improve
themselves.
19. B
1744
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Read the cited lines, and then read them in the
context of the paragraphs that come before and after. Think about how
the chairman’s words are affecting the author at this point in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The chairman has just suggested that
integrating the library “would be fatal to its usefulness” (lines 59-60),
implying that African Americans and whites would be unable to use the
library alongside each other without violence or chaos. Since DuBois’s
aim is to integrate the library, he is frustrated by the chairman’s words,
which echo the assumptions of past centuries. Choice (B) is correct.
20. D
1745
Diderot Passage
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the question is asking how this
portion of the passage functions in relation to the passage as a whole.
Getting to the Answer: DuBois argued in favor of expanding access to
public libraries for all citizens. The Trustee Board’s president then
responded to DuBois’s persuasive argument. Therefore, (D) is correct.
21. D
1746
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the correct answer will reflect the
central purpose and opinion of the author as expressed in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage explores the impact and influence
of Diderot’s Encyclopédie. The author states that the value of the work
is not in its merit as a lasting technical reference or dictionary, but as a
repository of historical knowledge and as an early attempt to extend the
knowledge of the day to the masses. Choice (D) is correct.
22. D
1747
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Choose the answer that reflects that author’s overall
point of view, or perspective, suggested by the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage examines the individual
achievements of Diderot, specifically his efforts to extend the access to
knowledge to a greater segment of European society. Choice (D) is
correct, because it speaks to the author’s obvious respect for Diderot as
an innovator.
23. A
1748
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote in the context of the passage. This
will help you decide the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to the previous question
asserts that the author admires the individual accomplishments of
innovators such as Diderot. Choice (A) is correct, because it calls
attention to Diderot’s contributions as revolutionizing encyclopedic
thought.
24. C
1749
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Scan the passage for statements about Diderot’s
intentions and goals. Be sure not to confuse the results of his efforts with
his goals.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that Diderot’s goal “was to
create an intellectual work instructionally useful to all” (lines 16-17).
While the work did create political controversy and also became part of
the historical record, neither of these was his main goal. Choice (C) is
correct.
25. B
1750
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Decide which answer choice could be substituted for
the word without changing the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph states that Diderot’s work was
banned by the French government; therefore, the work’s circulation,
once published, was done secretly. Choice (B) is correct.
26. A
1751
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will reflect the meaning and
intention behind the excerpted phrase as well as the surrounding text.
Getting to the Answer: The term “beacon” means a light that can be
seen far away, usually with the purpose of guiding or attracting people
to it. The phrase “free thought” in this context refers to the right of
people to pursue knowledge. The surrounding text describes Diderot’s
work as having political purpose in expanding access to knowledge
beyond the established elite to the masses. Therefore, (A) is correct.
27. A
1752
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that don’t represent the
author’s ideas.
Getting to the Answer: The passage refers repeatedly to the impact of
Diderot’s work in making information accessible to more people. The
author states that political, economic, and intellectual elites opposed the
publication of his encyclopedia because it lessened their control on
trades and other valuable information. Choice (A) is correct.
28. C
1753
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers that provide evidence for incorrect
answers to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer to the previous question
asserts that information was limited to a specific demographic, or
segment of the population, at that time. Choice (C) is correct because it
states clearly that the trade guilds, a select demographic, controlled
certain knowledge and opposed the expansion of access to such
knowledge.
29. D
1754
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Remember that you’re looking for the answer that
will make the most sense when substituted for the original word.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence discusses the way in which
Diderot changed the perception and exploration of knowledge, making
(D) correct. The word “erudition” refers to learning acquired by reading
and study.
30. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer must be based on
information in the passage, not on speculation.
Getting to the Answer: Based on the last sentence of the passage, (B)
is correct. It’s the only answer choice directly supported by information
in the passage.
1755
Paired Passages—Acidity
31. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that cannot be inferred
from the information in the passage and graphic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer; Uranus was
discovered an entire century after Diderot’s Encyclopédie was
published. Other answer choices are either impossible, as in the case of
D, or cannot be inferred from the information provided.
32. A
1756
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Consider what the author of Passage 1 is saying in
the first paragraph about the causes and consequences of acid rain.
Avoid answers like C that go too far and are not directly supported by
the evidence in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The author clearly states that acid rain, largely
caused by the burning of fossil fuels, is bad for the environment. It is
reasonable to conclude that if the burning of fossil fuels is not reduced,
the environment will be damaged. Therefore, (A) is correct.
33. A
1757
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Look back at your answer to the previous question.
Think about the information you found in the passage that helped you
choose this answer.
Getting to the Answer: The last sentence in the first paragraph
provides the strongest evidence for the idea that burning fossil fuels will
seriously damage the environment. Therefore, (A) is correct.
34. A
1758
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Find where Passage 1 discusses the pH of rain
water. Determine whether lower or higher pH levels indicate that rain
water is dangerously acidic.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the pH of pure rain
water can be as low as 5.5, and a pH level of 3 can cause soil and water
to become too acidic. A pH level of 2.25 is less than 3, meaning it is
even more dangerously acidic; therefore, the correct answer is (A).
35. B
1759
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Remember that some answer choices might be
synonyms for “tolerate” but do not reflect the meaning of the word in
this context.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “tolerate” most nearly means
“endure.” Choice (B) is the correct answer.
36. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the text, looking for evidence to support each
of the answer choices.
Getting to the Answer: The first paragraph of Passage 2 states: “Many
processes in the body produce acid wastes” (lines 41-42), from which
you can infer that it’s normal to have acid wastes in the blood. Choice
(D), therefore, is the correct answer.
1760
37. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Look for evidence that supports the inference you
made in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In lines 60-64, the author explains how normal
amounts of acid are neutralized in the blood. Choice (C) is correct.
38. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that don’t make sense
in the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “exhaust” means “to use up” or
“deplete.” Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
1761
39. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Read paragraph 2 of Passage 2 again, and determine
the role of excess bicarbonate ions in the blood. Each answer choice is
mentioned in Passage 1. Determine how each acts in the environment.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. In Passage 2,
the author explains that excess bicarbonate ions raise the pH of the
blood, neutralizing acid wastes. In paragraph 3 of Passage 1, the author
explains that alkaline materials in the environment, such as ashes from a
forest fire, neutralize acid in the water supply.
40. D
1762
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: You are looking for a cause-and-effect relationship
to answer this question. Skim Passage 2, looking for an explanation of
what causes the body to break down fats for energy.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 4 of Passage 2, the author
explains that low insulin will cause the body to break down fats for
energy instead of stored sugar. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
41. C
1763
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the main topic and purpose of each
passage. Decide what the passages have in common.
Getting to the Answer: Each passage describes a different system, the
environment and the human body respectively, and how each system
deals with acid. In each passage, the author describes how acid can be
introduced into the system and neutralized in small amounts but also
describes the ways in which large amounts of acid can damage or
overwhelm each system, making (C) the correct answer.
42. A
1764
Hydrogen Passage
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: The question is asking you about both passages.
Eliminate answers that only address the information found in one of the
passages.
Getting to the Answer: Although Passage 1 is about the environment
and Passage 2 is about the human body, both passages are about delicate
systems that need balance to remain healthy, so (A) is correct.
43. A
1765
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Avoid answers like B, which are related to details
presented but take the ideas too far. Think about the arguments presented
by the author throughout the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, the author lists drawbacks to
hydrogen fuel as a replacement for gasoline. In this paragraph, the author
notes that engines that run on hydrogen are more expensive than those
that use gasoline. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
44. C
1766
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Read the previous question again. Look at each quote
from the passage and decide which provides the strongest evidence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer, as it
provides the strongest evidence that the author is concerned with the
cost to consumers of using hydrogen fuel.
45. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that contain details that are
not stated directly in the text.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 1, the author states that hydrogen
is found primarily with oxygen in water; therefore, (A) is correct.
1767
46. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence again and replace “diligently”
with each of the answer choices. Look for the answer that does not
change the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: When you consider the overall meaning of the
sentence, (B) is the best choice. In this context, “persistently” means
nearly the same thing as “diligently.”
47. B
1768
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Pay attention to the parts of the passage that refer to
petroleum-based fuels and the reasons scientists are seeking
alternatives.
Getting to the Answer: Though the author does not explicitly state that
petroleum-based fuels are bad for the environment, he or she does give
the fact that hydrogen produces no pollution as a reason to look toward
hydrogen and away from petroleum products. You can infer, then, that
(B) is the correct answer.
48. B
1769
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Read the previous question again. Look at each quote
from the passage and decide which most clearly supports the idea stated
in the correct answer for that question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 2, the author lists potential
benefits for using hydrogen energy over petroleum-based energy
sources. No pollution is one of the potential benefits, which leads to the
conclusion that petroleum products are bad for the environment. Choice
(B) is therefore the correct answer.
49. D
1770
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the purpose that paragraph 2 serves in
creating the author’s overall argument.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 2, the author asserts that
decreasing dependence on other petroleum-producing countries is a
potential benefit to the development of hydrogen as a fuel. The inclusion
of this point helps clarify why hydrogen fuel is important. Choice (D) is
correct.
50. C
1771
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that although all answer choices might
be synonyms of “derived,” only one fits the context of the sentence in
which the word appears.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “derived” most nearly means
(C), “obtained.”
51. A
1772
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Locate the parts of the passage that discuss advances
in extracting hydrogen molecules from water. Then, find the answer
choice that makes the most sense in the context of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In lines 64-69, the author discusses research
initiatives that focus on hydrogen extraction. You can infer from the fact
that there are “many, ongoing research initiatives” (lines 64-65) that
much more research will be needed before hydrogen extraction is
perfected. Choice (A) is correct.
52. D
1773
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices that are supported only by the
information in one of the sources. Look for the answer that is supported
by both the passage and the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The data presented in the graphic supports the
author’s argument that hydrogen fuel produces less greenhouse gas than
gasoline. Choice (D) is correct.
1774
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
Sorting Recyclables for Best Re-Use
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and check to see if the verb agrees
with the subject.
Getting to the Answer: The verb “are” is in a plural form, but the
subject is singular. Choice (B) is correct because it is the singular form
of the verb “to be.”
1775
2. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentences surrounding the word to better
understand the context in which the word appears. Then substitute each
answer choice into the sentence to see which fits into the context best.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the plastics are sorted
by types. Only (D) has the correct connotation and fits within the context
of the sentence.
3. C
1776
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices like A and B, which use extra
words that do not add meaning to the sentence. It is better to be as direct
and simple as possible.
Getting to the Answer: The word “thoroughly” indicates that the
people doing the job are paying attention to every detail. Additional
words such as “very” or “completely” do not add more meaning to this
sentence. Choice (C) is the most concise and effective way of stating the
information.
4. C
1777
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and write down the central
idea. Then review the answer choices and look for a close match with
your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph discusses the two methods used
to sort plastics. Choice (C) is closest to this summation.
5. B
1778
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Look for the relationship between this sentence and
the previous one. This will help you choose the appropriate transition
word. Read the sentence using the word you chose to ensure that it
makes sense.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) shows the relationship between the
two sentences by giving an example of how the products are
manufactured.
6. B
1779
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Study the words in a series to see where a comma
might need to be placed or eliminated.
Getting to the Answer: Recall that the SAT requires a series of three
items to have commas after each of the first two items in the list, not just
the first item. A comma should not be placed after the conjunction.
Therefore, (B) is correct.
7. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: The graphic gives specific information about how
much of each type of plastic was recovered. Study the graphic in order
to select the correct answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) accurately reflects the information
in the graphic.
1780
8. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that may include incorrect
transition words.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) uses the present participle
“depending” to join the sentences concisely and correctly.
9. A
1781
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Check each answer choice for its connotations, and
be sure to pick one that fits with the context of the sentence. Substitute
each answer choice for the word to see which works best.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that the sentence sets up a contrast
between plastics numbered 1 through 6 and plastics with the number 7,
which may consist of one of many other plastics or a blend of plastics.
Choice (A) is correct because the word “specific” indicates that each of
the numbers 1 through 6 is used for only one type of plastic.
10. C
1782
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Two complete thoughts should be two separate
sentences. Be careful of inappropriate transition words.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) divides the two thoughts into two
complete sentences by adding a period and capitalizing the first word of
the second sentence.
11. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and then read each of the
choices. Decide which one sums up the paragraph best by stating the
overall central idea.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. It concludes
the paragraph by stating the overall central idea of the paragraph and
passage.
1783
Interpreter at America’s Immigrant Gateway
12. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the information is all one thought
or whether the sentence suggests that some part of it is an aside.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is mainly discussing Kaufman,
but it also introduces the idea of America’s history almost as an
afterthought. By setting this aside within dashes, the sentence will draw
attention to its parenthetical relationship to the rest of the sentence.
Choice (B) is correct.
13. C
1784
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the underlined word is being
used as a place or a possessive. Then consider which answer choice
would be most appropriate here.
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, “there” is describing
“baggage” belonging to these new Americans. It should therefore be
changed to the correct possessive form “their,” making (C) correct.
14. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Eliminate unnecessary words. Then reorder the
nouns and verbs to achieve the most concise language possible.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) contains no unnecessary words. It
concisely explains the actions taken by the two different groups of
people and is the correct answer.
1785
15. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the entire first paragraph. The correct answer
should offer descriptive details and introduce David Kaufman as a
character.
Getting to the Answer: The first paragraph discusses David Kaufman
specifically and his relationship to his job. While A, B, and C are
informative, they do not add beauty or descriptive interest to the
paragraph. Only (D) sparks the reader’s interest with descriptive
language and relates directly to the following sentences.
16. A
1786
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Consider the function of this sentence. At what point
in the paragraph should this function be employed?
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is setting a scene, so it should be
placed where it is now, at the beginning of the paragraph. To place it
later would cause confusion in the following sentences, as the reader
does not have all the information he or she needs. Choice (A), leaving it
in its current position, is the correct answer.
17. B
1787
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: The correct answer should introduce an idea that is
supported by the sentences that follow. Consider whether the current
sentence should be revised to do this.
Getting to the Answer: The rest of the paragraph discusses the
relationship between immigrant communities and language ability, as
well as information about Kaufman’s position. Therefore, the
introductory sentence to this paragraph should tie together these
thoughts. Choice (B) is the correct answer, as it ties Kaufman to his
background in an immigrant community.
18. D
1788
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the information enclosed in
commas is separate or should be integrated into the rest of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The subject of the sentence is a compound
noun: “his heritage and surrounding community.” Therefore, the nouns
making up this compound noun should not be separated by commas.
Choice (D) punctuates this sentence correctly.
19. D
1789
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider the tone of this sentence as well as its
meaning. Then review the answer choices to determine which one best
matches both the tone and the meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence suggests that Kaufman is trying to
make his language abilities more refined and precise in order to help the
immigrants. While C, “tricks,” is tempting, it does not match the more
formal tone of the passage. Choice (D), “nuances,” conveys the fact that
Kaufman is trying to understand the subtleties of language; this answer
maintains the passage’s formal tone.
20. B
1790
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Reread the rest of the paragraph to determine which
answer choice would most effectively add specific, relevant detail to
this section of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph notes that Kaufman helps “at
every checkpoint,” then mentions the variety of facilities Ellis Island
possesses. Choice (B) adds detail about the variety of ways Kaufman
helps at Ellis Island and is therefore the correct answer.
21. D
1791
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Consider whether the sentence’s intended meaning
can be conveyed in fewer words.
Getting to the Answer: All that is really needed in this sentence is “to
help.” The reader will still understand what is happening. The other
options are wordy and awkward. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
22. C
1792
Software Sales: A Gratifying Career
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Before looking at the answer choices, identify a
word on your own that will convey the correct meaning for this word.
Getting to the Answer: The context of the sentence makes clear that the
correct word is something that is “rendered … worthwhile.” In other
words, it is a challenging situation that will be made worthwhile by
living in America. While both (C) and D are negative words, (C),
“difficulties,” specifically connotes something hard or troubling, so it is
the correct answer.
23. D
1793
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine the relationship between the two different
parts of the sentence. Then choose the punctuation that fits best.
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, two independent clauses are
joined by the coordinating conjunction “so.” When two independent
clauses are joined in this manner, a comma is needed before the
conjunction. Only (D) combines the two independent clauses correctly.
24. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Substitute the phrases for their contractions, such as
“It is,” for “It’s” to determine the correct usage.
Getting to the Answer: “They’re” and “Their” are inappropriate
because the subject is not plural. Choice (B) is correct.
1794
25. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Commas should be used sparingly to help the reader
understand the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Only one comma is needed to successfully
combine two independent clauses with a conjunction. Choice (A) is the
correct answer.
26. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph to establish the verb tense.
Identify the key verbs in the paragraph and their tenses.
Getting to the Answer: Both “turned” and “returned” are past tense,
making (A) the correct choice.
1795
27. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Determine the focus of the paragraph by identifying
its topic and purpose. Then read the answer choices, looking for the
choice that is least relevant.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph has an informational purpose
and is about the unusual route Morales took to a career in software
sales. The opinion that “New Hampshire also has many fine
backpacking trails” is extraneous to this topic and purpose. Choice (C)
is correct.
28. D
1796
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Identify whether the underlined portion contains
sentences or fragments, or a combination of both. Then determine the
best way to join them.
Getting to the Answer: The underlined portion contains a sentence and
a fragment. Only (D) correctly rewords the fragment to make it an
independent clause and then uses a conjunction to join the two parts of
the sentence.
29. C
1797
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and summarize the
supporting details to help you determine the appropriate topic sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The supporting details of the paragraph all
relate to Morales’s ability to come up with a creative solution to a
company’s problem. Choice (C) is the correct topic sentence of the
paragraph.
30. B
1798
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Notice the prefixes used in the answer choices and
think about what they mean. Then choose the word that best fits into the
context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The prefix “re-“ means “back,” as in “return”
or “replace.” “Retaining” means to keep or hold back. This fits into the
context of the sentence, so (B) is correct.
31. C
1799
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence to determine which word provides
the correct meaning in context.
Getting to the Answer: “Vacillate” means to be indecisive, “convert”
means to change into a different form, and “fluctuate” means to change
continually. Choice (C), “transition,” means to move from one thing to
another. Morales’s goal is to move from one field to another, so (C) is
the correct answer.
32. D
1800
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Identify the topic sentence in the paragraph. Then
review the answer choices to find the one that best supports it.
Getting to the Answer: The topic sentence of the paragraph is about
“big data.” Morales’s use of “big data” to gather information regarding
health care supports the topic sentence. The other choices do not involve
capturing data from outside sources. Choice (D) is correct.
33. A
1801
The Art of Collecting
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: When a sentence contains a series of actions, make
sure the elements are parallel and punctuated correctly. Then, determine
whether you should eliminate or insert any commas.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct, because there are three
identifiable actions in the series: “quicken,” “improve,” and “save.”
They all should be separated by commas.
34. A
1802
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read for context clues and determine which answer
offers the most appropriate word choice.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence states that Etta “passed away”
before her art was given to the BMA. Because this was a gift after
death, “bequeathed” is the most appropriate word choice in this
sentence. Choice (A) is correct.
35. C
1803
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: After reading the paragraph, reread each sentence to
determine which one summarizes the overall message of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Aside from (C), all other sentences offer
details and ideas that are not supported by the rest of the paragraph.
Only (C) encapsulates the central idea that the Cones contributed their
art to the BMA.
36. D
1804
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence to figure out what is meant. Then
choose the coordinating conjunction that creates the most logical and
grammatically correct sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. Because the second
independent clause discusses what the sisters did despite the statement
in the first independent clause, the coordinating conjunction “but” is
most appropriate here.
37. C
1805
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read for context clues and determine which answer
choice is most logical and grammatically correct.
Getting to the Answer: The possessive determiner “their” is
grammatically correct and correctly explains the sisters’ ownership of
the selections, so (C) is the correct answer.
38. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Read the surrounding sentences for context clues to
determine which pronoun and verb combination creates the clearest and
most effective sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The pronoun must be “they,” as it refers to both
Etta and Claribel. The rest of the paragraph is written in the past tense,
making “took” the correct verb. Choice (B) is correct.
1806
39. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues, and determine
which answer offers the most appropriate word choice.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence describes what the art collected
by the Cones showed, or “depicted.” The other answer choices are less
precise, making (B) the correct answer.
40. D
1807
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and determine the central
idea. Then read the answer choices, looking for the choice that distracts
from the paragraph’s focus.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea of the paragraph is that the
Cone collection documented the changes in post-World War I Europe.
The statement “Today, there are more experimental forms of art than
there were after World War I” may be accurate, but it does not relate to
the central idea. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
41. C
1808
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence to determine which set of
punctuation marks creates a grammatically correct sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Introductory words such as “additionally” are
followed by a comma when they begin a sentence. The word “Paris” is
the beginning of a list and also should be followed by a comma. No
other punctuation is required in this portion of the sentence, so (C) is
correct.
42. D
1809
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence for context clues to determine
which answer choice provides the correct meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The current underlined word, “though,” means
“despite,” creating an illogical contrast between the two parts of the
sentence. The definitions for B, “therefore” (for that reason), and C,
“thorough” (completed with exacting detail), likewise do not create
logical sentences. The definition of “through” best expresses the idea
that the sisters experienced freedom “by means of” their lifestyle.
Choice (D) is the correct answer.
43. A
1810
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Determine the central idea of the paragraph, and
decide which additional facts noted in the answer choices would have
the greatest benefit to the reader.
Getting to the Answer: Because the paragraph is about how the Cones
challenged traditional views of women, and because the author uses
several undefined but important terms, (A) is the correct answer.
44. B
1811
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Review the sentence to assess which answer choice
offers the correct use of plural punctuation to convey the proper sense of
possession.
Getting to the Answer: The possessive plural of “Cones” refers to
both sisters owning something, and requires an apostrophe after the “s”
with no additional letters or punctuation. Choice (B) is correct.
1812
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Look at the structure of the equation. It is written in
the form y  = mx  + b . In a real-world scenario, m is the rate of change
and b is the initial amount.
Getting to the Answer: The question is asking about 20.942, which is
m in the equation, and therefore represents a rate of change. The
variable x represents number of months. The value of m is positive, so it
represents the estimated monthly increase in the number of the plants
after the natural disaster occurred.
1813
2. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Use the structure of the expression to factor it. Notice
that both terms are perfect squares.
Getting to the Answer: The expression is a difference of two squares,
so write each term as a quantity squared and then use the rule a  – b  =
( a  + b )( a  – b ).
2 2
3. A
1814
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Factored form of a quadratic equation reveals the
roots, or x-intercepts, of the equation, so start by identifying the x-
intercepts on the graph.
Getting to the Answer: An x-intercept is an x-value that corresponds
to a y-value of 0. Read the axis labels carefully—each grid-line
represents  so the x-intercepts of the graph, and therefore the roots of
the equation, are  and  This means you are looking for
factors that when solved result in these values of x. Choice (A) is
correct because 2 x  + 1 gives you  and 4x – 3 gives you
4. D
1815
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t jump right into translating the line. Think about
how the translation would affect the slope—it wouldn’t. Translating the
line moves all the points by the same amount, so the slope doesn’t
change.
Getting to the Answer: Find the slope of line P by counting the rise
and the run from one point to the next, and you’ll have your answer.
From the y-intercept (0, –2), the line rises 5 units and runs 2 units to the
point (2, 3), so the slope is 
5. B
1816
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: This question looks complicated, but really just
amounts to solving the equation for t using a couple of inverse
operations.
Getting to the Answer: Multiply both sides of the equation by t to get
it out of the denominator, and then divide both sides by a.
6. C
1817
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Imagine the graph of a parabola. The minimum value
is the y-coordinate of its vertex, and the axis of symmetry also passes
through the vertex. Use these properties to identify the vertex, and then
use it to write the equation of the parabola in vertex form, y  = a ( x  –
h )  + k , where (h, k) is the vertex.
Getting to the Answer: If the minimum of the parabola is –5, then the
vertex of the parabola looks like (x, –5). The axis of symmetry, x  = 1,
tells you the x-coordinate—it’s 1. That means (h, k) is (1, –5), and the
equation of the parabola looks like y  = a ( x  – 1)  – 5. The value of a in
each of the answer choices is 1, so (C) is correct.
2
2
7. B
1818
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The solution to a system of linear equations shown
graphically is the point where the lines intersect. Read the axis labels
carefully. Each grid-line represents 
Getting to the Answer: The two lines intersect at the point (–5, –4), so
A  + B  = –5 + (–4) = –9.
8. C
1819
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When adding or subtracting polynomial expressions,
simply combine like terms (terms that have the same variable part). Pay
careful attention to the exponents. To keep things organized, arrange the
terms in descending order before you combine them.
Getting to the Answer: Substitute the given expressions for A and B
into 3 A  + B . Distribute the 3 to each term of A and then combine like
terms. Be careful—the first term of B is x , not x , so these cannot be
combined.
3 2
9. B
1820
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: A quadratic equation can have zero, one, or two real
solutions. There are several ways to determine exactly how many. You
could graph the equation and see how many times it crosses the x-axis;
you could calculate the discriminant (the value under the square root in
the quadratic formula); or you could try to factor the equation. Use
whichever method gets you to the answer the quickest.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that the first and last terms in the
equation are perfect squares—this is a hint that it could be a perfect
square trinomial, which it is. The factored form of the equation is (3 x  –
2)(3 x  – 2). Both factors are the same, so there is only one real value,
 that satisfies the equation.
10. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
1821
Strategic Advice: When an equation or an inequality involves fractions,
there are a number of ways to approach it. You could distribute the
fractions or you could clear the fractions by multiplying both sides by
the lowest common denominator. In this question, clearing one fraction
at a time will prevent having to work with messy fractions and large
numbers.
Getting to the Answer: Solve the inequality one step at a time. First,
multiply everything by 5, and then divide by 3—this will clear the first
fraction:
Now, multiply everything by 7 and go from there:
1822
11. D
1823
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t let all the contextual information confuse you.
The question at the end tells you that you are looking for the linear
relationship between the pairs of numbers in the last two rows of the
table. This amounts to writing an equation in the form y  = mx  + b .
Getting to the Answer: Take a peek at the answers—none of the
equations have a y-intercept, so all you need to do is write the equation
y  = mx , or in this case, s  = md . To find m, use any two ordered pairs
from the table and the slope formula. Be careful—d represents x in the
equation, so the dropper amounts should be written first in the ordered
pairs. Using (0.5, 1.25) and (1.0, 2.5), the slope is:
This means the equation is s  = 2.5 d .
1824
12. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Think conceptually before you start simplifying the
equations. The only type of line that does not cross the y-axis is a
vertical line (because it runs parallel to the axis). All vertical lines take
the form x  = a . In other words, a vertical line does not have a y term.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t have to completely simplify every
equation to answer this question, nor do you need to graph any of the
equations. Eliminate equations that will clearly have a y term once
simplified. You don’t need to worry about the x terms or the constants.
Choice A: Although it may appear that the y terms will cancel, you must
first distribute 0.5. The result is 0.5y on the left side of the equation and
y on the right, which do not cancel, so eliminate A.
Choice B: No y terms on the left, but 4y on the right, so eliminate B.
Choice (C): 0.25(8 y ) = 2y on the left, and –2(– y ) = 2 y on the right,
which do indeed cancel, so (C) is correct.
1825
You don’t need to waste time checking D—just move on to the next
question. (Choice D: –6y on the left and –3y on the right, which do not
cancel.)
13. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Typically, solving a system of equations means
finding the values of x and y that satisfy both equations simultaneously.
In this question, you already know that. The question may look
complicated, but don’t let it intimidate you. Because the solution to the
system satisfies both equations, you can substitute 2 and –1, for x and y
respectively, and then solve for H and K. Before selecting your answer,
check that you found what the question was asking for (the value of  ).
Getting to the Answer: Substitute the values of x and y into each
equation and solve for H and K. Then, divide K by H.
1826
So, 
14. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: Try to determine how angles A and B are related,
based on their corresponding sine values. Then, determine the quadrant
in which angle B must lie, given the parameters of angle A
1827
Getting to the Answer: If an angle with measure A such that
 is drawn on a unit circle, its terminal side will fall in
Quadrant III, and sin A  = k  will be a negative value (because sine
represents the y-value of the point that intersects the unit circle). If sin
B  = k  also (and k is negative), then the terminal side of B must land in
either of Quadrants III or IV (because sine is negative in those
quadrants). Choose an easy radian measure (in Quadrant III) for angle A,
such as  Try each answer choice to see which one results in an angle
that lies in the third or fourth quadrant:
 which is in Quadrant I, so
eliminate A.
 which is in Quadrant I
(because it is the same as  rotated one full circle), so eliminate B.
 which is in Quadrant II, so
eliminate C.
 which is in Quadrant IV,
so (D) is correct.
1828
15. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Being able to fluently use the rules of exponents will
come in handy on Test Day. For this question, use these rules: when you
raise a power to a power, you multiply the exponents, and when you
divide with exponents, you subtract them.
Getting to the Answer: Distribute the 2 outside the parentheses to the
exponent in the numerator and in the denominator:
Now, subtract the exponents:
Unfortunately, x  is not one of the answer choices, so look for an answer
choice that is also equivalent to x . You can eliminate A right away, and
the exponents in B look too small, so start with C, which simplifies to
 and is therefore not correct. Choice (D) is correct because:
5
5
1829
16. 1
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: If (a, b) is a solution to the system, then a is the x-
coordinate of any point in the region where the shading overlaps and b
is the corresponding y-coordinate.
Getting to the Answer: When a  = 0 (or x  = 0), the maximum possible
value for b lies on the upper boundary line, y  < –3 x  + 2. (You can tell
which boundary line is the upper line by looking at the y-intercept.) The
point on the boundary line is (0, 2), but the boundary line is dashed
(because the inequality is strictly less than), so you cannot include (0, 2)
in the solution set. This means 1 is the greatest possible integer value for
b when a  = 0.
17. 12
1830
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding the language of functions will come in
very handy on Test Day. For any function f(x), the x is the input value,
and the output is the result after plugging in the input and simplifying.
Getting to the Answer: The question tells you that the output is 3 (not
the input), so set the equation equal to 3 and solve for x.
18. 12
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
1831
Strategic Advice: Use the relationship  to
answer this question. To help you remember this relationship, just think
Getting to the Answer: The unknown in this question is the diameter of
the circle, which is twice the radius. You can find the radius of the
circle by first finding the area of the whole circle, and then by using the
area equation, A  = π r . You have everything you need to find the area
of the circle. Because this is a no-calculator question, you can bet that
numbers will simplify nicely.
Now, solve for r using A  = π r :
2
2
1832
The radius can’t be negative, so it must be 6, which means the diameter
of the circle is twice that, or 12.
19. 14
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: When the equation of a circle is in the form ( x  – h )
+ ( y  – k )  = r , the r represents the length of the radius. To get the
equation into this form, complete the squares.
Getting to the Answer: You already have an x  and a y  in the given
equation and the coefficients of x and y are even, so completing the
square is fairly straightforward—there are just a lot of steps. Start by
grouping the xs and ys together. Then, take the coefficient of the x-term
and divide it by 2, square it, and add it to the two terms with x-
variables. Do the same with the y-term. Don’t forget to add these
amounts to the other side of the equation as well. This creates a perfect
square of x-terms and y-terms, so take the square root of each.
2
2 2
2 2
1833
The equation tells you that r  = 49, which means that the radius is 7 and
the diameter is twice that, or 14.
2
20. 800
Difficulty: Hard
Domain: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to take an economics class to
understand this question. Think about it logically and in terms of
function notation. You need to find the quantity sold (use the function for
that), and then the profits (use logic for that). The calculations are fairly
simple, but there are a lot of them, so try organizing them in a table.
Getting to the Answer: Find the quantity that the company can expect
to sell at each price using the demand function. Don’t forget that the
quantity is given in hundreds. Then, find the total sales, the total costs,
and the total profits using simple multiplication.
1834
Price $12 $10
Quantity q (12) = –2(12) + 34 q (10) = –2(10) + 34
= –24 + 34 = –20 + 34
= 10 = 14
10(100) = 1,000 14(100) = 1,400
Sales 1,000(12) = $12,000 1,400(10) = $14,000
Costs 1,000(7) = $7,000 1,400(7) = $9,800
Profits $5,000 $4,200
The company will earn $5,000 – $4,200 = $800 more per month.
1835
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
1836
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: When trying to match an inequality to a real-world
scenario, you need to examine the numbers, the variables, and the
inequality symbol.
Getting to the Answer: The question asks how much is needed to meet
or surpass the recommended amount, which is another way of saying
greater than or equal to, so you can eliminate C. Adult females should
consume 75 mg of vitamin C, and smokers should consume an additional
35 mg, so the total amount that a smoking female should consume is 75 +
35 = 110 mg. This means the right-hand side of the equation should be ≥
110, and you can eliminate A. To choose between (B) and D, think in
concrete terms. Multiplying (not dividing) the number of mg in each
grapefruit or serving of spinach yields the total amount of vitamin C in
each, so (B) is correct.
2. D
1837
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to know the slope of the line of best
fit to answer the question, so don’t waste valuable time trying to find it.
Instead, use the labels on the axes to determine the meaning of the slope.
Getting to the Answer: On a graph, slope means the change in the y-
values (rise) compared to the change in the x-values (run). In a real-
world scenario, this is the same as the unit rate. In this context, the rise
is the amount of money spent, and the run is the number of minutes
watching commercials. Thus, the unit rate, or slope, represents the
predicted increase in money spent on brand name products for every
one-minute increase in time spent watching commercials.
3. B
1838
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Whenever a question gives you information about a
total number of items and a total cost of those items, you should write
one equation that represents the total number (here, the number of
packages) and a second equation that represents the total cost (here, the
cost of the portraits).
Getting to the Answer: The number of parents who ordered basic
packages plus the number who ordered deluxe packages equals the total
number of parents (182), so one equation is b  + d  = 182. This means
you can eliminate A and C. Now write the cost equation: cost per basic
package (29.5) times number ordered (b) plus cost per deluxe package
(44.5) times number ordered (d) equals the total bill ($6,509). The cost
equation is 29.5 b  + 44.5 d  = 6,509. Together, these two equations form
the system in (B). Don’t let D fool you—there are two choices of
packages, but this does not impact the total amount of the school’s bill.
4. C
1839
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding the language of functions will make
answering this question very simple. Another way of saying “For what
values of x does f ( x ) = –4?” is “What is the x-value when y  = –4?”
Getting to the Answer: Draw a line across the graph at y  = –4 and
find the x-coordinates of any points that hit your line.
The line hits the graph at x  = –7 and at x  = 5.
1840
5. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t let this fairly simple question fool you. Just
because 3 and –3 are opposites, this does not mean the value on the
right-hand side of the equals sign will be the opposite of 19.
Getting to the Answer: Solve for x, then substitute that value into the
second equation for x and simplify.
Thus, 4 x  – 3 = 4(4) – 3 = 16 – 3 = 13.
You might also recognize that 4 x  – 3 is 6 less than 4 x  + 3, so you can
simply subtract 6 from 19 to arrive at 13.
6. C
1841
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: To find the slope of a line from its graph, either count
the rise and the run from one point to the next, or choose two points that
lie on the line and substitute them into the slope formula, 
Use whichever method gets you to the answer the quickest. Pay careful
attention to negative signs.
Getting to the Answer: Using the points (0, –2) and (7, –8), the slope
is:
7. B
1842
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Compare the differences in the two lines to the
statements in the answer choices. Pay careful attention to which line
represents each state. Be careful—this is a real-world scenario, and the
word “positive” does not refer to the slope of the lines.
Getting to the Answer: The key difference between the lines in the
graph is their slopes. The dashed line (State B) has a steeper negative
slope, while the solid line (State A) has a more gradual slope. This
means that the crime rate for armed robbery in State B decreased at a
faster rate than in State A. Because, in the real world, a positive impact
means fewer crimes, State B’s law had a more positive impact on the
crime rate for armed robbery.
8. C
1843
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: When ratios involve large numbers, simplify if
possible to make the calculations easier.
Getting to the Answer: Let p equal the number of cans of paint mixed.
Set up a proportion and solve for p. Try writing the proportion in words
first.
9. D
1844
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: In order to calculate the combined mean age, you
would need to know how many men and how many women there are in
their respective groups, which is not provided in the question.
Getting to the Answer: Because the mean ages are different and you
do not know how many men or women have college degrees and get
married, you need to reason logically to arrive at the correct answer.
The mean age of the women is lower than that of the men, so the
combined mean cannot be greater than or equal to that of the men.
Similarly, the mean age of the men is greater than that of the women, so
the combined mean cannot be less than or equal to the mean age of the
women. In other words, the combined mean age must fall somewhere
between the two means, making (D) correct.
10. A
1845
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: To answer a question that says “directly
proportional,” set two ratios equal to each other and solve for the
missing amount. Don’t forget—match the units in the numerators and in
the denominators on both sides.
Getting to the Answer: Let f equal the number of feet that the diver can
safely ascend in 90 seconds. Set up a proportion and solve for f.
Because the first rate is given in terms of minutes, write 90 seconds as
1.5 minutes.
11. D
1846
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: You could graph the cost function ( y  = 17 p  + 1,890)
and the revenue function ( y  = 35 x ) and try to determine where the
revenue function is greater (higher on the graph). However, the numbers
are quite large and this may prove to be very time-consuming. Instead,
create and solve an inequality comparing revenue and cost.
Getting to the Answer: If the revenue from a single pair of shoes is
$35, then the total revenue from p pairs is 35p. If revenue must be
greater than cost, then the inequality must be 35 p  > 17 p  + 1,890. Now,
solve for p using inverse operations:
12. B
Difficulty: Medium
1847
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This is a question about rates, so pay careful
attention to the units. As you read the question, decide how and when
you will need to convert units.
Getting to the Answer: First, determine how long it will take the
athlete to complete the race. Set up a proportion.
The question asks for the total number of calories needed. The
recommended rate of consumption is given in calories per minute, and
you now know the number of hours that it will take the athlete to
complete the race. So, you could convert the number of hours to minutes
(8 × 60 minutes = 480 minutes) and then multiply this by 3 (the calorie
per minute rate given) to find that the athlete should consume 480 × 3 =
1,440 calories. Or, you could also convert the given rate (3 calories per
minute) to a per-hour rate (3 × 60 = 180 calories per hour) and then
multiply this by the number of hours it will take the athlete to finish the
race (180 × 8 = 1,440 calories).
1848
13. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The rate of change (or slope) of a linear relationship
is constant, so find the rate and apply it to the missing value. You could
also look for a pattern in the table.
Getting to the Answer: Choose any two points (preferably ones with
the nicest numbers) from the table, and substitute them into the slope
formula. Using the points (3, 0) and (–1, 14), the slope is
 This means that for every 2 units the x-value
decreases, the y-value increases by 7, and the decrease from x  = –5 to
x  = –7 happens to be –2. So, increase the y-value by 7 one time: 28 + 7
= 35.
14. B
1849
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Think about what the question is asking. The real
estate agent wants to figure out which measure of the data (mean, mode,
range, or median) is going to be most useful.
Getting to the Answer: The mode of a data set tells you the data point,
or in this case the age range, that occurs most often. If the real estate
agent markets to the age range that represents the mode, she will be
marketing to the largest group of clients possible.
15. A
1850
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Some data sets have a head, where many data points
are clustered in one area, and one or two tails, where the number of data
points slowly decreases to 0. Examining the tail will help you describe
the shape of the data set. A data set is skewed in the direction of its
longest tail.
Getting to the Answer: The graph in this question has its tail on the
right side, so the data is skewed to the right. When data is skewed to the
right, the mean is greater than the median because the mean is more
sensitive to the higher data values in the tail than is the median, so (A) is
correct. If you’re not sure about the mean/median part, read the rest of
the answer choices—none of them describes the data as skewed to the
right, so you can eliminate all of them.
16. B
1851
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Translate from English into math to help you create
an inequality. Then solve your inequality.
Getting to the Answer: The question states that t represents the number
of round trips. The cost of one round trip without the discount card is
$35 per trip, or 35t. If a commuter purchases the discount card, round
trips would equal the cost of the card plus $12.50 per trip, or 900 +
12.5 t . Combine these into an inequality, remembering which way the
inequality symbol should be oriented. You want the cost with the
discount card to be less than (<) the cost without the card, so the
inequality is 900 + 12.5 t  < 35 t . Now, solve for t:
Turn the inequality around to find that t  > 40, which means a commuter
must make more than 40 trips for the discount card to be a better deal,
which is (B).
1852
17. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: When you see a complex percent question on Test
Day, stay calm and work toward the solution one step at a time.
Getting to the Answer: Etienne starts with $800. He spends 20% of
$800, or 0.2($800) = $160, on gas. He has $800 – $160 = $640 left
over. He budgets 25% of $640, or 0.25($640) = $160, for food and
allots $300 for the hotel. Because he spends all the remaining money on
entertainment, he spends $640 – $160 – $300 = $180 on entertainment.
Divide this amount by the original amount to find the percent he spent on
entertainment: 
18. A
1853
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: When the dependent variable in a relationship
increases by a scale factor, like doubling, tripling, etc., there is an
exponential relationship between the variables which can be written in
the form y  = a ( b ) ,  where a is the initial amount, b is the scale
factor, and x is time.
Getting to the Answer: The question states that the number of
microbes tripled every 24 hours, so the relationship is exponential. This
means you can eliminate C and D right away. Choices (A) and B are
written in the form y  = a ( b ) , with the initial amount equal to 2,000
and the scale factor equal to 3, so you can’t eliminate either one at first
glance. To choose between them, try an easy number for h (like 24) in
each equation to see which one matches the information given in the
question. In the first equation,
which is 2,000 tripled, so (A) is correct.
x
x
19. A
1854
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: When working with two-way tables, always read the
question carefully, identifying which pieces of information you need.
Here, you need to focus on the “Against” column and the “1L” and “2L”
rows. To stay organized, it may help to circle these pieces of
information in the table.
Getting to the Answer: There are 58 1Ls and 64 2Ls in the survey
sample, for a total of 58 + 64 = 122 1Ls and 2Ls. There are 16 1Ls and
12 2Ls against the policy, for a total of 16 + 12 = 28. This means that 28
out of the 122 1Ls and 2Ls are against the new policy. Written as a
fraction, this is  which reduces to 
20. C
1855
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: You will not be expected to raise a complex number
like the one in this question to the third power by hand. That’s a clue that
you should be able to use your calculator.
Getting to the Answer: The definition of i has been programmed into
all graphing calculators, so you can perform basic operations on
complex numbers using the calculator (in the Calculator Section of the
test). Enter the expression as follows: (6 + 5 i ) . On the TI83/84
calculators, you can find i on the button with the decimal point. After
entering the expression, the calculator should return –234 + 415 i , which
is (C).
You could, however, expand the number by hand, by writing it as (6 +
5 i )(6 + 5 i )(6 + 5 i ) and carefully multiplying it all out.
3
21. B
1856
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: When an exponential function is written in the form
f ( x ) = f (0)(1 + r ) , the quantity (1 + r ) represents the growth rate or
the decay rate depending on whether the y-values are increasing or
decreasing.
Getting to the Answer: The y-values are increasing in this graph, so r
represents a growth rate. Because the data is modeled using an
exponential function (not a linear function), the rate is not the same as
the slope. Look at the y-values in the calculator screenshot—they are
quadrupling as the x-values increase by 1. In the equation, this means
that (1 + r ) = 4. Solve this equation to find that r  = 3.
x
22. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
1857
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units. You need to convert
all of the dimensions to inches and then set up and solve a proportion.
Getting to the Answer: There are 12 inches in one foot, so the real
pyramid’s height was (480 × 12) + 8 = 5,760 + 8 = 5,768 inches; the
length of the passage in the real pyramid is 53.75 × 12 = 645 inches; the
museum’s pyramid height will be 71 feet, 6 inches, or 858 inches; and
the length of the museum’s passage is unknown. Set up a proportion and
solve for the unknown. Use words first to help you keep the
measurements in the right places:
The museum should make its passage about 96 inches, or 96 ÷ 12 = 8
feet long.
23. D
1858
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: You could use polynomial long division to answer
this question, or you could try to factor the numerator and see if any
terms cancel. It is very tricky to factor a quadratic equation with a
negative coefficient on x , so start by factoring –1 out of both the
numerator and the denominator.
Getting to the Answer: To factor the resulting quadratic in the
numerator, you need to find two numbers whose product is –24 and
whose sum is 10. The numbers are –2 and +12.
2
24. C
1859
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: You’re given two ratios: ethanol to gasoline and
methanol to gasoline. Your job is to “merge” them so you can directly
compare ethanol to methanol.
Getting to the Answer: Both of the given ratios contain gasoline, but
the gasoline amounts (4 and 9) are not identical. To directly compare
them, find a common multiple (36). Multiply each ratio by the factor that
will make the number of parts of gasoline equal to 36 in each:
Ethanol to Gasoline: (1:4) × (9:9) = 9:36
Methanol to Gasoline: (1:9) × (4:4) = 4:36
Now that the number of parts of gasoline needed is the same in both
ratios, you can merge the two ratios to compare ethanol to methanol
directly: 9:36:4. So the proper ratio of ethanol to methanol is 9:4.
25. A
1860
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, adding numbers to a graph will help you
answer a question.
Getting to the Answer: Add reasonable numbers to the graph such as
the ones shown in the following example:
Use the numbers to help you evaluate each statement. It took Julia and
Ravi each 25 minutes to drive to the museum, so you can eliminate C
and D. Julia drove 20 miles in 25 minutes, while Ravi only drove 15
miles in 25 minutes; their rates are not the same, so B is not correct.
This means (A) must be correct. Julia starts out farther away than Ravi,
so Julia must have driven at a faster speed than Ravi to arrive at the
museum in the same amount of time.
1861
26. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Transformations that are grouped with the x in a
function shift the graph horizontally and therefore affect the x-
coordinates of points on the graph. Transformations that are not grouped
with the x shift the graph vertically and therefore affect the y-
coordinates of points on the graph. Remember, horizontal shifts are
always backward of what they look like.
Getting to the Answer: Perform each transformation on the
coordinates of the point, one at a time, following the same order of
operations that you use when simplifying arithmetic expressions. Start
with ( x  – 4). This shifts the graph right 4 units, so add 4 to the x-
coordinate of the given point: (8, –3) → (8 + 4, –3) = (12, –3). Next,
apply the negative in front of g, which is not grouped with the x, so it
makes the y-coordinate the opposite of what it was: (12, –3) → (12, 3).
Finally, the – 6 is not grouped with x, so subtract 6 from the y-
coordinate: (12, 3) → (12, 3 – 6) = (12, –3). Therefore, (D) is correct.
You could also plot the point on a coordinate plane, perform the
transformations (right 4, reflect vertically over the x-axis, and then
down 6), and find the resulting point.
1862
27. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Sometimes, a question requires thought rather than
brute force. Here, you need to understand that when dealing with
compositions, the range of the inner function becomes the domain of the
outer function, which in turn produces the range of the composition.
Getting to the Answer: In the composition f(g(x)), the function g ( x ) =
x  is the inner function. Because the question states that x is either zero
or a negative number ( x  ≤ 0), every value of x, when substituted into
this function, will result in zero or a negative number (because a
negative number raised to an odd power is always negative). This
means that the largest possible range value for g(x) is 0, and ​-
consequently that the largest possible domain value for f(x) is also 0.
Substituting 0 for x in f(x) results in –1, which is the largest possible
range value for the composition. Because 1 > –1, it is not in the range of
f(g(x)), so (D) is correct.
3
28. A
Difficulty: Hard
1863
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: To answer this question, you need to recall nearly
everything you’ve learned about quadratic graphs. The equation is given
in vertex form ( y  = a ( x  – h )  + k ), which reveals the vertex (h, k),
the direction in which the parabola opens (upward when a  > 0 and
downward when a  < 0), the axis of symmetry ( x  = h ), and the
minimum/maximum value of the function (k).
Getting to the Answer: Start by comparing each answer choice to the
equation, y  = –3( x  – 5)  + 8. The only choice that you cannot
immediately compare is (A), because vertex form does not readily
reveal the y-intercept, so start with B. Don’t forget, you are looking for
the statement that is not true. Choice B: The axis of symmetry is given by
x  = h , and h is 5, so this statement is true and therefore not correct.
Choice C: The vertex is given by (h, k), so the vertex is indeed (5, 8)
and this choice is not correct. Choice D: The value of a is –3, which
indicates that the parabola opens downward, so this choice is also
incorrect. That means (A) must be the correct answer. To confirm, you
could substitute 0 for x in the equation to find the y-intercept.
2
2
1864
The y-intercept is (0, –67), not (0, 8), so the statement is not true and
therefore the correct answer.
29. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Don’t let all the technical words in this question
overwhelm you. Solve it step-by-step, examining the units as you go.
Notice that some of the numbers in the answer choices are just 1 apart,
so think carefully before selecting your answer.
Getting to the Answer: Step 1: Determine the number of megabytes the
computer can upload in 1 weekend (48 hours):
1865
Step 2: Convert this amount to gigabytes (because the information about
the scans is given in gigabytes, not megabytes):
Step 3: Each client file is about 2.5 gigabytes in size, so divide this
number by 2.5 to determine how many client files the computer can
upload to the remote server: 907.2 ÷ 2.5 = 362.88 files. Remember, you
should round this number down to 362, because the question asks for the
maximum number the computer can upload, and it cannot complete the
363rd scan in the time allowed.
30. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
1866
Strategic Advice: This question does not provide a graphic, so sketch a
quick diagram of the information presented. Be sure to show the
direction of traffic for each street.
Getting to the Answer: The question describes two parallel streets,
cut by a transversal. Start with that, and then add all the details.
Traffic traveling north on Main Street must make a 125° turn onto the
new road. This is the angle between where the traffic was originally
headed and where it is headed after it makes the turn. Traffic on 2nd
Street is traveling south, the opposite direction. As shown in the
diagram, the angle that the southbound traffic would make is
supplementary to the corresponding angle made by the northbound
traffic. When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, corresponding
angles are congruent, which means that cars turning off of 2nd Street
will make a 180 – 125 = 55° turn onto the new road.
1867
31. 11.5 or 23/2 or 69/6
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Simplify the numerators, then cross-multiply and
solve using inverse operations.
Getting to the Answer: Simplify each numerator. Then, cross-multiply.
Finally, isolate the variable using inverse operations.
32. 255
1868
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Write a system of equations with N  = the cost of the
New York property in thousands of dollars (so you don’t have to deal
with all the zeros) and G  = the cost of the Georgia property in
thousands of dollars. Before entering your final answer, check that you
answered the right question (how much more the New York property
costs).
Getting to the Answer: Translate English into math to write the two
equations: the New York property costs 30 thousand dollars less than
four times the cost of the Georgia property, so N  = 4 G  – 30; together,
the two properties cost 445 thousand dollars, so N  + G  = 445.
The system of equations is:
The top equation is already solved for N, so substitute 4 G  – 30 into the
second equation for N and solve for G:
1869
The Georgia property costs 95 thousand dollars, so the New York
property costs 4(95) – 30 = 350 thousand dollars. This means the New
York property costs 350 – 95 = 255 thousand more dollars than the
Georgia property.
33. .52
1870
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The probability that an event will occur is the
number of desired outcomes (number of available cars that have a rating
of at least 25 mpg) divided by the number of total possible outcomes
(total number of cars).
Getting to the Answer: “At least” means that much or greater, so find
the number of cars represented by the two bars to the right of 25 in the
histogram: 20 + 6 = 26 cars. Now find the total number of available
cars: 8 + 16 + 20 + 6 = 50. Finally, divide to find the indicated
probability: 
34. 21
1871
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Use the formula for finding the volume of a
rectangular solid, V  = lwh , to write an equation. Because the
dimensions are given as the ratio 3:5:2, let the length, width, and height
be represented by 3x, 5x, and 2x.
Getting to the Answer: Substitute the expressions into the formula and
solve for x.
The length was represented by 3x, so multiply to find that the length is
3(7) = 21 feet.
35. 8
1872
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Draw the line of best fit so that approximately half
the data points fall above the line and half fall below it.
Getting to the Answer: The line of best fit is shown as follows:
Look for the point that is farthest from the line you drew, which is (8, 6).
Because time is plotted along the horizontal axis, this point represents a
manager who spent 8 months in the training program.
1873
36. 37
1874
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Although this question is in the calculator portion of
the test, you get an overflow error if you try to use your calculator. This
is because the numbers are simply too large. You’ll need to rely on the
rules of exponents to answer this question.
Getting to the Answer: When a power is raised to a power, multiply
the exponents. You want to be able to add the exponents later, so the
bases need to be the same, and you’ll need to recognize that 32 is the
same as 2 raised to the 5th power.
Now that the two bases in the exponent are the same, you can add their
exponents.
Therefore, x  = 37.
1875
37. 33
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Questions that involve distance, rate, and time can
almost always be solved using the formula Distance = rate × time.
Getting to the Answer: Use the speed, or rate, of the first car (64 mph)
and its distance from the destination (144 mi) to determine how long it
traveled. You don’t know the time, so call it t.
This means it took 2.25 hours for the first car to arrive. You need the
number of minutes, so multiply 2.25 by 60 to get 60 × 2.25 = 135
minutes. Now determine how long it took the second car. It started its
drive at 2:18 PM and arrived at 4:00 PM, so it took 1 hour and 42
minutes, or 102 minutes. This means that the first car had been traveling
for 135 – 102 = 33 minutes before the second car started its drive.
1876
38. 220
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into short steps (first part of trip,
stopped for accident, last part of trip).
Getting to the Answer: To get started, you’ll need to find the distance
for each part of the third car’s trip—the question only tells you the total
distance (25 miles). Then, use the formula Distance = rate × time to find
how long the car traveled at 15 mph and then how long it traveled at 30
mph.
First part of trip: (60% of the drive)
So the first part of the trip took 1 hour. Then the car did not move for 20
minutes due to the accident.
Last part of trip: (40% of the drive remained)
1877
So the last part of the trip took one-third of an hour, or 20 minutes. This
means it took the third car a total of 1 hour and 40 minutes to arrive at
the destination. Because the car arrived at 4:00 PM, it must have left at
2:20 PM. Enter the answer as 220.
1878
SAT PRACTICE TEST 6
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
1879
3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task.
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise central
claim; create an effective organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; successfully employ a variety of
sentence structures; use precise word choice; maintain
a formal style and objective tone; and show command
of the conventions of standard written English so that
the essay is free of errors.
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
1880
2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in the
student’s essay; and focus primarily on features of the
source text that are most relevant to addressing the
task.
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and show
control of the conventions of standard written English
so that the essay is free of significant errors.
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s use
of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and persuasive
elements, and/or other features of the student’s own
1881
1—
Inadequate
choosing; make use of support for the claims or points
made in the student’s essay; and focus on relevant
features of the source text.
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show control of the conventions of standard written
English, resulting in certain errors that detract from
the quality of the writing.
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements; choose support for claims or
points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text.
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
1882
Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
When William Faulkner made his Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech in
1950, he was speaking at the height of the Cold War. The memory of the
devastation of the atomic bombs dropped on Japan was still fresh in
people’s minds, and it’s clear from Faulkner’s speech that people were
afraid more destruction was to come. Faulkner felt strongly that in order
for mankind to prevail, writers must write from the heart, rather than
writing from fear. In this speech, he uses several techniques to persuade
his audience of his claim: he establishes his authority, uses vivid
language and imagery, and appeals to his audience’s sense of duty.
At the ceremony, Faulkner was speaking from a position of strength and
expertise, having just been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature. In a
subtle way, he reminds his audience of this expertise throughout the
speech, lending credibility to his claims. In the first paragraph, he
redefines the award as an honor for his life’s work in mining the human
spirit to create great literature. He then reminds the audience of his
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show control of the conventions of standard written
English, resulting in numerous errors that undermine
the quality of the writing.
1883
position as an elder statesman by directing his speech to the “young men
and women” who are also engaged in this great work, and goes on to tell
them what they must “learn” and “teach themselves” about life and
writing. By framing the speech as a lesson for younger writers based on
his career-long exploration of the human spirit, Faulkner establishes his
authority and commands respect for his ideas.
Faulkner also uses vivid language and imagery to create a vision of a
higher purpose to which he would like his audience to aspire. In
paragraphs 2 and 3, he paints a picture of the writer as an artist involved
in a great struggle, which he characterizes with words like “agony” and
“sweat.” According to Faulkner, a writer will never succeed if he
avoids universal truths, and until the writer realizes this, “he labors
under a curse.” To Faulkner, a writer who writes from a place of fear
instead of compassion creates meaningless work that touches upon “no
universal bones, leaving no scars.” On the other hand, a writer who
writes with pity and compassion lifts the reader’s heart and reminds him
of his “immortal” nature. This type of vivid language, which is clearly
written from Faulkner’s heart, helps to support his argument that writing
from the heart is the way to create great literature that inspires mankind
to prevail.
Finally, in speaking to his audience of younger writers, he calls upon
their sense of duty. It’s clear earlier in the speech that Faulkner is
1884
concerned that younger writers are being defeated by fear, and are
failing to explore the rich material of the human heart. He asserts that
rather than writing about defeat, they should elevate humans by
reminding them of their great capacity for courage, compassion,
sacrifice, and other noble qualities. These characteristics are unique to
humans and are the “glory” of their past, which Faulkner exhorts them to
carry into the future. In the final line, Faulkner calls upon writers to be
more than just record-keepers—rather, they should actively inspire
humankind to prevail.
In a time of great fear, William Faulkner used his Nobel Prize
acceptance speech to express his belief that writers must write from the
heart in order to ensure the success of mankind. To convince his
audience that they should accept his claim, he first establishes his
authority, then uses vivid language and imagery to illustrate the value of
writing from the heart, and finally calls upon his audience’s sense of
duty to elevate the human race. Through skillful use of these features, he
constructs a persuasive argument.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
William Faulkner believed that authors must write from their hearts to
make sure that humans prevail on Earth. In his Nobel Prize Acceptance
1885
Speech, Faulkner uses his expertise, vivid language, and calls to his
audience’s sense of responsibility to make his case.
In this speech, Faulkner speaks as both a writer and a teacher. He
acknowledges that young writers are listening to him; and he has lessons
to give to them. Since he just won the Nobel Prize his listeners believe
him to be an expert and this makes them more willing to accept his
message. He tells his young listeners that they have lost their way, and
they must relearn the “problems of the human heart,” which are what
make good writing. Faulkner tells his listeners that being afraid is the
lowest of human feelings, and they need to put their fears aside and
instead explore the higher truths of the human heart. Faulkner knows that
his young audience is looking up to him, and so he uses his position of
authority to guide them to strive for something greater than their fear.
Faulkner also uses vivid language to enhance his argument. Twice he
uses the phrase “agony and sweat” to describe the struggle of the writer
who writes from the heart. This type of vivid language makes the
writer’s struggle seem like a goal worth fighting for. Faulkner describes
writing that avoids the problems of the human heart as having no
“bones” or “scars.” By using words that evoke the human body,
Faulkner implies that this type of writing has no weight or depth.
Faulkner uses very vivid language to paint a picture of a world after a
nuclear apacalypse, which is what his audience fears. In this picture, the
1886
evening is “red and dying,” the rocks are “worthless” and man’s voice
is “puny” but still talking. Faulkner then tells his audience he refuses to
accept this bleak image—that man will do more than just exist, he will
prevail. By using vivid language to describe the defeatist view of
mankind, Faulkner makes his audience feel revulsion at this image, and
makes the alternative seem much more appealing.
Faulkner wanted writers to write about courage, hope, love,
compassion, and pity because these things uplift the human spirit.
Faulkner calls upon his listeners’ sense of responsibility by telling them
that they have a duty to write about these subjects. His implication is
that if they don’t, mankind will fall back into the bleakness he described
previously. He also says that the writer has a responsibility to be a
“pillar” holding up mankind. By making his audience feel that they have
a responsibility to help mankind, Faulkner strengthens his position.
In this speech, Faulkner makes an effective argument that writers must
write from the heart to save mankind and help it prevail. To strengthen
his argument, he uses the features of expertise, vivid language, and calls
to responsibility.
1887
1888
SAT Practice Test 7 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
1889
1890
1891
1892
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
Great Expectations
1893
The following passage is adapted from Charles Dickens’s 1860 novel
Great Expectations. In this scene, the narrator, a boy named Pip, eats
breakfast with his older sister’s acquaintance, Mr. Pumblechook.
Pumblechook has agreed to take Pip to see Miss Havisham, a wealthy
woman who has requested this visit, although Pip has never met her.
Mr. Pumblechook and I breakfasted at eight
o’clock in the parlor behind the shop, while the
shopman took his mug of tea and hunch of bread
and butter on a sack of peas in the front premises.
I considered Mr. Pumblechook wretched company.(5)
Besides being possessed by my sister’s idea that a
mortifying and penitential character ought to be
imparted to my diet, —besides giving me as much1
crumb as possible in combination with as little but-
ter, and putting such a quantity of warm water into(10)
my milk that it would have been more candid to
have left the milk out altogether,—his conversation
consisted of nothing but arithmetic. On my politely
bidding him Good morning, he said, pompously,
“Seven times nine, boy?” And how should I be able(15)
to answer, dodged in that way, in a strange place,
on an empty stomach! I was hungry, but before I
had swallowed a morsel, he began a running sum
that lasted all through the breakfast. “Seven?” “And
1894
four?” “And eight?” … And so on. And after each(20)
figure was disposed of, it was as much as I could do
to get a bite or a sup, before the next came; while he
sat at his ease guessing nothing, and eating bacon
and hot roll, in (if I may be allowed the expression)
a gorging and gormandizing manner.(25)
For such reasons, I was very glad when ten
o’clock came and we started for Miss Havisham’s;
though I was not at all at my ease regarding the
manner in which I should acquit myself under that
lady’s roof. Within a quarter of an hour we came to(30)
Miss Havisham’s house, which was of old brick, and
dismal, and had a great many iron bars to it. Some
of the windows had been walled up; of those that
remained, all the lower were rustily barred. There
was a courtyard in front, and that was barred; so(35)
we had to wait, after ringing the bell, until some
one should come to open it. While we waited at the
gate, I peeped in (even then Mr. Pumblechook said,
“And fourteen?” but I pretended not to hear him),
and saw that at the side of the house there was a(40)
large brewery. No brewing was going on in it, and
none seemed to have gone on for a long long time.
A window was raised, and a clear voice demanded
“What name?” To which my conductor replied,
1895
Pip’s sister indicated to Pumblechook that Pip should be grateful, even penitent (unreasonably
so) for his help.
“Pumblechook.” The voice returned, “Quite right,”(45)
and the window was shut again, and a young lady
came across the court-yard, with keys in her hand.
“This,” said Mr. Pumblechook, “is Pip.”
“This is Pip, is it?” returned the young lady, who
was very pretty and seemed very proud; “come in, Pip.”(50)
Mr. Pumblechook was coming in also, when she
stopped him with the gate.
“Oh!” she said. “Did you wish to see Miss
Havisham?”
“If Miss Havisham wished to see me,” returned(55)
Mr. Pumblechook, discomfited.
“Ah!” said the girl; “but you see she don’t.”
She said it so finally, and in such an undiscuss-
ible way, that Mr. Pumblechook, though in a
condition of ruffled dignity, could not protest. But(60)
he eyed me severely,—as if I had done anything to
him!—and departed with the words reproachfully
delivered: “Boy! Let your behavior here be a credit
unto them which brought you up by hand!”  I was2
not free from apprehension that he would come(65)
back to propound through the gate, “And sixteen?”
But he didn’t.
1
2
1896
Pumblechook is speaking of Pip’s sister, who often boasts that she raised him “by hand.”2
1. According to the first paragraph, Pip’s breakfast with Mr. Pumblechook
is
eaten on the run.(A)
small and of poor quality.(B)
better than Pip usually receives.(C)
carefully cooked and served.(D)
2. As used in line 5, “wretched” most nearly means
shameful.(A)
deprived.(B)
distressing.(C)
heartbroken.(D)
3. Based on the details in the passage, it can be inferred that Mr.
Pumblechook
1897
has looked forward to his morning with Pip.(A)
is as uncomfortable as Pip is during breakfast.(B)
has known Pip and his sister for a very long time.(C)
is indifferent to Pip’s discomfort during breakfast.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-4 (“Mr. Pumblechook and I … premises”)(A)
Lines 6-13 (“Besides … arithmetic”)(B)
Lines 44-45 (“To which my … Pumblechook”)(C)
Lines 58-60 (“She said … not protest”)(D)
5. What theme does the passage communicate through the experiences of
Pip, the narrator?
The world can be a puzzling and sometimes cruel place.(A)
Young people are misunderstood by their elders.(B)
Mean-spirited people deserve to be treated harshly.(C)
The favors one receives in life should be reciprocated.(D)
1898
6. Which word best describes the young lady’s ​demeanor when she
approaches Pip and Mr. ​Pumblechook?
Rude(A)
Timid(B)
Self-centered(C)
Authoritative(D)
7. The passage strongly suggests that which of the following is true when
Mr. Pumblechook leaves Pip at Miss Havisham’s house?
Pip is excited to finally meet Miss Havisham.(A)
Pip is nervous about being away from his sister for so long.(B)
Pip is relieved to be away from Mr. Pumblechook.(C)
Pip is anxious about spending time with the young lady who greets
them.
(D)
8. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
1899
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Lines 26-30 (“For such reasons … roof”)(A)
Lines 43-44 (“A window … name”)(B)
Lines 58-60 (“She said it … protest”)(C)
Lines 64-67 (“I was not … he didn’t”)(D)
9. As used in line 60, “condition” most nearly means
illness.(A)
prerequisite.(B)
state.(C)
limitation.(D)
10. The author’s use of the parenthetical comment in line 24 helps reveal
that
Pip is usually more polite in his references to others.(A)
Mr. Pumblechook appreciates gourmet food.(B)
Pip is very angered that his own breakfast is so meager.(C)
Mr. Pumblechook has no qualms about overeating in public.(D)
1900
“Letter from Birmingham Jail”
This passage is adapted from Martin Luther King, Jr.’s “Letter from
Birmingham Jail.”
…I think I should give the reason for my being
in Birmingham, since you have been influenced
by the argument of “outsiders coming in.” I have
the honor of serving as president of the Southern
Christian Leadership Conference, an organization(5)
operating in every Southern state with headquar-
ters in Atlanta, Georgia. We have some eighty-five
affiliate organizations all across the South, one be-
ing the Alabama Christian Movement for Human
Rights. Whenever necessary and possible we share(10)
staff, educational, and financial resources with our
affiliates. Several months ago our local affiliate
here in Birmingham invited us to be on call to en-
gage in a nonviolent direct action program if such
were deemed necessary. We readily consented and(15)
when the hour came we lived up to our promises.
So I am here, along with several members of my
staff, because we were invited here. I am here be-
cause I have basic organizational ties here. Beyond
1901
this, I am in Birmingham because injustice is(20)
here….
Moreover, I am cognizant of the interrelatedness
of all communities and states. I cannot sit idly by in
Atlanta and not be concerned about what happens
in Birmingham. Injustice anywhere is a threat to(25)
justice everywhere. We are caught in an inescapable
network of mutuality, tied in a single garment of
destiny. Whatever affects one directly affects all
indirectly. Never again can we afford to live with the
narrow, provincial “outside agitator” idea. Anyone(30)
who lives inside the United States can never be
considered an outsider anywhere in this country….
You may well ask, “Why direct action? Why sit-ins,
marches, etc.? Isn’t negotiation a better path?” You
are exactly right in your call for negotiation.(35)
Indeed, this is the purpose of direct action.
Nonviolent direct action seeks to create such a
crisis and establish such creative tension that
a community that has constantly refused to
negotiate is forced to confront the issue. It seeks(40)
so to dramatize the issue that it can no longer be
ignored. I just referred to the creation of tension as
a part of the work of the nonviolent resister. This
may sound rather shocking. But I must confess that
1902
I am not afraid of the word tension. I have earnestly(45)
worked and preached against violent tension, but
there is a type of constructive nonviolent tension
that is necessary for growth. Just as Socrates felt
that it was necessary to create a tension in the mind
so that individuals could rise from the bondage of(50)
myths and half-truths to the unfettered realm of
creative analysis and objective appraisal, we must
see the need of having nonviolent gadflies to create
the kind of tension in society that will help men
rise from the dark depths of prejudice and rac-(55)
ism to the majestic heights of understanding and
brotherhood. So the purpose of the direct action
is to create a situation so crisis-packed that it will
inevitably open the door to negotiation. We, there-
fore, concur with you in your call for negotiation.(60)
Too long has our beloved Southland been bogged
down in the tragic attempt to live in monologue
rather than dialogue….
My friends, I must say to you that we have
not made a single gain in civil rights without(65)
determined legal and nonviolent pressure. History
is the long and tragic story of the fact that privileged
groups seldom give up their privileges voluntarily.
Individuals may see the moral light and voluntarily
1903
give up their unjust posture; but as Reinhold(70)
Niebuhr has reminded us, groups are more
immoral than individuals.
We know through painful experience that
freedom is never voluntarily given by the oppressor;
it must be demanded by the oppressed….(75)
For years now I have heard the word “Wait!” It
rings in the ear of every African American with
a piercing familiarity. This “wait” has almost
always meant “never.” It has been a tranquilizing
thalidomide, relieving the emotional stress for a(80)
moment, only to give birth to an ill-formed infant
of frustration. We must come to see with the
distinguished jurist of yesterday that “justice too
long delayed is justice denied.” We have waited for
more than three hundred and forty years for our(85)
constitutional and God-given rights. The nations
of Asia and Africa are moving with jet-like speed
toward the goal of political independence, and
we still creep at horse and buggy pace toward the
gaining of a cup of coffee at a lunch counter….(90)
11. Which choice correctly states King’s purpose for writing this letter?
1904
To explain why he came to Birmingham(A)
To launch a nonviolent protest movement in Birmingham(B)
To open an affiliate of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference
in Birmingham
(C)
To support fellow civil rights activists in Birmingham(D)
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 1-2 (“I think … in Birmingham”)(A)
Lines 3-7 (“I have … Atlanta, Georgia”)(B)
Lines 7-10 (“We have some … Rights”)(C)
Lines 25-26 (“Injustice anywhere … everywhere”)(D)
13. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following
statements is true?
King was warmly welcomed when he arrived in Birmingham.(A)
King received criticism for his decision to come to Birmingham.(B)
King did not want to cause a disruption by coming to Birmingham.(C)
King was abandoned by his supporters when he arrived in
Birmingham.
(D)
1905
14. As used in lines 22-23, “interrelatedness of all communities and states”
most nearly means that
King has personal connections to people in the town.(A)
the Southern Christian Leadership Conference needs national
support.
(B)
events in one part of the country affect everyone in the nation.(C)
local civil rights groups operate independently of one another.(D)
15. Based on paragraph 3, it can be reasonably inferred that King believed
circumstances in Birmingham at the time
were unfair and wrong.(A)
constituted an isolated event.(B)
justified his arrest.(C)
required federal intervention.(D)
16. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1906
Lines 22-23 (“Moreover, … states”)(A)
Lines 25-26 (“Injustice anywhere … everywhere”)(B)
Lines 26-28 (“We are caught … destiny”)(C)
Lines 29-30 (“Never again … idea”)(D)
17. As used in line 41, “dramatize” most nearly means
cast events in an appealing light.(A)
draw attention to significant events.(B)
exaggerate events to seem more important.(C)
turn events into a popular performance.(D)
18. Which choice most clearly paraphrases a claim made by King in
paragraph 4?
1907
A failure to negotiate in the South has provoked direct action by
civil rights activists.
(A)
A focus on dialogue blinds reformers to the necessity for direct
action to promote change.
(B)
Direct action is necessary to motivate people to talk about prejudice
and racism.
(C)
Nonviolent protest encourages a sense of brotherhood and
understanding among citizens.
(D)
19. Paragraph 5 best supports the claims made in the preceding paragraph
by
arguing that nonviolent pressure is most likely to spur just action by
individuals.
(A)
clarifying that throughout history, privileged classes have been
reluctant to let go of privilege.
(B)
drawing a distinction between the morality of individuals and of
groups.
(C)
pointing out that few gains in civil rights have been made without
nonviolent pressure.
(D)
1908
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passages and
supplementary material.
Paired Passages—Bretton Woods
The idea of a World Bank became a reality in 1944, when delegates to the
Bretton Woods Conference pledged to “outlaw practices which are
agreed to be harmful to world prosperity.”
Passage 1
20. King refers to “the gaining of a cup of coffee at a lunch counter” (lines
89-90) primarily to
call attention to the sedative effect of delaying civil rights reform in
the United States.
(A)
emphasize that white Americans will not willingly end oppression
against black Americans.
(B)
describe the progress made toward the winning of equal rights in
other countries.
(C)
underscore the contrast between progress made in other countries
and the United States.
(D)
1909
In 1944, 730 delegates from forty-four Allied
nations met in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, just
as World War II was ending. They were attending
an important conference. This mostly forgotten
event shaped our modern world because delegates(5)
at the Bretton Woods Conference agreed on the
establishment of an international banking system.
To ensure that all nations would prosper, the
United States and other allied nations set rules
for a postwar international economy. The Bretton(10)
Woods system created the International Monetary
Fund (IMF). The IMF was founded as a kind of
global central bank from which member countries
could borrow money. The countries needed money
to pay for their war costs. Today, the IMF facilitates(15)
international trade by ensuring the stability of the
international monetary and financial system.
The Bretton Woods system also established the
World Bank. Although the World Bank shares
similarities with the IMF, the two institutions remain(20)
distinct. While the IMF maintains an orderly system
of payments and receipts between nations, the World
Bank is mainly a development institution. The World
Bank initially gave loans to European countries
devastated by World War II, and today it lends money(25)
1910
and technical assistance specifically to economic
projects in developing countries. For example,
the World Bank might provide a low-interest loan
to a country attempting to improve education or
health. The goal of the World Bank is to “bridge the(30)
economic divide between poor and rich countries.”
In short, the organizations differ in their purposes.
The Bank promotes economic and social progress so
people can live better lives, while the IMF represents
the entire world in its goal to foster global monetary(35)
cooperation and financial stability.
These two specific accomplishments of the
Bretton Woods Conference were major. However,
the Bretton Woods system particularly benefited
the United States. It established the U.S. dollar as(40)
the global currency. A global currency is one that
countries worldwide accept for all trade, or interna-
tional transactions of buying and selling. Because
only the U.S. could print dollars, the United States
became the primary power behind both the IMF(45)
and the World Bank. Today, global currencies
include the U.S. dollar, the euro (European Union
countries), and the yen (Japan).
The years after Bretton Woods have been consid-
ered the golden age of the U.S. dollar. More impor-(50)
1911
Passage 2
tantly, the conference profoundly shaped foreign
trade for decades to come.
The financial system established at the 1944
Bretton Woods Conference endured for many
years. Even after the United States abrogated(55)
agreements made at the conference, the nation
continued to experience a powerful position in
international trade by having other countries tie
their currencies to the U.S. dollar. The world,
however, is changing.(60)
In reality, the Bretton Woods system lasted only
three decades. Then, in 1971, President Richard
Nixon introduced a new economic policy. It
marked the end of the Bretton Woods international
monetary framework, and the action resulted in(65)
worldwide financial crisis. Two cornerstones of
Bretton Woods, however, endured: the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
Since the collapse of the Bretton Woods system,
IMF members have been trading using a flexible(70)
exchange system. Namely, countries allow their
exchange rates to fluctuate in response to changing
conditions. The exchange rate between two curren-
1912
cies, such as the Japanese yen and the U.S. dollar,
for example, specifies how much one currency is(75)
worth in terms of the other. An exchange rate of
120 yen to dollars means that 120 yen are worth the
same as one dollar.
Even so, the U.S. dollar has remained the most
widely used money for international trade, and(80)
having one currency for all trade may be better
than using a flexible exchange system.
This seems to be the thinking of a powerful
group of countries. The Group of Twenty (G20),
which has called for a new Bretton Woods, consists(85)
of governments and leaders from 20 of the world’s
largest economies including China, the United
States, and the European Union. In 2009, for
example, the G20 announced plans to create a new
global currency to replace the U.S. dollar’s role as(90)
the anchor currency. Many believe that China’s
yuan, quickly climbing the financial ranks, is well on
its way to becoming a major world reserve currency.
In fact, an earlier 1988 article in The Economist
stated, “30 years from now, Americans, Japanese,(95)
Europeans, and people in many other rich coun-
tries and some relatively poor ones will probably be
paying for their shopping with the same currency.”
1913
Top 10 International Currencies
(Percent Shares of Average Daily Currency Trading)
 2007 2010 2013
 Share Rank Share Rank Share Rank
U.S. Dollar (USD) 85.6% 1 84.9% 1 87.0% 1
Euro (EUR) 37.0% 2 39.1% 2 33.4% 2
Japanese Yen
(JPY)
17.2% 3 19.0% 3 23.0% 3
UK Pound (GBP) 14.9% 4 12.9% 4 11.8% 4
Australian Dollar 6.6% 6 7.6% 5 8.6% 5
The article predicted that the world supply of
currency would be set by a new central bank of(100)
the IMF. This prediction seems to be coming to
fruition since the G20 indicated that a “world cur-
rency is in waiting.” For an international construct
such as the original Bretton Woods to last some
26 years is nothing less than amazing. But move(105)
over Bretton Woods; a new world order in finance
could be on the fast track.
1914
(AUD)
Swiss Franc (CHF) 6.8% 5 6.3% 6 5.2% 6
Canadian Dollar
(CAD)
4.3% 7 5.3% 7 4.6% 7
Mexican Peso
(MXN)
1.3% 12 1.3% 14 2.5% 8
Chinese Yuan
(CNY)
0.5% 20 0.9% 17 2.2% 9
New Zealand
Dollar
1.9% 11 1.6% 10 2.0% 10
Adapted from Mauldin Economics; Bank for International Settlements, September 2013 Triennial Central
Bank Survey.
21. Based on Passage 1, it can be reasonably inferred that
1915
world leaders recognized the need for markets to function
independently.
(A)
Bretton Woods increased U.S. economic influence around the world.(B)
the IMF and the World Bank work closely together to ensure
prosperity.
(C)
the conclusion of World War II had little influence on events at
Bretton Woods.
(D)
22. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 8-10 (“To ensure … economy”)(A)
Lines 10-12 (“The Bretton … Fund”)(B)
Lines 43-46 (“Because only … World Bank”)(C)
Lines 50-51 (“More importantly … to come”)(D)
23. As used in line 35, “foster” most nearly means
publicize.(A)
rear.(B)
stabilize.(C)
encourage.(D)
1916
24. Which statement best explains the difference between the purposes of
the IMF and the World Bank?
The IMF provides money to pay for war costs, while the World
Bank offers assistance to rebuild countries recovering from war
across the globe.
(A)
The IMF encourages stability in the global financial system, while
the World Bank promotes economic development in relatively poor
nations.
(B)
The IMF supports the U.S. dollar in international markets, while the
World Bank provides low-interest loans to many nations around the
world.
(C)
The IMF offers governments advice about participation in global
markets, while the World Bank encourages monetary cooperation
between nations.
(D)
25. Based on the second paragraph in Passage 2, it can be reasonably
inferred that
1917
the United States did not support the goals of the IMF and the World
Bank.
(A)
Bretton Woods was originally intended to last for three decades.(B)
President Nixon acted to reinforce the decisions made at Bretton
Woods.
(C)
U.S. policy decision differed from international consensus over
Bretton Woods.
(D)
26. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 61-62 (“In reality … three decades”)(A)
Lines 62-63 (“Then, in 1971 … economic policy”)(B)
Lines 66-68 (“Two cornerstones … World Bank”)(C)
Lines 69-71 (“Since the collapse … exchange system”)(D)
27. As used in line 91, “anchor” most nearly means
key.(A)
fastening.(B)
rigid.(C)
supporting.(D)
1918
28. It can be reasonably inferred from Passage 2 and the graphic that
international markets are increasingly comfortable using the yuan as
trade currency.
(A)
the United States favors using the yuan as one of the world’s reserve
currencies.
(B)
the G20 wants to replace the yuan and other currencies with a new
global currency.
(C)
the IMF continues to support the yuan and other currencies in a
flexible exchange system.
(D)
29. The last paragraph of Passage 2 can be described as
a refutation of opponents’ criticisms.(A)
an indication of the author’s opinion.(B)
a summary of the author’s main points.(C)
an introduction of a contradictory position.(D)
30. Which statement most effectively compares the authors’ purposes in
both passages?
1919
Passage 1’s purpose is to contrast the functions of the IMF and
World Bank, while Passage 2’s purpose is to outline the benefits of a
flexible trade system to the United States.
(A)
Passage 1’s purpose is to describe the history of international trade
in the 20th century, while Passage 2’s purpose is to explain why the
Bretton Woods system collapsed.
(B)
Passage 1’s purpose is to describe Bretton Woods’ effect on the
global economy, while Passage 2’s purpose is to suggest that a new
currency for global trade may soon be implemented.
(C)
Passage 1’s purpose is to promote the economic benefits of the IMF
and World Bank, while Passage 2’s purpose is to encourage the
reestablishment of the Bretton Woods system.
(D)
31. Both passages support which generalization about the global economy?
U.S. influence on global trade has continued under a flexible
exchange system.
(A)
The purposes of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank
are indirectly related.
(B)
The Group of Twenty represents the financial interests of the world’s
largest economies.
(C)
International institutions such as the IMF continue to influence
economic trade and development.
(D)
1920
Questions 32-42 are based on the following passage.
Treatment for Paralysis Passage
According to a study conducted by the Christopher
and Dana Reeve Foundation, more than six million
people in the United States suffer from debilitating
paralysis. That’s close to one person in every fifty
who suffers from a loss of the ability to move or feel(5)
in areas of his or her body. Paralysis is often caused
by illnesses, such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, or
injuries to the spinal cord. Research scientists have
made advances in the treatment of paralysis, which
means retraining affected individuals to become(10)
as independent as possible. Patients learn how to
use wheelchairs and prevent complications that are
caused by restricted movement. This retraining is
key in maintaining paralytics’ quality of life;
however, an actual cure for paralysis has remained(15)
elusive—until now.
In 2014, surgeons in Poland collaborated with
the University College London’s Institute of Neurol-
ogy to treat a Polish man who was paralyzed from
the chest down as a result of a spinal cord injury.(20)
1921
The scientists chose this patient for their study be-
cause of the countless hours of physical therapy he
had undergone with no signs of progress. Twenty-
one months after their test subject’s initial spinal
cord injury, his condition was considered complete(25)
as defined by the American Spinal Injury Associa-
tion (ASIA)’s Impairment Scale. This meant that he
experienced no sensory or motor function in the
segments of his spinal cord nearest to his injury.
The doctors used a technique refined during forty(30)
years of spinal cord research on rats. They removed
one of two of the patient’s olfactory bulbs, which are
structures found at the top of the human nose. From
this structure, samples of olfactory ensheathing cells,
responsible for a portion of the sense of smell, were(35)
harvested. These cells allow the olfactory system to
renew its cells over the course of a human life. It is
because of this constant regeneration that scientists
chose these particular cells to implant into the
patient’s spinal cord. After being harvested, the cells(40)
were reproduced in a culture. Then, the cells were
injected into the patient’s spinal cord in 100 mini-
injections above and below the location of his injury.
Four strips of nerve tissue were then placed across a
small gap in the spinal cord.(45)
1922
After surgery, the patient underwent a tailor-made
neurorehabilitation program. In the nineteen
months following the operation, not only did the
patient experience no adverse effects, but his
condition improved from ASIA’s class A to class(50)
C. Class C is considered an incomplete spinal cord
injury, meaning that motor function is preserved to a
certain extent and there is some muscle activity. The
patient experienced increased stability in the trunk
of his body, as well as partial recovery of voluntary(55)
movements in his lower extremities. As a result, he
was able to increase the muscle mass in his thighs
and regain sensation in those areas. In late 2014, he
took his first steps with the support of only a walker.
These exciting improvements suggest that the(60)
nerve grafts doctors placed in the patient’s spinal
cord bridged the injured area and prompted the
regeneration of fibers. This was the first-ever
clinical study that showed beneficial effects of cells
transplanted into the spinal cord. The same team(65)
of scientists plans to treat ten more patients using
this “smell cell” transplant technique. If they have
continued success, patients around the world can
have both their mobility and their hope restored.
1923
32. The central idea of the passage is primarily concerned with
how various diseases and injuries can cause permanent paralysis.(A)
ways in which doctors and therapists work to improve patients’
quality of life.
(B)
one treatment being developed to return mobility to patients suffering
paralysis.
(C)
methods of physical therapy that can help patients with spinal cord
injuries.
(D)
33. The author includes a description of retraining paralytics in lines 8-13
primarily to
describe how people with paralysis cope with everyday tasks.(A)
appeal to the reader’s sympathies for people with paralysis.(B)
show that most research scientists do not believe a cure can be
found.
(C)
help readers appreciate the significance of research that may lead to
a cure.
(D)
34. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that the
author
1924
believes more research should be done before patients with
paralysis are subjected to the treatment described in the passage.
(A)
feels that increased mobility will have a positive impact on patients
suffering from all levels of paralysis.
(B)
thinks that more scientists should study paralysis and ways to
improve the quality of life for patients with limited mobility.
(C)
was part of the research team that developed the new method of
treating paralysis described in the passage.
(D)
35. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 6-8 (“Paralysis is … spinal cord”)(A)
Lines 17-20 (“In 2014 … injury”)(B)
Lines 53-56 (“The patient … extremities”)(C)
Lines 67-69 (“If they … restored”)(D)
36. As used in line 13, “restricted” most nearly means
1925
confidential.(A)
dependent.(B)
increased.(C)
limited.(D)
37. In line 46, the author’s use of the word “tailor-made” helps reinforce
the idea that
the injected cells were from the patient and were therefore well-
suited to work in his own body.
(A)
spinal cord cells were replaced during the transplant portion of the
individualized treatment.
(B)
olfactory bulbs were removed from rats and placed in the patient’s
spinal cord during surgery.
(C)
the method used by doctors to locate the damaged area required
expertise and precision.
(D)
38. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that
1926
the patient’s treatment would have been more successful if scientists
had used cells from another area of his body instead of from his
olfactory bulbs.
(A)
cells from olfactory bulbs will be used to cure diseases that affect
areas of the body other than the spinal cord.
(B)
the patient who received the experimental treatment using cells from
olfactory bulbs would not have regained mobility without this
treatment.
(C)
soon doctors will be able to treat spinal injuries without time-
consuming and demanding physical therapy.
(D)
39. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 8-11 (“Research scientists … possible”)(A)
Lines 21-28 (“The scientists … progress”)(B)
Lines 31-33 (“They removed … nose”)(C)
Lines 60-63 (“These exciting … fibers”)(D)
40. As used in line 30, “refined” most nearly means
1927
advanced.(A)
improved.(B)
experienced.(C)
treated.(D)
41. The success of the patient’s treatment was due in large part to
studies done on other patients.(A)
research conducted by other doctors in Poland.(B)
many experiments performed on rats.(C)
multiple attempts on various types of animals.(D)
42. The procedure described in which cells from olfactory bulbs are
injected into a damaged area of the spinal cord is most analogous to
which of the following?
1928
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Mercury in Fish Passage
Replacing a diseased organ in a patient with an organ from a donor
who has the same tissue type
(A)
Giving a patient with a high fever an injection of medication to bring
the core body temperature down
(B)
Placing a cast on a limb to hold the bone in place to encourage
healing after suffering a break
(C)
Grafting skin from a healthy area of the body and transplanting it to
an area that has suffered severe burns
(D)
Mercury is an unusual element; it is a metal but
is liquid at room temperature. It is also a neurotoxin
and a teratogen, as it causes nerve damage and birth
defects. Mercury can be found just about every-
where; it is in soil, in air, in household items, and(5)
even in our food. Everyday objects, such as thermometers,
light switches, and fluorescent lightbulbs,
contain mercury in its elemental form. Batteries
can also contain mercury, but they contain it in the
1929
form of the inorganic compound mercury chloride.(10)
Mercury can also exist as an organic compound,
the most common of which is methylmercury.
While we can take steps to avoid both elemental
and inorganic mercury, it is much harder to avoid
methylmercury.(15)
Most of the mercury in the environment
comes from the emissions of coal-burning power
plants; coal contains small amounts of mercury,
which are released into the air when coal burns.
The concentration of mercury in the air from(20)
power plants is very low, so it is not immediately
dangerous. However, the mercury is then washed
out of the air by rainstorms and eventually ends up
in lakes and oceans.
The mercury deposited in the water does not(25)
instantaneously get absorbed by fish, as elemental
mercury does not easily diffuse through cell
membranes. However, methylmercury diffuses
into cells easily, and certain anaerobic bacteria
in the water convert the elemental mercury to(30)
methylmercury as a by-product of their metabolic
processes. Methylmercury released into the water
by the bacteria diffuses into small single-celled
organisms called plankton. Small shrimp and other
1930
small animals eat the plankton and absorb the(35)
methylmercury in the plankton during digestion.
Small fish eat the shrimp and then larger fish eat the
smaller fish; each time an animal preys on another
animal, the predator absorbs the methylmercury.
Because each animal excretes the methylmercury(40)
much more slowly than it absorbs it, methylmercury
builds up in the animal over time and is passed on
to whatever animal eats it, resulting in a process
called bioaccumulation.
As people became aware of the bioaccumulation(45)
of mercury in fish, many reacted by eliminating
seafood from their diet. However, seafood contains
certain omega-3 fatty acids that are important
for good health. People who do not eat enough
of these fatty acids, especially eicosapentaenoic(50)
acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), are
more likely to have heart attacks than people who
have enough EPA and DHA in their diet. Because
fish and shellfish, along with some algae, are the
only sources of these fatty acids, eliminating them(55)
from our diet might have worse health effects than
consuming small amounts of mercury.
Scientists have studied the effects of mercury by
conducting tests on animals and by studying various
1931
human populations and recording the amount of(60)
mercury in their blood. By determining the levels of
mercury consumption that cause any of the known
symptoms of mercury poisoning, they were able
to identify a safe level of mercury consumption.
The current recommendation is for humans to(65)
take in less than 0.1 microgram of mercury for
every kilogram of weight per day. This means that
a 70-kilogram person (about 155 pounds) could
safely consume 7 micrograms of mercury per day.
Since haddock averages about 0.055 micrograms(70)
of mercury per gram, that person could safely eat
127 grams (about 4.5 ounces) of haddock per day.
On the other hand, swordfish averages about 0.995
micrograms of mercury per gram of fish, so the
70-kilogram person could safely eat only about 7(75)
grams (about one-quarter of an ounce) of swordfish
per day.
Nutritionists recommend that, rather than elimi-
nate fish from our diet, we try to eat more of the
low-mercury fish and less of the high-mercury fish.(80)
Low-mercury species tend to be smaller omnivo-
rous fish while high-mercury species tend to be the
largest carnivorous fish. Awareness of the par-
ticulars of this problem, accompanied by mindful
1932
Species Average Weight
Range (grams)
Average Mercury Concentration
(parts per billion)
Alaskan
Pollock
227–1,000 31
Atlantic
Haddock
900–1,800 55
Atlantic
Herring
100–600 84
Chub
Mackerel
100–750 88
Cod 800–4,000 111
Skipjack
Tuna
2,000–10,000 144
eating habits, will keep us on the best course for(85)
healthy eating.
1933
Black-
Striped
Bass
6,820–15,900 152
Albacore
Tuna
4,540–21,364 358
Marlin 180,000 485
43. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
Mercury poisoning is only one of many concerns that should be
considered when choosing which fish to add to one’s diet.
(A)
More should be done by scientists and nutritionists to inform people
about the dangers of mercury poisoning.
(B)
Fish is an essential part of a healthy diet and can be eaten safely if
recommendations for mercury consumption are kept in mind.
(C)
The mercury present in the air is more dangerous to people than the
mercury consumed by eating fish with high mercury levels.
(D)
1934
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 16-18 (“Most of … plants”)(A)
Lines 32-35 (“Methylmercury released … plankton”)(B)
Lines 58-61 (“Scientists … their blood”)(C)
Lines 83-86 (“Awareness … eating”)(D)
45. In addition to the levels of mercury in a specific species of fish, people
should also consider which of the following when determining a safe
level of consumption?
Their own body weight(A)
Where the fish was caught(B)
The other meats they are eating(C)
What they ate the day before(D)
46. As used in line 20, “concentration” most nearly means
1935
focus.(A)
application.(B)
density.(C)
awareness.(D)
47. The passage most strongly suggests which of the following statements
is accurate?
It is not possible to completely avoid environmental exposure to
mercury.
(A)
Inorganic mercury is more dangerous to humans than organic
mercury.
(B)
Most of the exposure to mercury experienced by humans comes from
fish consumption.
(C)
Mercury is one of the most abundant elements found in nature.(D)
48. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
1936
Lines 1-2 (“Mercury is an unusual … temperature”)(A)
Lines 4-6 (“Mercury … our food”)(B)
Lines 20-22 (“The concentration … dangerous”)(C)
Lines 28-32 (“However, methylmercury … processes”)(D)
49. The main purpose of paragraph 3 is to explain
the reasons why mercury deposited in water is not harmful to fish.(A)
the relationships between predators and prey in aquatic animals.(B)
how the largest fish accumulate the greatest amounts of mercury.(C)
the difference between methylmercury and other types of mercury.(D)
50. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strengthen the
author’s line of reasoning?
More examples in paragraph 1 of places mercury is found(A)
Details in paragraph 2 about the levels of mercury found in the air(B)
An explanation in paragraph 4 of how to treat mercury poisoning(C)
More examples in paragraph 5 of how many micrograms of mercury
people of different weights could eat
(D)
1937
51. As used in lines 83-84, “particulars” most nearly means
data.(A)
specifics.(B)
points.(C)
evidence.(D)
52. Based on the information in the passage and the graphic, which of the
following statements is true?
The fish with the lowest average weight is the safest to eat.(A)
A person can safely eat more marlin than albacore tuna in one day.(B)
Eating large fish carries a lower risk of mercury poisoning than
eating small fish.
(C)
A person can safely eat more Alaskan pollock than black striped
bass in one day.
(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1938
1939
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44Questions
1940
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
1941
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
The UN: Promoting World Peace
The United Nations (UN) is perhaps the most important political
contribution of the 20th century. Some may argue that the work of the UN 
1  ; an international peacekeeping organization—has proven futile,
given persisting global conflict. But the UN’s worldwide influence
demands a closer look. This organization’s global impact is undeniable.
The UN is a strong political organization determined to create
opportunities for its member nations to enjoy a peaceful and productive
world. 2
3  Decades ago, provoked by the events of World Wars I and II,
world leaders began imagining a politically neutral force for international
peace. The UN was born in 1945 with 51 participating nations. It was to
be a collective political authority for global peace and security. Today,
193 nations are UN members. 4  In keeping with the original hope, the
UN still strives toward peaceful international relations.
1942
Understandably, no single organization can perfectly solve the world’s
countless, complex problems. But the UN has offered consistent relief for
many of the past half-century’s most difficult disasters and conflicts. It
also provides a safe space for international conversation. Moreover, it
advocates for issues such as justice, trade, hunger relief, human rights,
health, and gender 5  equality, the UN also coordinates care for those
displaced by disaster and conflict, 6  dictates environmental protection,
and works toward conflict reconciliation.
7  8  The year 2014 witnessed the UN peacekeeping force grow to
over 100,000 strong. These uniformed, volunteer, civilian personnel
represent 128 nations. The UN’s budget has also grown over the years to
support an international court system, as well as countless agencies,
committees, and centers addressing sociopolitical topics. Today’s UN
does big things, and it functions with remarkable organization and
efficiency. Critics highlight shortcomings to discount the UN’s
effectiveness. But considering the countless disasters to which the UN has
responded over its six decades of existence, today’s world might enjoy 
9  far less peace, freedom, and safety without the UN.
[1] From promoting overarching sociopolitical change to offering food
and care for displaced groups, the UN serves to protect human rights. [2]
Equally 10  quotable are its initiatives to foster international
collaboration, justice, and peace. [3] The UN provided aid to the
1943
Philippines after the disastrous 2013 typhoon. [4]Certainly, this work is
not finished. [5] But no other organization compares with the work and
influence of the UN. [6] This brave endeavor to insist on and strive for
peace, whatever the obstacles, has indeed united hundreds of once-
divided nations. [7] Today, with eleven Nobel Peace Prizes to its name,
the UN is undoubtedly an irreplaceable and profoundly successful force
for peace. 11
1. 
1944
NO CHANGE(A)
—an international peacekeeping organization;(B)
—an international peacekeeping organization—(C)
; an international peacekeeping organization,(D)
2. Which concluding sentence, if added to the paragraph, most effectively
establishes the main claim of the paragraph?
The UN is an organization dedicated to advancing social and
political justice around the world.
(A)
Those who argue otherwise are not well educated about geopolitical
issues in the 20th century or today.
(B)
The UN has had its share of corruption over the years, but it has a
well-earned reputation of effectively settling international disputes.
(C)
A better understanding of the UN suggests that the UN enables far
greater peace in today’s world than could have been possible
otherwise.
(D)
3. 
1945
NO CHANGE(A)
Recently,(B)
Consequently,(C)
In other words,(D)
4. 
NO CHANGE(A)
In having kept with the original hope, the UN still strives toward
peaceful international relations.
(B)
In keeping with the original hope, the UN still strived toward
peaceful international relations.
(C)
In keeping with the original hope, the UN still strove toward
peaceful international relations.
(D)
5. 
NO CHANGE(A)
equality. The UN(B)
equality: the UN(C)
equality, The UN(D)
6. 
1946
NO CHANGE(A)
prefers(B)
promotes(C)
celebrates(D)
7. Which topic sentence would most effectively express the central idea
of the paragraph?
The UN’s budget, goals, and personnel count have significantly
expanded with time to meet more needs.
(A)
The UN has developed over the years, but critics charge it has met
with limited success.
(B)
The responsibilities of the UN have expanded in recent years in
response to challenging events.
(C)
The UN has maintained a quiet but effective voice on the world
stage in spite of criticism.
(D)
8. Which choice best completes the sentence with accurate data based on
the graphic?
1947
NO CHANGE(A)
The year 2010 led to an increase of approximately 100,000 in the
UN peacekeeping force.
(B)
The year 2010 saw the UN peacekeeping force from the previous
decade grow to approximately 100,000 strong.
(C)
The year 2010 saw the UN peacekeeping force decrease to just over
100,000 strong.
(D)
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
considerably less peace, less freedom, and less safety(B)
much less peace, less freedom, and less safety(C)
significantly less peace and freedom, and less safety(D)
10. 
NO CHANGE(A)
luminous(B)
noteworthy(C)
repeatable(D)
1948
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
DNA Analysis in a Day
Jane Saunders, a forensic DNA specialist, arrives at work and finds a
request waiting for her: She needs to determine if the DNA of a fingernail
with a few skin cells on it 12  match any records in the criminal database.
“Human DNA is a long, double-stranded 13  molecule; each strand
consists of a complementary set of nucleotides,” she explains. “DNA has
four nucleotides: 14  adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine
(C). On each strand is a sequence of nucleotides that ‘match,’ or pair up
with the nucleotides on the other, or complementary, strand. 15  As a
result, when there is an adenine on one strand, there is a thymine on the
11. Which sentence should be removed to improve the overall focus of the
concluding paragraph?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 3(B)
Sentence 5(C)
Sentence 6(D)
1949
complementary strand, and where there is guanine on one strand, there is
cytosine on the complementary strand.”
She begins by 16  moving the DNA from the rest of the sample,
transferring it to a 17  reaction tube. She adds a solution of primers, DNA
polymerase, and nucleotides. Her goal is to separate the two strands of the
DNA molecules and then make complementary copies of each strand.
After mixing the primers, DNA polymerase, and nucleotides with the
evidence DNA, Saunders closes the reaction tube and puts it in a
thermocycler. It is programmed to raise the temperature to 94°C to separate
the double strands into single strands, and then lower the temperature to
59°C to attach the primers to the single strands. Finally, it raises the
temperature to 72°C for the DNA polymerase to build the complementary
strands. The thermocycler holds each temperature for one minute and
repeats the cycle of three temperatures for at least 30 cycles. At the end of
each cycle, the number of DNA segments containing the sequence marked
by the primers doubles. If the original sample contains only 100 DNA
strands, the 18  absolute final solution will have billions of segments. 19
[1] After a short lunch break, Saunders needs to separate and identify
the copied DNA segments. [2] She had used primers that bind to 13
specific sites in human DNA called short tandem repeats, or STRs. [3] The
13 STRs are segments of four nucleotides that repeat, such as
1950
GATAGATAGATA. [4] “Now here’s where the real magic happens!”
Saunders says excitedly. [5] “Most DNA is identical for all humans. [6]
But STRs vary greatly. [7] The chances of any two humans—other than
identical twins—having the same set of 13 STRs is less than one in one
trillion.” 20
Saunders knows that the detectives will be 21  prepared to hear her
findings, so she sits down at her desk to compare her results with the
criminal database in the hopes of finding a match. 22  Is it possible that
too much time is spent identifying DNA in cases that are relatively easy to
solve?
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
matches(B)
has matched(C)
will be matching(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
molecule, each strand consists(B)
molecule each strand consists(C)
molecule but each strand consists(D)
1951
14. 
NO CHANGE(A)
adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C)(B)
adenine (A), thymine (T) guanine (G) and cytosine (C)(C)
adenine (A) thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C)(D)
15. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Specifically,(B)
However,(C)
Similarly,(D)
16. 
NO CHANGE(A)
reviewing(B)
changing(C)
detaching(D)
17. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined
portion?
1952
reaction tube since she adds(A)
reaction tube, however, she adds(B)
reaction tube, and adding(C)
reaction tube, she adds(D)
18. 
NO CHANGE(A)
absolutely the final solution(B)
the final solution(C)
the most final solution(D)
19. Which sentence could be added to the beginning of the paragraph to
most effectively establish the central idea?
The process of testing the DNA includes several steps and many
changes in temperature.
(A)
The object of testing the DNA is to recreate many strands of the
DNA in question.
(B)
Saunders uses a variety of machines in order to analyze the DNA.(C)
Saunders would be unable to identify the DNA without the
thermocycler.
(D)
1953
20. Where should sentence 1 be placed to make the paragraph feel
cohesive?
Where it is now(A)
After sentence 2(B)
After sentence 3(C)
After sentence 4(D)
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
eager(B)
impatient(C)
conditioned(D)
22. Which choice most effectively establishes a concluding sentence for the
paragraph and the passage?
1954
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
Will You Succeed with Your Start-Up?
According to research from Harvard Business School, the majority of
small businesses 23  fail in fact the success rate for a first-time company
owner is a meager 18 percent. With odds so dismal, why would anyone
become a business entrepreneur?
Veteran entrepreneurs achieve a higher 30 percent success rate, so the
most predictive factor for success appears to be the number of innovations
that a person has “pushed out.” More specifically, the people who succeed
at building a robust start-up are the ones who have previously tried.
Finally, many entrepreneurs 24  grab the idea for their business by solving
practical problems, and it’s more than luck; 320 new entrepreneurs out of
NO CHANGE(A)
It takes a good deal of work and expense to identify DNA in the
world of modern forensics.
(B)
She takes pride in the fact that her scientific expertise plays such a
key role in bringing criminals to justice.
(C)
She marvels at how far science has come in DNA analysis.(D)
1955
100,000 do succeed by starting a company at the right time in the right
industry. 25
Mitch Gomez is evidence of this data. He 26  did graduate from
college with a degree in accounting. “I quickly realized that I have too big
of a personality to be content practicing accounting,” he laughs. First, he
built a successful insurance claims 27  service, and next founded his own
independent insurance agency. “I continually employ my accounting skills,
but I’ve ascertained that I’m an even more effective salesperson.”
Similarly, Barbara Vital, the woman behind Vital Studio, explains, “I
love spending as much time with my family as possible.” Vital saw an
opportunity to 28  launch a monogramming business when her two young
sons started school, so she founded a company that offers monogrammed
backpacks and water bottles for kids, as well as 29  totes, rain boots; and
baseball caps for college students. What is the secret to Vital’s success?
“I’m always learning how to incorporate social media and add
functionality to my product website to keep customers happy,” she says.
Finally, Chris Roth is an entrepreneur who can step out of his comfort
zone. Always seeking a new 30  challenge his company designed and
manufactured technology to keep the nozzles of water misting systems
clean. Roth has also established a corporate travel agency and a truck
customization company, most recently claiming he has become an innovator
1956
who beat the odds by “striving to serve customers better than my
competition.” 31
Gomez, Vital, and Roth 32  agrees that although being an entrepreneur
can be a formidable challenge, exceptionally skillful entrepreneurs have
important strategies for success, including stretching 33  his personal
boundaries and recovering from failures. “And nothing beats being your
own boss,” adds Gomez.
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
fail, in fact,(B)
fail; in fact,(C)
fail: in fact(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
derive(B)
achieve(C)
grasp(D)
1957
25. Which sentence could be added to the beginning of the paragraph to
most effectively establish the central idea?
Many people desire the freedom of being their own boss, but to be
successful, an entrepreneur must also be productive, persistent, and
creative.
(A)
The Small Business Administration defines a small business as one
with fewer than 500 employees and less than $7 million in sales
annually.
(B)
Many small businesses fail because company founders are not
realistic about the amount of time it takes for a company to become
profitable.
(C)
Running a small business can take up a lot more time than punching a
clock for someone else and might not be enjoyable for everyone.
(D)
26. 
NO CHANGE(A)
has graduated(B)
graduated(C)
would have graduated(D)
27. 
1958
NO CHANGE(A)
service. And next(B)
service and next(C)
service; and next(D)
28. 
NO CHANGE(A)
present(B)
propel(C)
impact(D)
29. 
NO CHANGE(A)
totes; rain boots; and(B)
totes, rain boots, and,(C)
totes, rain boots, and(D)
30. 
1959
NO CHANGE(A)
challenge: his company(B)
challenge; his company(C)
challenge, his company(D)
31. Which sentence could be added to this paragraph to provide support for
the central idea?
Large companies often employ corporate travel agencies to arrange
travel for their employees and clients.
(A)
Savvy entrepreneurs know which risks are worth taking and which
risks can tank their business before their doors open.
(B)
Now Roth’s small business installs water misters on restaurant
patios and even sets up misting stations at outdoor music festivals.
(C)
Many new small businesses fail because company founders fail to
do market research and identify the needs of their community.
(D)
32. 
NO CHANGE(A)
agree(B)
should agree(C)
had agreed(D)
1960
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Edgard Varèse’s Influence
Today’s music, from rock to jazz, has many 34  influences. And
perhaps none is as unique as the ideas from French composer Edgard
Varèse. Called “the father of electronic music,” he approached
compositions from a different theoretical perspective than classical
composers such as Bartók and Debussy. He called his 35  works
“organized sound”; they did not 36  endear melodies but waged assaults
of percussion, piano, and human voices. He thought of sounds as having
intelligence and treated music spatially, as “sound objects floating in
space.”
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
their(B)
our(C)
her(D)
1961
His unique vision can be credited to his education in science. Born in
1883 in France, Varèse was raised by a great-uncle and grandfather in the
Burgundy region. He was interested in classical music and composed his
first opera as a teenager. While the family lived 37  in Italy he studied
engineering in Turin, where he learned math and science and was inspired
by the work of the artist Leonardo da Vinci.
In 1903, he returned to France to study music at the Paris Conservatory.
There, he composed the radical percussion performance piece Ionisation,
which featured cymbals, snares, bass drum, xylophone, and sirens wailing.
Later compositions were scored for the theremin, a new electronic
instrument controlled by 38  the player’s hands waving over its antennae,
which sense their position. No composer had ever scored any music for the
theremin before.
In his thirties, Varèse moved to New York City, where he played piano
in a café and conducted other composers’ works until his own
compositions gained success. His piece Amériques was performed in
Philadelphia in 1926. Varèse went on to travel to the western United States,
where he recorded, lectured, and collaborated with other musicians. By the
1950s, he was using tape recordings in 39  contention with symphonic
performance. His piece Déserts was aired on a radio program amid
selections by Mozart and Tchaikovsky but was received by listeners with
hostility. 40
1962
Varèse’s ideas were more forward-thinking than could be realized. One
of his most ambitious scores, called Espace, was a choral symphony with
multilingual lyrics, which was to be sung simultaneously by choirs in Paris,
Moscow, Peking, and New York. He wanted the timing to be orchestrated
by radio, but radio technology did not support worldwide transmission. If
only Varèse 41  had had the Internet!
Although many of 42  their written compositions were lost in a fire in
1918, many modern musicians and composers have been influenced by
Varèse, including Frank Zappa, John Luther Adams, and John Cage, who
wrote that Varèse is “more relevant to present musical necessity than even
the Viennese masters.” 43  His impact is undeniable. 44
Composer Number of Surviving Works
Edgard Varèse 14
Benjamin Britten 84
Charles Ives 106
Igor Stravinsky 129
Arnold Schoenberg 290
Dmitri Shostakovich 320
1963
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
influences, and perhaps none is as(B)
influences, but perhaps none is as(C)
influences. Or perhaps none is as(D)
35. 
NO CHANGE(A)
works “organized sound”: They(B)
works “organized sound”, they(C)
works—“organized sound”— they(D)
36. 
NO CHANGE(A)
amplify(B)
deprive(C)
employ(D)
37. 
1964
NO CHANGE(A)
in Italy, he studied engineering in Turin, where he(B)
in Italy he studied engineering in Turin where he(C)
in Italy, he studied engineering in Turin; where he(D)
38. 
NO CHANGE(A)
the players’ hands(B)
the players hands(C)
the player’s hands’(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
conjunction(B)
appropriation(C)
supplication(D)
40. Which fact, if added to this paragraph, would best support the author’s
claims?
1965
The critical response to his 1926 performance in Philadelphia(A)
The selections by Mozart and Tchaikovsky that were played on the
radio
(B)
Which specific states he traveled to in the western United States(C)
The cities in which the radio program was aired(D)
41. 
NO CHANGE(A)
would have had(B)
would have(C)
have had(D)
42. 
NO CHANGE(A)
its(B)
our(C)
his(D)
43. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the
graphic?
1966
Despite being less famous than Stravinsky or Shostakovich,(A)
Despite there being fewer surviving works than his contemporaries,(B)
Even though he wrote pieces using a wider range of instruments than
other composers,
(C)
Even though far fewer of his works are now performed compared
with those of his contemporaries,
(D)
44. Which sentence should be added to the end of the paragraph to
summarize its central idea?
Varèse’s love of science and mathematics is shown in his later
compositions, but less so in his early works.
(A)
In contrast with his newfound popularity, Varèse’s early works have
long been ignored due to increasing critical hostility.
(B)
Varèse and his innovative compositions became an inspiration for
artists seeking to challenge traditional musical beliefs.
(C)
Though Varèse’s contemporary critics failed to call him a “Viennese
master,” this distinction is changing.
(D)
1967
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1968
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1969
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1. In the equation above, what is the value of n?
1970
(A)
(B)
There is no value of n that satisfies the equation.(C)
There are infinitely many values of n that satisfy the equation.(D)
2. 
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1971
3. The figure above shows the graph of f(x). For which value(s) of x does
f(x) equal 0?
–3 and 3(A)
–1 and 1(B)
–1, 1, and 2(C)
2 only(D)
1972
4. A start-up business is typically one that offers a “new” type of service
or produces a “new” product. Start-ups are designed to search for a
sustainable business model. The function shown in the graph represents
new business start-up rates in the United States from 1977 to 2013 as
reported by the U.S. Census Bureau. If t represents the year, then which
of the following statements correctly describes the function?
The function is increasing overall.(A)
The function is decreasing overall.(B)
The function is increasing for all t such that 1977 < t < 2013.(C)
The function is decreasing for all t such that 1977 < t < 2013.(D)
1973
5. Which of the following systems of inequalities has no solution?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6. At what value(s) of x do the graphs of y = −2x + 1 and y = 2x  + 5x + 4
intersect?
2
1974
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7. If line P shown in the graph is reflected over the x-axis and shifted up 3
units, what is the new y-intercept?
1975
(0, –4)(A)
(0, –2)(B)
(0, 2)(C)
(0, 4)(D)
8. Which of the following are roots of the equation 3x  – 6x – 5 = 0?2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9. If  , where both m > 0 and n > 0, which of the following
gives n in terms of m?
1976
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. 
If (x, y) represents the solution to the system of equations shown above,
what is the value of y?
10(A)
19(B)
29(C)
31(D)
11. If  , which of the following is not a possible value of d?
1977
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12. The value of cos 40° is the same as which of the following?
sin 50°(A)
sin(–40°)(B)
cos(–50°)(C)
cos 140°(D)
1978
13. A business’s “break-even point” is the point at which revenue (sales)
equals expenses. When a company breaks even, no profit is being made,
but the company is not losing any money either. Suppose a manufacturer
buys materials for producing a particular item at a cost of $4.85 per unit
and has fixed monthly expenses of $11,625 related to this item. The
manufacturer sells this particular item to several retailers for $9.50 per
unit. How many units must the manufacturer sell per month to reach the
break-even point for this item?
810(A)
1,225(B)
2,100(C)
2,500(D)
14. If  what is the value of 6x − 5y?
32(A)
80(B)
96(C)
160(D)
1979
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
15. If f(g(2)) = −1 and f(x) = x + 1, then which of the following could define
g(x)?
g(x) = x – 6(A)
g(x) = x – 4(B)
g(x) = x – 2(C)
g(x) = x – 1(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
5.
1980
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  .)
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
1981
16. k(10x – 5) = 2(3 + x) – 7
1982
If the equation above has infinitely many solutions and k is a constant,
what is the value of k?
17. A right triangle has leg lengths of 18 and 24 and a hypotenuse of 15n.
What is the value of n?
18. 
If the expression above is combined into a single power of x with a
positive exponent, what is that exponent?
19. If the product of  is written as a complex
number in the form a  + bi , what is the value of a? (Note: )
1983
20. If the equation of the parabola shown in the graph is written in standard
quadratic form, y = ax  + bx + c, and a = −1, then what is the value of b?2
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
1984
1985
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
1986
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.
1. 
1987
What is the y-coordinate of the solution to the system of equations
shown above?
–7(A)
–3(B)
0(C)
7(D)
2. The scatterplot above shows data collected from 10 major league
baseball players comparing the average weekly time each one spent in
batting practice and the number of home runs he hit in a single season.
The line of best fit for the data is also shown. What does the slope of the
line represent in this context?
1988
The estimated time spent in batting practice by a player who hits 0
home runs
(A)
The estimated number of single-season home runs hit by a player who
spends 0 hours in batting practice
(B)
The estimated increase in time that a player spends in batting practice
for each home run that he hits in a single season
(C)
The estimated increase in the number of single-season home runs hit
by a player for each hour he spends in batting practice
(D)
3. Where will the line shown in the graph above intersect the x-axis?
1989
–5.5(A)
–5(B)
–4.5(C)
–4(D)
4. The function f(x) is defined as f(x) = −3g(x), where g(x) = x + 2. What
is the value of f(5)?
–21(A)
–1(B)
4(C)
7(D)
5. Sara is grocery shopping. She needs laundry detergent, which is on sale
for 30% off its regular price of $8.00. She also needs dog food, which
she can buy at three cans for $4.00. Which of the following represents
the total cost, before tax, if Sara buys x bottles of laundry detergent and
12 cans of dog food?
1990
C = 2.4x + 48(A)
C = 5.6x + 16(B)
C = 5.6x + 48(C)
C = 8.4x + 16(D)
6. The graph shows the average cost of back surgery followed by a
hospital stay in the United States. The hospital charges for the surgery
itself plus all the costs associated with recovery care for each night the
patient remains in the hospital. Based on the graph, what is the average
cost per night spent in the hospital?
1991
$2,600(A)
$4,000(B)
$6,600(C)
$8,000(D)
7. The figure above represents a click-through rate curve, which shows the
relationship between a search result position in a list of Internet search
results and the number of people who clicked on advertisements on that
result’s page. Which of the following regression types would be the best
model for this data?
1992
A linear function(A)
A quadratic function(B)
A polynomial function(C)
An exponential function(D)
8. Kudzu is a vine-like plant that grows indigenously in Asia. It was
brought over to the United States in the early 20th century to help combat
soil erosion. As can often happen when foreign species are introduced
into a non-native habitat, kudzu growth exploded and it became
invasive. In one area of Virginia, kudzu covered approximately 3,200
acres of a farmer’s cropland, so he tried a new herbicide. After two
weeks of use, 2,800 acres of the farmer’s cropland were free of the
kudzu. Based on these results, and assuming the same general
conditions, how many of the 30,000 acres of kudzu-infested cropland in
that region would still be covered if all the farmers in the entire region
had used the herbicide?
3,750(A)
4,000(B)
26,000(C)
26,250(D)
1993
x –2 –1 0 1 2 3
g(x) 5 3 1 –1 –3 –5
h(x) –3 –2 –1 0 1 2
9. Several values for the functions g(x) and h(x) are shown in the table.
What is the value of g(h(3))?
–5(A)
–3(B)
–1(C)
2(D)
10. Mae-Ling made 15 shots during a basketball game. Some were 3-
pointers and others were worth 2 points each. If s shots were 3-pointers,
which expression represents her total score?
1994
3s(A)
s + 30(B)
3s + 2(C)
5s + 30(D)
11. Crude oil is sold by the barrel, which refers to both the physical
container and a unit of measure, abbreviated as bbl. One barrel holds 42
gallons and, consequently, 1 bbl = 42 gal. An oil company is filling an
order for 2,500 barrels. The machine the company uses to fill the barrels
pumps at a rate of 37.5 gallons per minute. If the oil company has 8
machines working simultaneously, how long will it take to fill all the
barrels in the order?
5 hours and 50 minutes(A)
12 hours and 45 minutes(B)
28 hours and 30 minutes(C)
46 hours and 40 minutes(D)
1995
Jan Feb Mar April
Company A 54 146 238 330
Company B 15 30 60 120
12. Company A and Company B are selling two similar toys. The sales
figures for each toy are recorded in the table above. The marketing
department at Company A predicts that its monthly sales for this
particular toy will continue to be higher than Company B’s through the
end of the year. Based on the data in the table, and assuming that each
company sustains the pattern of growth the data suggests, which
company will sell more of this toy in December of that year and how
much more?
Company A; 182(A)
Company A; 978(B)
Company B; 29,654(C)
Company B; 60,282(D)
1996
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
A student is drawing the human skeleton to scale for a school assignment.
The assignment permits the student to omit all bones under a certain size
because they would be too small to draw. The longest bone in the human
body is the femur, or thighbone, with an average length of 19.9 inches. The
tenth longest bone is the sternum, or breastbone, with an average length of
6.7 inches.
13. Which symbol correctly completes the inequality whose solution is
shown above?
<(A)
>(B)
≤(C)
≥(D)
1997
14. If the scale factor of the drawing is one-eighth, about how long in inches
should the student draw the femur?
2(A)
2.5(B)
2.8(C)
3(D)
15. The student draws the femur, but then realizes she drew it too long, at
3.5 inches. She doesn’t want to erase and start over, so she decides she
will adjust the scale factor to match her current drawing instead. Based
on the new scale factor, about how long in inches should she draw the
sternum?
0.8(A)
1(B)
1.2(C)
1.5(D)
16. If a line that passes through the ordered pairs (4 – c, 2c) and (–c, –8)
has a slope of  , what is the value of c?
1998
From Distance to LHR
DCA 3,718
MIA 4,470
–5(A)
–3(B)
–2(C)
2(D)
17. Two airplanes departed from different airports at 5:30 AM, both
traveling nonstop to London Heathrow Airport (LHR). The distances the
planes traveled are recorded in the table. The Washington, D.C. (DCA)
flight flew through moderate cloud cover and as a result only averaged
338 mph. The flight from Miami (MIA) had good weather conditions for
the first two-thirds of the trip and averaged 596 mph, but then
encountered some turbulence and only averaged 447 mph for the last
part of the trip. Which plane arrived first and how long was it at the
London airport before the other plane arrived?
1999
MIA; 2 hours, 40 minutes(A)
MIA; 3 hours, 30 minutes(B)
DCA; 1 hour, 20 minutes(C)
DCA; 3 hours, 40 minutes(D)
18. Which of the following quadratic equations has no solution?
0 = −3(x + 1)(x – 8)(A)
0 = 3(x + 1)(x – 8)(B)
0 = −3(x + 1)  + 8(C) 2
0 = 3(x + 1)  + 8(D) 2
2000
19. A student looked at the graph above and determined based on the data
that spending more money per student causes the gross domestic product
(GDP) to increase. Which of the following statements is true?
2001
The student is correct; the data shows that increased spending on
students causes an increase in the GDP.
(A)
The student is incorrect; the data shows that having a higher GDP
causes an increase in the amount of money a country spends on
students.
(B)
The student is incorrect; there is no correlation and, therefore, no
causation between GDP and expenditures on students.
(C)
The student is incorrect; the two variables are correlated, but changes
in one do not necessarily cause changes in the other.
(D)
20. In chemistry, the combined gas law formula  gives the
relationship between the volumes, temperatures, and pressures for two
fixed amounts of gas. Which of the following gives p  in terms of the
other variables?
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2002
21. An object’s weight is dependent upon the gravitational force being
exerted upon the object. This is why objects in space are weightless. If
1 pound on Earth is equal to 0.377 pounds on Mars and 2.364 pounds on
Jupiter, how many more pounds does an object weighing 1.5 tons on
Earth weigh on Jupiter than on Mars?
1,131(A)
4,092(B)
5,961(C)
7,092(D)
2003
22. When a drug company wants to introduce a new drug, it must subject the
drug to rigorous testing. The final stage of this testing is human clinical
trials, in which progressively larger groups of volunteers are given the
drug and carefully monitored. One aspect of this monitoring is keeping
track of the frequency and severity of side effects. The figure above
shows the results for the side effect of headaches for a certain drug.
According to the trial guidelines, all moderate and severe headaches are
considered to be adverse reactions. Which of the following best
describes the data?
2004
The data is symmetric with over 50% of participants having adverse
reactions.
(A)
The data is skewed to the right with over 50% of participants having
adverse reactions.
(B)
The data is skewed to the right with over 75% of participants failing
to have adverse reactions.
(C)
The data is skewed to the right with approximately 50% of
participants having no reaction at all.
(D)
23. In the legal field, “reciprocity” means that an attorney can take and pass
a bar exam in one state, and be allowed to practice law in a different
state that permits such reciprocity. Each state bar association decides
with which other states it will allow reciprocity. For example,
Pennsylvania allows reciprocity with the District of Columbia. It costs
$25 less than 3 times as much to take the bar in Pennsylvania than in
D.C. If both bar exams together cost $775, how much less expensive is
it to take the bar exam in D.C. than in Pennsylvania?
$200(A)
$275(B)
$375(C)
$575(D)
2005
24. A grain producer is filling a cylindrical silo 20 feet wide and 60 feet
tall with wheat. Based on past experience, the producer has established
a protocol for leaving the top 5% of the silo empty to allow for air
circulation. Assuming the producer follows standard protocol, what is
the maximum amount of wheat that should be put in the silo?
5,144π ft(A) 3
5,700π ft(B) 3
20,577π ft(C) 3
22,800π ft(D) 3
25. Mr. Juno took his driver’s education class to the Department of Motor
Vehicles to take their driver’s license test. The number of questions
missed by each student in the class is recorded in the bar graph above.
Which of the following statements is true?
2006
More than half of the students missed 5 or more questions.(A)
The mean number of questions missed was between 4 and 5.(B)
More students missed 3 questions than any other number of questions.(C)
Thirty-six students from Mr. Juno’s class took the driver’s license test
that day.
(D)
26. If the graph of the equation y = ax  + bx + c passes through the points (0,
2), (–6, –7), and (8, –14), what is the value of a + b + c?
2
–19(A)
–2(B)
1.75(C)
2.25(D)
2007
27. A bakery sells three sizes of muffins—mini, regular, and jumbo. The
baker plans daily muffin counts based on the size of his pans and how
they fit in the oven, which results in the following ratios: mini to regular
equals 5 to 2, and regular to jumbo equals 5 to 4. When the bakery
caters events, it usually offers only the regular size, but it recently
decided to offer a mix of mini and jumbo instead of regular. If the baker
wants to keep the sizes in the same ratio as his daily counts, what ratio
of mini to jumbo should he use?
1:1(A)
4:2(B)
5:2(C)
25:8(D)
28. 
If the system of linear equations shown above has no solution, and k is a
constant, what is the value of k?
2008
(A)
(B)
(C)
3(D)
29. What is the value of  ?
9(A) 5
9(B) 15
9(C) 30
9(D) 150
30. If a right cone is three times as wide at its base as it is tall, and the
volume of the cone is 384π cubic inches, what is the diameter in inches
of the base of the cone?
2009
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
8(A)
12(B)
16(C)
24(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  .)
5.
2010
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
2011
31. If 0.004 ≤ m ≤ 0.4 and 1.6 ≤ n ≤ 16, what is the maximum value of  ?
32. The graph above shows a quadratic function f(x) and a cubic function
g(x). Based on the graph, what is the value of (f – g)(3), assuming all
integer values?
2012
33. Nine data points were used to generate the scatterplot shown above.
Assuming all whole number values for the data points, what is the
maximum value in the range of the data?
Years at Company Female Male
y < 1 38 30
1 ≤ y ≤ 3 15 19
y > 3 54 48
2013
34. A company conducts a survey among its employees and categorizes the
results based on gender and longevity (the number of years the employee
has been working for the company). The Director of Human Resources
wants to conduct a small follow-up focus group meeting with a few
employees to discuss the overall survey results. If the HR Director
randomly chooses four employees that participated in the initial survey,
what is the probability that all of them will have been with the company
for longer than 3 years? Enter your answer as a fraction.
35. Most racetracks are in the shape of an ellipse (an elongated circle
similar to an oval), but Langhorne Speedway in Pennsylvania was
originally a circular track. If a racecar is traveling around this track,
starting at point C and traveling 1,500 feet to point R, and the radius of
the track is 840 feet, what is the measure to the nearest degree of minor
angle CAR?
2014
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
The Great Depression began in 1929 and lasted until 1939. It was a period
of extreme poverty, marked by low prices and high unemployment. The
main catalytic event to the Great Depression was the Wall Street Crash
(stock market crash). The Dow, which measures the health of the stock
market, started Black Thursday (October 24, 1929) at approximately 306
points.
36. If Ax  + By  = C  is the standard form of the line that passes through the
points (–4, 1) and (3, –2), where A is an integer greater than 1, what is
the value of B?
37. The stock market had been in steady decline since its record high the
month before. If the market had declined by 19.5% between its record
high and opening on Black Thursday, what was the approximate value of
the Dow at its record high? Round your answer to the nearest whole
point.
2015
38. By the end of business on Black Thursday, the Dow had dropped by 2%.
Over the course of Friday and the half-day Saturday session, there was
no significant change. Unfortunately, the market lost 13% on Black
Monday, followed by another 12% on Black Tuesday. What was the
total percent decrease from opening on Black Thursday to closing on
Black Tuesday? Round your answer to the nearest whole percent and
ignore the percent sign when entering your answer.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2016
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
2017
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how Robert F.
Kennedy uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from Robert F. Kennedy’s address to the National Union of
South African Students’ Day of Affirmation, 6 June 1966.
We stand here in the name of freedom.
2018
At the heart of that Western freedom and democracy is the belief that the
individual man, the child of God, is the touchstone of value, and all
society, groups, the state, exist for his benefit. Therefore the enlargement
of liberty for individual human beings must be the supreme goal and the
abiding practice of any Western society.
The first element of this individual liberty is the freedom of speech.
The right to express and communicate ideas, to set oneself apart from
the dumb beasts of field and forest; to recall governments to their duties
and obligations; above all, the right to affirm one’s membership and
allegiance to the body politic—to society—to the men with whom we
share our land, our heritage and our children’s future.
Hand in hand with freedom of speech goes the power to be heard—to
share the decisions of government which shape men’s lives. Everything
that makes life worthwhile—family, work, education, a place to rear
one’s children and a place to rest one’s head—all this rests on decisions
of government; all can be swept away by a government which does not
heed the demands of its people. Therefore, the essential humanity of men
can be protected and preserved only where government must answer—
not just to those of a particular religion, or a particular race; but to all
its people.
2019
These are the sacred rights of Western society. These are the essential
differences between us and Nazi Germany, as they were between Athens
and Persia. . . .
For two centuries, my own country has struggled to overcome the self-
imposed handicap of prejudice and discrimination based on nationality,
social class or race—discrimination profoundly repugnant to the theory
and command of our Constitution. Even as my father grew up in Boston,
signs told him that “No Irish need apply.”
Two generations later President Kennedy became the first Catholic to
head the nation; but how many men of ability had, before 1961, been
denied the opportunity to contribute to the nation’s progress because
they were Catholic, or of Irish extraction.
In the last five years, the winds of change have blown as fiercely in the
United States as anywhere in the world. But they will not—they cannot
—abate.
For there are millions of African Americans untrained for the simplest
jobs, and thousands every day denied their full equal rights under the
law; and the violence of the disinherited, the insulated, the injured,
looms over the streets of Harlem and Watts and South Chicago.
2020
But an African American trains as an astronaut, one of mankind’s first
explorers into outer space; another is the chief barrister of the United
States Government, and dozens sit on the benches of court; and another,
Dr. Martin Luther King, is the second man of African descent to win the
Nobel Peace Prize for his nonviolent efforts for social justice between
the races.
We must recognize the full human equality of all our people before God,
before the law, and in the councils of government. We must do this not
because it is economically advantageous, although it is; not because the
laws of God and man command it, although they do command it; not
because people in other lands wish it so. We must do it for the single
and fundamental reason that it is the right thing to do.
And this must be our commitment outside our borders as well as within.
It is your job, the task of the young people of this world, to strip the last
remnants of that ancient, cruel belief from the civilization of man.
Each nation has different obstacles and different goals, shadowed by the
vagaries of history and experience. Yet as I talk to young people around
the world I am impressed not by the diversity but by the closeness of
their goals, their desires and concerns and hopes for the future. There is
discrimination in New York, apartheid in South Africa and serfdom in
2021
the mountains of Peru. People stagnate in the streets of India;
intellectuals go to jail in Russia; thousands are slaughtered in Indonesia;
wealth is lavished on armaments everywhere. These are differing evils.
But they are common works of man.
And therefore they call upon common qualities of conscience and of
indignation, a shared determination to wipe away the unnecessary
sufferings of our fellow human beings at home and particularly around
the world.
Write an essay in which you explain how Robert F. Kennedy
builds an argument to persuade his audience that the expansion
of liberty for all must be the guiding principle of any Western
society. In your essay, analyze how Kennedy uses one or more of
the features listed in the box that precedes the passage (or
features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and
persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant aspects of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with
Kennedy’s claims, but rather explain how Kennedy builds an
argument to persuade his audience.
2022
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2023
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. B
2024
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. D
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. B
2025
41. C
42. D
43. C
44. D
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. D
51. B
52. D
2026
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. D
2027
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. A
2028
41. A
42. D
43. B
44. C
2029
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
2030
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. 1/5 or .2
17. 2
18. 3
19. A
20. 6
2031
2032
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. D
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. B
2033
17. A
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. 1/4 or .25
32. 6
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. 380
38. 25
2034
2035
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
Great Expectations
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Examine the description of breakfast in the first
paragraph before choosing the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: In lines 9-10, Pip uses “crumb” and “little
butter” to describe what he ate, and he also says that “a quantity of
warm water” had been added to his milk. Therefore, it’s clear that Pip’s
breakfast with Mr. Pumblechook is (B), “small and of poor quality.”
2036
2. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that might be synonyms of
“wretched” but don’t make sense in the context of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: When Pip describes Mr. Pumblechook’s
company to be “wretched,” he means “distressing,” or “causing misery.”
Choice (C) is the correct answer.
3. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Review the passage for details that reveal Mr.
Pumblechook’s attitude.
Getting to the Answer: By his actions, you can infer that Mr.
Pumblechook is indifferent to Pip’s discomfort. Choice (D) is the
correct answer.
2037
4. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Find each answer choice in the passage. Think about
your answer for the previous question, and determine which lines
provide the strongest support for that answer.
Getting to the Answer: In the first paragraph, Pip describes how Mr.
Pumblechook offers him a meager breakfast and quizzes him on
arithmetic during their meal rather than making conversation. Choice (B)
is the correct answer.
5. A
2038
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Study the answer choices. Eliminate any that go too
far in their interpretation of characters and events in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Though B seems to reflect what might be true
of Pip and Mr. Pumblechook’s relationship, and one might believe that C
and D are true, the correct answer is (A). This theme most clearly
reflects the message conveyed through Pip’s experiences in this passage.
6. D
2039
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Review the section of the passage that describes the
young lady’s appearance and actions. Select the answer choice that
describes her entire demeanor, not just part of it.
Getting to the Answer: In line 50, the young lady is described as
seeming “very proud.” When she tells Mr. Pumblechook that he may not
enter, she speaks “finally” (line 58) and in an “undiscussible way”
(lines 58-59). This indicates that she is being authoritative. The correct
answer is (D).
7. C
2040
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about details in the passage that relate to the
characters’ relationships. What do they reveal about how Pip probably
feels at the end of the passage?
Getting to the Answer: It is reasonable to infer that Pip is relieved
when he is no longer in Mr. Pumblechook’s company. Therefore, (C) is
the correct answer.
8. D
2041
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer in the passage and decide which
one provides the best support for the answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: At the end of the passage, Pip “was not free of
apprehension” (lines 64-65) that Mr. Pumblechook would return but then
tells the reader that no return took place. Choice (D) best supports the
idea that Pip is relieved to be away from Mr. Pumblechook.
9. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each answer choice for “condition.” The
correct answer will not change the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. The narrator
says that Mr. Pumblechook is “in a condition of ruffled dignity.” In this
context, “state” means the same as “condition.”
2042
“Letter from Birmingham Jail”
10. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think of what the parenthetical comment by Pip tells
you about his personality.
Getting to the Answer: In a sense, Pip is apologizing for what he is
about to say of Mr. Pumblechook. The parenthetical comment reveals
that Pip is usually more polite in his references to others. Choice (A) is
the correct answer.
11. A
2043
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices that deal with related issues
but do not address the main purpose of the letter.
Getting to the Answer: The passage as a whole addresses why King
came to Birmingham, and then builds on his explanation for being in
Birmingham to explore his cause. Choice (A) is correct.
12. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Choose the answer that relates directly to the
purpose you identified in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: King begins the letter by stating “I think I
should give the reason for my being in Birmingham,” which clearly
explains his purpose for writing the letter from the jail. Choice (A) is
correct.
2044
13. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the details in the passage and its
title, which relate to how King was treated when he arrived in
Birmingham indicate a positive or negative reception.
Getting to the Answer: The title of the passage, “Letter from
Birmingham Jail,” indicates that King was incarcerated after his arrival
in Birmingham. Furthermore, he is writing to an audience that
considered him an “[outsider] coming in” (line 3). It is reasonable to
infer from these details that King received criticism for his decision to
come to ​Birmingham; therefore, (B) is correct.
14. C
2045
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence and the surrounding
paragraph to best understand the meaning of the phrase within its greater
context.
Getting to the Answer: In the paragraph, King goes on to explain that
events in Birmingham must necessarily concern him. He states that an
injustice in one place threatens justice everywhere, and even writes,
“Whatever affects one directly affects all indirectly” (lines 22-23). This
suggests that events in Birmingham affect people throughout the nation.
Choice (C) is correct, as it explains that the “interrelatedness of all
communities and states” refers to the idea that events in one part of the
country affect the entire nation.
15. A
2046
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Predict King’s opinions before reviewing the answer
choices. The correct answer can be inferred directly from King’s views
as expressed in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: In this paragraph, King refers specifically to
injustice and how it affects people everywhere. From this, you can most
clearly infer that King considered circumstances in Birmingham to be
unfair and wrong. Choice (A) is correct.
16. B
2047
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Review the answer to the previous question. Read
the answer choices to identify the one whose rhetoric provides clear
support for the inference.
Getting to the Answer: Although the entire paragraph provides general
support and context for the inference, only (B) suggests that
circumstances in Birmingham were unfair and wrong.
17. B
2048
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Before viewing the answer choices, think about the
purpose of the word in the sentence, and form an alternate explanation
of the word. Then identify the answer choice that best reflects that
meaning and intent.
Getting to the Answer: King says that direct action in Birmingham
aims to “dramatize the issue that it can no longer be ignored.” This
suggests that the issue, or events, in Birmingham are of great
significance and demand attention that they have not received.
Therefore, (B) is correct.
18. C
2049
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the overall thrust of King’s argument in this
paragraph. Choose the answer that encapsulates this idea.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 4, King responds to charges that
activists should focus on negotiation, not direct action. He argues that
direct action is needed to spur negotiations. King reasons that nonviolent
protests create the tension between forces in society needed to bring
people to the table to discuss the relevant issues of prejudice and
racism. His claim in the paragraph is that direct action is needed to spur
negotiation, making choice (C) correct.
19. D
2050
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Identify an idea in paragraph 5 that provides clear
support to the claim made in the previous paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: In the previous paragraph, King claims that
nonviolent direct action is needed to prompt negotiations on civil rights.
In paragraph 5, he supports that argument by explaining that no gains
have been made in civil rights without such nonviolent action, as choice
(D) states.
20. D
2051
Paired Passages—Bretton Woods
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Read the complete paragraph to best understand the
context and purpose of the cited line. The correct answer will identify
what the phrase helps achieve in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: At the start of the paragraph, King argues that
oppressors do not willingly give more freedom to the people whom they
oppress. He goes on to explain the delay tactics that have kept African
Americans from winning equal rights, and concludes that oppressed
peoples in other nations are winning independence while ​African
Americans still cannot get a cup of coffee at a lunch counter. The phrase
helps King underscore the contrast between these two scenarios, so (D)
is the correct answer.
21. B
2052
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Remember that you are being asked to choose an
inference suggested by Passage 1, not a statement of fact.
Getting to the Answer: The passage notes that the U.S. dollar became
a global currency that nations around the world accept for trade, leaving
the United States in a stronger position to influence international
markets. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
22. C
2053
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct choice should support your answer to the
previous question. Consider which choice best shows a clear
relationship with your answer to the item above.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) explicitly states the United States
became the “primary power” behind the institutions established at
Bretton Woods.
23. D
2054
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Predict an answer based on the context of the
passage. The correct answer should not alter the meaning of the sentence
in the passage. Then choose the option that best fits your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the IMF gives loans to
member countries to ensure their continued stability. Choice (D) is
correct because it most closely reflects the IMF’s goals of proactively
promoting global economic growth and stability.
24. B
2055
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Locate information in the passage that accurately
summarizes the purposes of both institutions. Then ask yourself how
these purposes differ.
Getting to the Answer: Both institutions encourage economic growth.
However, Passage 1 notes that the IMF maintains payment and receipts
between nations. The World Bank, on the other hand, focuses on
“economic and social progress” (line 33) in individual countries.
Choice (B) is the correct answer.
25. D
2056
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that are not suggested
in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. The paragraph states
that President Nixon’s decision broke with the Bretton Woods
framework. It can be reasonably inferred that the decision differed from
the consensus of other nations, given the crisis that followed.
26. B
2057
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The answer choice should support your answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph states that President Nixon’s
decision “marked the end” of the Bretton Woods framework, which best
supports the inference that the United States did not have the support of
other nations. The correct answer is (B).
27. A
2058
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence in which the word appears and
decide which meaning makes the most sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is referring to a new global
currency that might take the place of the U.S. dollar as the major, or key,
currency. Therefore, (A) is the correct definition of “anchor” in this
context.
28. A
2059
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Study the yuan’s percent share of use in daily trading
relative to other currencies in the graphic over time. What does this
suggest about global views of the yuan?
Getting to the Answer: Passage 2 explicitly states that the yuan is
“becoming a major world reserve currency” (line 93). This is supported
by the data in the chart, which shows the yuan’s percent share of use in
daily trading climbing from 0.5% in 2007 to 2.2% in 2013. Choice (A)
is correct.
29. B
2060
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Determine what purpose the final paragraph of
Passage 2 serves in relation to the rest of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Passage 2 is mostly about the changes to the
world’s financial system since the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference. The
last paragraph of Passage 2 discusses a prediction about that system
with which the author appears to agree. This is an opinion rather than a
fact; therefore, (B) is correct.
30. C
2061
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Identify the overall purpose of each passage. Then
consider which answer choice accurately describes these purposes.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. Passage 1
focuses on the effects of Bretton Woods, while Passage 2 focuses on the
reasons why the international economy may transition to a new global
currency.
31. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the correct answer will be a
statement that is evident in both passages.
Getting to the Answer: The role of the IMF is mentioned prominently
in both passages. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
2062
Treatment for Paralysis Passage
32. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the correct answer will be
supported by all of the information in the text rather than just a few
details.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea of the passage is concerned
with one experimental treatment that doctors are exploring to help
paralyzed patients regain mobility. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
33. D
2063
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Review the cited lines to determine how the
information they present affects the reader’s perception of the
information that follows in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Just after describing how the treatment of
paralytics consists of retraining, the author informs the reader that a cure
may be in sight. The description of retraining helps the reader
understand that finding a cure is a significant leap forward. Choice (D)
is correct.
34. B
2064
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the main points the author makes throughout
the passage. The correct answer will be directly related to these points,
even if it is not directly stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer. It can be
inferred that the author feels that increased mobility will have a positive
impact on patients suffering from all levels of paralysis.
35. D
2065
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each answer choice in the passage. Decide
which one provides the best support for the answer to the previous
question.
Getting to the Answer: In the last line of the passage, the author says
that paralyzed patients “can have both their mobility and their hope
restored” (lines 69-70). This answer, (D), offers the strongest support
for the answer to the previous question.
36. D
2066
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will not only be a synonym for
“restricted” but will also make sense in the context of the sentence in the
passage. Eliminate answers, such as A, that are synonyms for
“restricted” but do not make sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: Here, the author is explaining that patients in
wheelchairs must learn to prevent complications from restricted
movement. In this context, “restricted” most nearly means “limited,”
answer choice (D).
37. A
2067
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Locate line 47 in the passage, and then read the
paragraph that comes before it. This will help you identify why the
author chose “tailor-made” to describe the patient’s treatment.
Getting to the Answer: The patient received his own cells during the
treatment, meaning that the treatment was tailored to his own body.
Choice (A) fits this situation and is therefore the correct answer.
38. C
2068
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Remember that when a question is asking you to infer
something, the answer is not stated explicitly in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 2, the author explains that the
patient who received the experimental treatment had not seen an
increase in mobility despite “countless hours” (line 22) of physical
therapy. Therefore, it is logical to infer that the patient would not have
regained mobility without this experimental treatment. Choice (C) is the
correct answer.
39. B
2069
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Think about how you selected the correct answer for
the previous question. Use that information to help you choose the
correct answer to this question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 2, the author explains that the
patient selected for the experimental treatment had not regained mobility
despite intensive physical therapy. This provides the strongest support
for the answer to the previous question, so (B) is correct.
40. B
2070
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Substitute each of the answer choices for “refined.”
Select the one that makes the most sense in context and does not change
the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “refined” most nearly means
“improved.” Choice (B) is the correct answer.
41. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Skim the passage and look for details about how
doctors came to use the treatment described.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 3, the author explains that the
doctors used a technique that was developed during years of research on
rats. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
2071
Mercury in Fish Passage
42. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Compare and contrast each answer choice with the
procedure described in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: As in the procedure described in the passage,
skin transplants for burn victims involve taking tissue containing healthy
cells from one area of the body and using it to repair damage done to
another area. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
43. C
2072
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will be directly supported by the
evidence in the passage. Avoid answers like A and B that go beyond
what can be logically inferred about the author.
Getting to the Answer: The author explains how mercury gets into the
fish that humans eat and goes on to say that it is possible to eat fish that
contain mercury without getting mercury poisoning. Choice (C) is the
correct answer because it is directly supported by the evidence in the
passage.
44. D
2073
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will provide direct support for
the answer to the previous question. Avoid answers like B that include
relevant details but do not provide direct support.
Getting to the Answer: In the last paragraph, the author says that
nutritionists recommend eating low-mercury fish instead of eliminating
fish altogether, adding that an awareness of the issues with mercury can
help us make healthy eating choices. This statement supports the answer
to the previous question, so (D) is the correct answer.
45. A
2074
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Review the details provided in the passage about
how to determine a safe level of mercury consumption.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 5, the author explains that humans
should consume less than 0.1 microgram of mercury for every kilogram
of their own weight. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
46. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answer choices that are synonyms for
“concentration” but do not make sense in context.
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, the author is describing the
amount of mercury in the air from power plants. “Concentration” most
nearly means “density” in this context, so (C) is the correct answer.
2075
47. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that are not directly
supported by information in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage strongly suggests that it is
impossible to completely avoid exposure to mercury. Therefore, (A) is
the correct answer.
48. B
2076
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Locate each of the answer choices in the passage.
The correct answer should provide support for the answer to the
previous question.
Getting to the Answer: In paragraph 1, the author explains that
mercury can be found in many places. This supports the conclusion that
it is impossible to avoid mercury completely. Choice (B) is the correct
answer.
49. C
2077
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about how the process paragraph 3 describes
relates to the rest of the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Paragraph 3 describes the process by which
larger organisms absorb mercury by eating smaller organisms. This
information is necessary to understanding why larger fish have the
highest mercury levels. Choice (C) is correct.
50. D
2078
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider one of the central ideas of the passage. The
correct answer would help provide additional support for this idea.
Getting to the Answer: One central idea in the passage is that people
can eat fish if they know what mercury levels are safe for human
consumption. The author states that scientists have determined safe
mercury levels by studying at what point symptoms of mercury
poisoning occur. However, the author only provides one example weight
of how many micrograms of mercury a person could eat. Therefore, (D)
is the correct answer.
51. B
2079
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence and replace “particulars” with
each answer choice. Though the answer choices are similar in meaning
to a certain degree, one of them makes the most sense when substituted
for “particulars.”
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “particulars” most nearly means
“specifics”; therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
52. D
2080
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Remember that the correct answer will be supported
by information in both the passage and the graphic. Refer to the passage
to draw conclusions about the information in the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that it is safe to eat fish that
contain mercury as long as certain guidelines are followed regarding
daily consumption. The graphic shows that Alaskan ​pollock has the
lowest concentration of mercury of the fish listed. Therefore, (D) is the
correct answer; a person can safely eat more Alaskan pollock than
black-striped bass in one day.
2081
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
The UN: Promoting World Peace
1. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Examine the passage to determine whether the
current punctuation is incorrect. Then consider which set of punctuation
marks correctly emphasizes the selected part of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The dashes provide emphasis for the idea that
the UN is a peacekeeping organization; the dashes help set off this part
of the sentence from the remaining content. The correct answer is (C).
2082
2. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Review the main points made so far. The correct
answer should touch on or summarize previous ideas in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. This concluding
sentence effectively summarizes the ideas that compose the paragraph’s
main claim.
3. A
2083
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Read the previous paragraph and identify the word
or phrase that is the best transition between the two paragraphs.
Getting to the Answer: The previous paragraph describes the UN
today, and the paragraph beginning with the phrase in question explains
the origins of the UN in the 1940s. Choice (A) indicates the correct shift
in time period and provides the most effective transition between
paragraphs.
4. A
2084
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Pay close attention to the context of the previous
sentence to help you establish the correct verb tense for this particular
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer is (A). It uses the present
tense to logically follow the previous sentence that refers to the UN in
the present tense, as well.
5. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that may create a run-on
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The correct choice is (B), which provides a
clear separation between one complete sentence and the next.
2085
6. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Substitute each choice in the complete paragraph.
The correct answer will most appropriately fit within the context of the
sentence and the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer is (C). The UN
encourages, or promotes, environmental protection.
7. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: The correct choice should introduce a central idea
that is supported by subsequent sentences in the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer is (A). The expansion of
the UN’s budget, goals, and personnel number connects to specific
evidence in the rest of the paragraph.
2086
8. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Notice that the graphic gives specific information
about the increases and decreases in the UN peacekeeping force over a
period of time. Study the answer choices to find the one that best relates
to the paragraph while using accurate information from the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The graphic shows data through the year 2010
and does not indicate that personnel levels rose above 100,000. Choice
(C) is the correct answer.
9. A
2087
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for unnecessarily wordy choices like B.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer is (A) because it
effectively communicates an idea without additional words that distract
from the content.
10. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Look at the context of the sentence in which the word
appears as well as the paragraph itself to choose the answer that works
best.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C), “noteworthy,” is synonymous with
“worth mentioning,” which clearly fits within the context of the
paragraph and the author’s intent to highlight the accomplishments of the
UN.
2088
DNA Analysis in a Day
11. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph. Identify the sentence that
is least relevant to the paragraph’s topic and purpose.
Getting to the Answer: The purpose of this paragraph is to sum up the
central ideas of the passage. Choice (B) introduces a detail that, while
important, does not summarize the central ideas of the passage and
therefore detracts from the paragraph’s focus.
12. B
2089
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and notice that the verb in question
is in a clause with intervening prepositional phrases that come between
the subject and the verb. Check to see what the subject is and if the verb
agrees with the subject.
Getting to the Answer: The verb “match” is in a plural form, but the
subject is “DNA,” not one of the other nouns in the prepositional
phrases. “DNA” is singular. Choice (B) is the correct answer because it
is the singular form of the verb “to match.”
13. A
2090
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence to determine whether the two
clauses separated by the semicolon are independent or not. If they are
both independent, a semicolon is the appropriate punctuation. Be careful
of answer choices with inappropriate transition words.
Getting to the Answer: A semicolon is the correct way to separate two
independent but related clauses, so (A) is the correct answer.
14. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Study the words in a series and see where a comma
might need to be inserted or eliminated.
Getting to the Answer: Recall that on the PSAT and SAT, a series of
three or more items must have commas after each of the items in the list
except for the final item. Therefore, (B) is correct.
2091
15. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: When you see an underlined transition, identify how
the sentence relates to the previous one to determine what kind of
transition is appropriate.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct because the sentence to
which the transition belongs provides more detail about a general
statement that preceded it.
16. D
2092
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Imagine that the sentence has a blank where the word
in question is. Read the entire paragraph for context and predict what
word could complete the blank. Review the answer choices to find the
word closest in meaning to your prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph later states that Jane Saunders’s
goal is to separate the two strands of DNA. Only answer choice (D) has
the correct connotation and fits within the context of the sentence.
17. C
2093
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: It is important to combine sentences in order to vary
sentence structures. But the correct choice should not only be the most
effective way to combine the two sentences; it must also be in parallel
construction with the first sentence. Watch out for choices that may have
incorrect transition words as well.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. It joins the
sentences concisely and correctly because the verb “adding” is in
parallel construction with the earlier verbs “moving” and “transferring.”
The subject in both sentences is the same, “she,” so it can be dropped
when combining the two sentences.
18. C
2094
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that are wordy or redundant. It
is better to be as direct and simple as possible.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Additional words do not
add more meaning to this content. Choice (C) is the most concise and
effective way of stating the information in the passage.
19. A
2095
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the entire paragraph and then put each answer
choice at the beginning. Choose the one that makes the most sense and is
further explained by subsequent details in the ​paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph discusses the process of
identifying DNA, which is lengthy and involves changing the
temperature of the DNA several times. Choice (A) is closest to this
summation of what is to follow and is the correct answer.
20. A
2096
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Consider the function of this sentence. At what point
in the paragraph should this function be employed?
Getting to the Answer: The sentence is setting the scene, so it should
be placed where it is now, at the beginning of the paragraph. To place it
later would make the meaning of the paragraph unclear. Choice (A) is
the correct answer.
21. B
2097
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Think about the connotations of each answer choice,
and be sure to pick the one that fits with the context of the sentence.
Substitute each answer choice for the word to see which word works
best.
Getting to the Answer: “Eager” best reflects how the detectives would
be feeling while waiting for important test results. They would be
anxiously anticipating this important information and would want it as
quickly as possible. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
22. C
2098
Will You Succeed with Your Start-Up?
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Decide which sentence sounds like the most
appropriate way to conclude the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The rhetorical question currently in the
passage (choice A) introduces an opinion that the passage never reveals;
there is no sign that Jane Saunders would feel this way. Likewise, there
is no indication in the passage of how expensive modern DNA analysis
is (choice B), nor that Saunders marvels about how far science has
come in DNA analysis (choice D). Choice (C) is the correct answer; it
presents a fairly natural way for Saunders to feel given her
accomplishments for the day.
23. C
2099
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Difficulty: Medium
Strategic Advice: Check to see if there are two independent clauses
within this sentence. Two independent clauses without punctuation
indicate a run-on sentence.
Getting to the Answer: As written, this is a run-on sentence. Choice
(C) is the correct answer because it separates the two complete but
related thoughts with a semicolon.
24. B
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Difficulty: Hard
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers such as D that mean nearly the
same thing as “grab” but do not clarify the meaning of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: In this context, “derive” best clarifies the
meaning of the sentence, which explains how entrepreneurs get ideas for
their businesses. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
2100
25. A
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Difficulty: Medium
Strategic Advice: Eliminate answers that might contain details related
to the central idea but do not properly express the central idea.
Getting to the Answer: This paragraph is mostly about the
characteristics of people who are successful entrepreneurs. Choice (A)
is the correct answer because it introduces the main idea by
summarizing the traits people must have to achieve success as a
business owner.
26. C
2101
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Difficulty: Easy
Strategic Advice: Read the rest of the paragraph and pay attention to
the verb tense used.
Getting to the Answer: The verbs in the rest of this paragraph are in
past tense. “Graduated” is the past tense of the verb “to graduate”;
therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
27. C
2102
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Difficulty: Medium
Strategic Advice: Examine the structure of the whole sentence.
Consider whether the punctuation is correct or even necessary.
Getting to the Answer: The subject of this sentence is “he,” and it is
followed by a compound predicate containing the verbs “built” and
“founded.” When a compound predicate contains only two items, a
comma should not separate either verb from the subject. No punctuation
is necessary, so (C) is the correct answer.
28. A
2103
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Difficulty: Medium
Strategic Advice: Replace the underlined word with each answer
choice. Consider which word makes the most sense in context and
conveys the clearest meaning.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence discusses how Vital began her
own business. In this context, “launch” conveys the most precise
meaning because it connotes the start of a major endeavor. Choice (A) is
the correct answer because no change is needed.
29. D
2104
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Difficulty: Easy
Strategic Advice: This sentence contains a list of items in a series.
Think about the rules of punctuation for items in a series.
Getting to the Answer: Items in a series should be separated by
commas, with a comma following each word except the last item in the
series. The word “and” is not an item in the series and, therefore, should
not be followed by a comma. Therefore, (D) is the correct answer.
30. D
2105
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Difficulty: Easy
Strategic Advice: Identify the main elements of this sentence, such as
the subject, predicate, and any restrictive or nonrestrictive clauses.
Remember that a nonrestrictive clause should be set off with a comma.
Getting to the Answer: The clause “always seeking a new challenge”
is nonrestrictive and should be set off from the rest of the sentence with
a comma. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
31. C
2106
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Difficulty: Hard
Strategic Advice: Identify the central idea of the paragraph. Read each
answer choice and consider which sentence could be added to the
paragraph to provide support for the central idea you identified.
Getting to the Answer: This paragraph is mostly about Chris Roth, an
entrepreneur who now has several companies. (C) is the correct answer
because it provides specific details about one of the companies Roth
owns.
32. B
2107
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Difficulty: Easy
Strategic Advice: Read the entire sentence. Identify the subject and
determine whether it is plural or singular. Determine the correct verb
tense for the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The subject of this sentence is plural (Gomez,
Vital, and Roth), so the verb must be plural, as well. (B) is the correct
answer because “agree” is the plural present tense of the verb “to
agree.”
33. B
2108
Edgard Varèse’s Influence
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Difficulty: Easy
Strategic Advice: Read the entire sentence and identify the antecedent
for the underlined pronoun. The correct answer will be the pronoun that
is in agreement with the antecedent.
Getting to the Answer: In this sentence, the antecedent is “Gomez,
Vital, and Roth,” which requires a third-person plural pronoun.
Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
34. C
2109
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the two sentences connected by the underlined
portion, and decide which answer choice creates a grammatically
correct and logical sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Using the coordinating
conjunction “but” with a comma to combine the sentences shows that the
second portion, which mentions Varèse as being unique, stands in
contrast to the first portion, which mentions many influential artists. The
other options, “and” and “or,” do not show this necessary contrast.
35. A
2110
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Reread the entire sentence to assess how the
punctuation in the answer choices affects how each portion of the
sentence relates to one another.
Getting to the Answer: The correct answer is (A). The semicolon
correctly links the two independent clauses that have a direct
relationship with one another.
36. D
2111
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues, and think about
the author’s intention. Then determine which answer provides the most
appropriate word choice.
Getting to the Answer: “Employ” is the only word that matches the
meaning of the sentence, which states that Varèse did not use traditional
melodies. Thus, choice (D) is correct.
37. B
2112
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Reread the sentence to determine how each portion
relates to the others. Then examine how the punctuation in the answer
choices affects these relationships.
Getting to the Answer: The portion of the sentence discussing the
family’s move to Italy is an introductory element and needs a comma to
offset it from the rest of the sentence. The portion discussing what
Varèse learned in Turin is a parenthetical element and also requires a
comma. Therefore, choice (B) is correct.
38. A
2113
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Review the sentence for context clues and to assess
the subject’s ownership of the objects in the sentence. Then determine
which form of the possessive noun correctly reflects this ownership.
Getting to the Answer: The hands in the sentence belong to a single
player using a single theremin; therefore, the correct answer will use the
singular possessive noun “player’s.” Choice (A) is correct.
39. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence for context clues. Decide on the
answer choice that makes the sentence’s meaning precise and clear.
Getting to the Answer: “Conjunction” is the only word that relates to
two things occurring at the same time to create a single outcome, which
is the intended meaning of the sentence. Choice (B) is correct.
2114
40. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Assess the central idea of the introductory sentence
in the paragraph, and determine which additional fact noted in the
answer choices would have the greatest benefit to the reader.
Getting to the Answer: The introductory sentence states that Varèse
worked in New York until he secured his first success. Describing the
critical reaction to the next event mentioned would help strengthen the
idea that the Philadelphia performance was a successful event in
Varèse’s career. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
41. A
2115
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Consider what kind of situation the author is
presenting here, and decide which tense of the verb “has” creates a
grammatically correct sentence that reflects this meaning. Keep in mind
the time of the events in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence imagines a situation in which
Varèse had been able to use the Internet, an unrealistic action. The past
unreal conditional tense of a verb is used to talk about what might have
been had things been different, often discussing imaginary situations
much like this one. Thus, the double “had had” is correct; it describes
past-tense actions that might have occurred in the past but didn’t. Choice
(A) is correct.
42. D
2116
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Read the entire sentence to figure out who is the
owner of the burned compositions. Then select the proper personal
pronoun for this antecedent.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct singular possessive
pronoun because the burned compositions belonged to Varèse, one
person, and not a group of artists.
43. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Study the information in the graphic to determine
which answer choice most accurately finishes the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct because it accurately
reflects information included in the graphic.
2117
44. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: After reading the final paragraph, examine each
answer choice to determine which best summarizes the paragraph’s
overall message.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. It is the one sentence
that sets up the idea that Varèse’s challenging work has been an
inspiration to many later artists, an idea supported by the rest of the
paragraph.
2118
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. A
2119
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You could start by cross-multiplying to get rid of the
denominators, but simplifying the numerators first will make the
calculations easier. Don’t forget to distribute the negative to both terms
in the parentheses on the right-hand side of the equation.
Getting to the Answer:
2120
2. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t be tempted—you can’t simply cancel one term
when a polynomial is divided by a monomial. You can, however, split
the expression into three terms, each with a denominator of 9x , and
simplify. You could also use polynomial long division to answer the
question. Use whichever method gets you to the answer more quickly on
Test Day.
Getting to the Answer:
2
3. B
2121
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: When using function notation, f(x) is simply another
way of saying y, so this question is asking you to find the value(s) of x
for which y  = 0, or in other words, where the graph crosses the x-axis.
Don’t be tempted by the flat parts of the graph—they have a slope of 0,
but the function itself does not equal 0 here (it equals –4).
Getting to the Answer: The graph crosses the x-axis at the points (–1,
0) and (1, 0), so the values of x for which f ( x ) = 0 are –1 and 1.
4. B
2122
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Your only choice for this question is to compare each
statement to the graph. Cross out false statements as you go. Pay
attention to keywords that tell you whether the statement is a general
statement or a precise statement.
Getting to the Answer: A function is decreasing when the slope is
negative; it is increasing when the slope is positive. You can see from
the graph that the trend is decreasing (going down from left to right), so
eliminate A and C. Now, take a closer look to see that there are some
time intervals over which the function increases (goes up), so you can’t
say that the function in decreasing for all t such that 1977 < t  < 2013.
You can only make a general statement about the nature of the function,
like the one in (B). The right-hand side of the graph is lower than the left
side, so the function is decreasing overall.
5. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
2123
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to use algebra to answer this
question, and you also don’t need to graph each system. Instead, think
about how the graphs would look. The only time a system of inequalities
has no solution is when it consists of two parallel lines shaded in
opposite directions.
Getting to the Answer: All the inequalities are written in slope-
intercept form, so look for parallel lines (two lines that have the same
slope but different y-intercepts). The slopes in A are different ( m  = 1
and m  = 2), so eliminate this choice. The same is true for B ( m  = 1 and
m  = –1) and D ( m  = –1 and m  = 1). This means (C) must be correct
( m  = 1 and m  = 1, b  = 1 and b  = –1). The graph of the system is
shown here:
Because the shading never overlaps, the system has no solution.
2124
6. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Although this question asks where the graphs
intersect, it is not necessary to actually graph them. Understanding the
connection between graphing the equations and the algebra behind the
graphs will save valuable time on Test Day.
Getting to the Answer: The point(s) at which the two graphs intersect
are the points where the two equations are equal to each other. So, set
the equations equal and use algebra to solve for x. Because the question
only asks for the x-values, you don’t need to substitute the results back
into the equations to solve for y.
Now that the equation is factored, use the Zero-Product Property to
solve for x:
2125
7. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You can approach this question conceptually or
concretely. When dealing with simple transformations, drawing a quick
sketch is most likely the safest approach.
Getting to the Answer: You are only concerned about the y-intercept,
so keep your focus there. When the graph is reflected over the x-axis, the
y-intercept will go from (0, –1) to (0, 1). Next, the line is shifted up 3
units, which adds 3 to the y-coordinates of all the points on the line,
making the new y-intercept (0, 4). A sketch is provided here:
2126
8. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: The roots of an equation are the same as its
solutions. Take a peek at the answer choices—they contain radicals,
which tells you that the equation can’t be factored. Instead, either
complete the square or solve the equation using the quadratic formula,
whichever you are most comfortable with.
2127
Getting to the Answer: The equation is already written in the form y  =
ax  + bx  + c  and the coefficients are fairly small, so using the
quadratic formula is probably the quickest method. Jot down the values
that you’ll need: a  = 3, b = –6, and c = –5. Then, substitute these values
into the quadratic formula and simplify:
This is not one of the answer choices, so simplify the radical. To do this,
look for a perfect square that divides into 96 and take its square root.
Then, if possible, cancel any factors that are common to the numerator
and the denominator.
2
2128
Be careful—you can’t simplify the answer any further because you
cannot divide the square root of 6 by 3.
9. A
2129
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When you write an equation in terms of a specific
variable, you are simply solving the equation for that variable. In this
question, you’ll need to relate fractional exponents to radicals and
understand how to use negative exponents. Be careful—you’re not just
rewriting the equation, you’re also solving it for n.
Getting to the Answer: Raising a quantity to the one-fourth power is
the same as taking its fourth root. Applying a negative exponent to a
quantity is the same as writing its reciprocal. Rewrite the equation using
these properties, and then solve for n using inverse operations. Note that
the inverse of taking a fourth root of a quantity is raising the quantity to
the fourth power.
2130
10. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When a system consists of two equations already
written in terms of y, the quickest way to solve the system is to set the
equations equal to each other and then use inverse operations.
Getting to the Answer: Don’t let the fraction intimidate you—you can
write the first equation as a fraction over 1 and use cross-multiplication.
Don’t let A fool you—the question is asking for the value of y, not the
value of x. To find y, substitute 10 for x in either equation and simplify:
2131
11. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The fractions in this question make it look more
complicated than it really is, so start by clearing them. To do this,
multiply everything by the least common denominator, 10.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t need to separate this compound
inequality into pieces. Just remember, whatever you do to one piece, you
must do to all three pieces.
Now, read the inequality symbols carefully. The value of d is between –
2 and  not including –2 because of the < symbol, so (A) is the correct
answer. Don’t let C fool you—you can’t have a 0 denominator in a
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rational expression, but in this expression, the variable is in the
numerator, so it can equal 0.
12. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Trigonometry
Strategic Advice: The measure of 40° does not appear on the unit
circle, which should give you a clue that there must be a property or
relationship on which you can rely to help you answer the question.
Getting to the Answer: Complementary angles have a special
relationship relative to trig values: The cosine of an acute angle is equal
to the sine of the angle’s complement and vice versa. Because only one
of the answers can be correct, look for the simplest relationship
(complementary angles): 50° is complementary to 40°, so cos 40° = sin
50°, which means (A) is correct.
13. D
2133
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Try not to get too bogged down in the context. Assign
a variable to the unknown, and then create an equation that represents
the scenario.
Getting to the Answer: Let n be the number of units the manufacturer
sells in a month. Sales must equal expenses for the manufacturer to
break even (sales = expenses). The sales are equal to the selling price
($9.50) times the number of units sold (n), so write 9.5n on one side of
the equal sign. The monthly expenses are the fixed expenses ($11,625)
plus the amount paid for the materials needed to produce one unit
($4.85) times the number of units (x), so write 11,625 + 4.85x on the
other side of the equal sign. Then, solve for x.
14. D
Difficulty: Hard
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Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: There is only one equation given, and it has two
variables. This means that you don’t have enough information to solve
for either variable. Instead, look for the relationship between the left
side of the equation and the other expression that you are trying to find.
Getting to the Answer: The expression you are trying to find (6 x  –
5 y ) has the x-term first and then the y-term, so start by reversing the
order of the terms on the left side of the given equation. Also, notice that
the x term in 6 x  – 5 y  is not negative, so multiply the equation by –1.
Finally, there are no fractions in the desired expression, so clear the
fractions by multiplying both sides of the equation by 10. This yields the
expression that you are looking for, so no further work is required—just
read the value on the right-hand side of the equation, which is 160.
2135
15. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding the language of functions will make
questions that seem complicated much more doable on Test Day. When
you know the output of a function (or in this question, a composition of
two functions), you can work backward to find the input.
Getting to the Answer: Because g(x) is the inside function for this
composition, its output becomes the input for f(x). Unfortunately, you
don’t have any information about g yet. You do know however that f of
some number, (g(2)), is –1, so set f(x) equal to –1 and solve for x:
You now know that f (–2) = –1. In the equation for the composition, g(2)
represents x, so you also know that g(2) must be –2. Your only option
now is to use brute force to determine which equation for g, when
evaluated at 2, results in –2.
Choice A: g (2) = 2 – 6 = –4 (not –2), so eliminate.
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Choice B: g (2) = 2 – 4 = –2
You don’t need to go any further; (B) is correct.
You could check your answer by working forward, starting with g(2):
16. 1/5 or .2
2137
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: There are two variables but only one equation, so
you can’t actually solve the equation for k. Instead, recall that an
equation has infinitely many solutions when the left side is identical to
the right side. When this happens, everything cancels out and you get 0 =
0, which is always true.
Getting to the Answer: Start by simplifying the right-hand side of the
equation. Don’t simplify the left side because k is already in a good
position.
Next, compare the left side of the equation to the right side. Rather than
distributing the k, notice that 2x is a fifth of 10x and –1 is a fifth of –5,
so if k were  (or 0.2), then both sides of the equation would equal 2 x
– 1, and it would therefore have infinitely many solutions. Thus, k is 
or .2.
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17. 2
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Take a second to think about this question before you
go right to the Pythagorean theorem. Remember that the PSAT often tests
your knowledge of “shortcut” information.
Getting to the Answer: You could use the Pythagorean theorem to
solve this, but it will save valuable time on Test Day if you recognize
that this question is testing your knowledge of Pythagorean triples. The
triangle is a right triangle with leg lengths of 18 and 24, which, when
divided by 6, are in the proportion 3:4. This means that the triangle is a
scaled up 3:4:5 right triangle with a scale factor of 6. To keep the same
proportion, the hypotenuse must be 5 × 6 = 30. For 15n to equal 30, n
must be 2.
18. 3
2139
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: You need to use rules of exponents to simplify the
expression. Before you can do that, you must rewrite the radicals as
fraction exponents. Use the phrase “power over root” to help you
convert the radicals:  and
Getting to the Answer: Write each factor in the expression in
exponential form. Then use rules of exponents to simplify the
expression. Add the exponents of the factors that are being multiplied
and subtract the exponent of the factor that is being divided:
The exponent of the simplified expression is 3.
19. A
2140
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Imaginary Numbers
Strategic Advice: Each of the factors in this product has two terms, so
they behave like binomials. This means you can use FOIL to find the
product. To avoid messy numbers, simplify the two radicals first using
the definition of i.
Getting to the Answer: Write each of the numbers under the radicals
as a product of –1 and the number, take the square roots, and then FOIL
the resulting expressions:
The question asks for the value of a (the real part of the expression), so
the correct answer is 27.
20. 6
2141
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: When you are given the graph of a parabola, try to
use what you know about intercepts, the vertex, and the axis of symmetry
to answer the question. Here, you could try to use points from the graph
to find its equation, but this is not necessary because the question only
asks for the value of b. As a shortcut, recall that you can find the vertex
of a parabola using the formula  (the quadratic formula without
the radical part).
Getting to the Answer: You are given that a = –1. Now look at the
graph—the vertex of the parabola is (3, 8), so substitute 3 for x, –1 for
a, and solve for b.
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As an alternate method, you could plug the value of a and the vertex
(from the graph) into vertex form of a quadratic equation and simplify:
The coefficient of x is b, so b  = 6.
2143
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. D
2144
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: A quick examination of the equations in the system
will tell you which strategy to use to solve it. Because 4x and –4x are
opposites of one another, the system is already perfectly set up to solve
by elimination (combining the two equations by adding them).
Getting to the Answer:
2. D
2145
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: You don’t need to know the slope of the line of best
fit to answer the question, so don’t waste valuable time trying to find it.
Instead, use the labels on the axes to determine the meaning of the slope.
Getting to the Answer: Graphically, slope is the ratio of the change in
the y-values (rise) to the change in the x-values (run). In a real-world
scenario, this is the same as the unit rate. In this context, the rise
describes the change in the number of home runs hit in a single season,
and the run describes the change in the number of hours a player spends
in batting practice. Thus, the unit rate, or slope, represents the estimated
increase (since the data trends upward) in the number of single-season
home runs hit by a player for each hour he spends in batting practice.
3. B
2146
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Finding an x-intercept is easy when you know the
equation of the line—it’s the value of x when y is 0. Notice that the
answer choices are very close together. This means you shouldn’t just
estimate visually. Take the time to do the math.
Getting to the Answer: Everything you need to write the equation is
shown on the graph—just pay careful attention to how the grid-lines are
labeled. The y-intercept is 10 and the line rises 2 units and runs 1 unit
from one point to the next, so the slope is  This means the
equation of the line, in slope-intercept form, is y = 2x + 10. Now, set the
equation equal to zero and solve for x:
The line will intersect the x-axis at –5.
4. A
2147
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding function notation will earn you
valuable points on Test Day. When you see an expression like f(x), it
means to substitute the given value for x in the function’s equation. When
there is more than one function involved, pay careful attention to which
function should be evaluated first.
Getting to the Answer: You are looking for the value of f(x) at x  = 5.
Because f(x) is defined in terms of g(x), evaluate g(5) first by
substituting 5 for x in the expression x  + 2.
5. B
2148
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Don’t peek at the answers. They may confuse you
because the numbers look different than the ones given in the question.
Instead, write your own equation in words first, and then translate from
English into math.
Getting to the Answer: Keep in mind that the laundry detergent is on
sale, but the dog food is not. The detergent is 30% off, which means
Sara only pays 100 – 30 = 70% of the price, or 0.7($8) = $5.60. The
dog food is three cans for $4 and she buys 12 cans, which means she
buys 4 sets of 3, so she pays 4 × $4 = $16 for the dog food. The total
cost equals the detergent price ($5.60) times how many she buys (x)
plus the total dog food price ($16). In math, this translates as C  = 5.6 x
+ 16. Note that there are variables in the answer choices, so you could
also use the Picking Numbers strategy to answer this question.
6. B
2149
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: In a real-world scenario, the slope of a line
represents a unit rate and the y-intercept represents a flat fee or a
starting amount.
Getting to the Answer: The cost per night in the hospital is the same as
the unit rate, which is represented by the slope of the line. Use the grid-
lines and the axis labels to count the rise and the run from the y-intercept
of the line (0, 26,000) to the next point that hits an intersection of two
grid-lines (2, 34,000). Pay careful attention to how the grid-lines are
marked (by 2s on the x-axis and by 2,000s on the y-axis). The line rises
8,000 units and runs 2 units, so the slope is  which means it costs
an average of $4,000 per night to stay in the hospital. Note that you
could also use the slope formula and the two points to find the slope:
7. D
2150
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: You aren’t given much information to go on except
the shape of the graph, so you’ll need to think about what the shape
means. Remember, linear functions increase at a constant rate,
exponential functions increase at either an increasing or decreasing rate,
gradually at first and then more quickly or vice versa, and quadratics
and polynomials reverse direction one or more times.
Getting to the Answer: The graph begins by decreasing extremely
quickly, but then it almost (but not quite) levels off. Therefore, it can’t
be linear and because it doesn’t change direction, it can’t be quadratic
or polynomial. This means an exponential function would be the best
model for the data.
8. A
2151
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: This is a science crossover question. Read the first
three sentences quickly—they are simply describing the context of the
question. The second half of the paragraph poses the question, so read
that more carefully.
Getting to the Answer: In the sample, 2,800 out of 3,200 acres were
free of kudzu after applying the herbicide. This is
 of the area. For the whole region, assuming
the same general conditions, 0.875(30,000) = 26,250 acres should be
free of the kudzu. Be careful—this is not the answer. The question asks
how much of the cropland would still be covered by kudzu, so subtract
to get 30,000 – 26,250 = 3,750 acres.
9. B
2152
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: The notation g(h(x)) indicates a composition of two
functions, which can be read “g of h of x.” It means that the output when
x is substituted in h(x) becomes the input for g(x).
Getting to the Answer: First, use the top and bottom rows of the table
to find that h(3) is 2. This is your new input. Now, use the top and
middle rows of the table to find g(2), which is –3.
10. B
2153
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this type of question is
determining how many results fit in each category. Here, you need to
know how many shots were 3-pointers and how many were 2-pointers.
Mae-Ling successfully made 15 shots total and s were 3-pointers, so the
rest, or 15 – s , must have been 2-pointers.
Getting to the Answer: Write the expression in words first: points per
3-pointers (3) times number of shots that were 3-pointers (s), plus
points per regular goal (2) times number of regular goals (15 – s). Now,
translate from English into math: 3 s  + 2(15 – s ). This is not one of the
answer choices, so simplify the expression by distributing the 2 and then
combining like terms: 3 s  + 2(15 – s ) = 3 s  + 30 – 2 s  = s  + 30.
11. A
2154
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Let the units in this question guide you to the answer.
You can do one conversion at a time, or all of them at once. Just be sure
to line up the units so they’ll cancel correctly.
Getting to the Answer: The company uses 8 machines, each of which
pumps at a rate of 37.5 gallons per minute, so the rate is actually 8 ×
37.5 = 300 gallons per minute. Find the total number of gallons needed,
and then use the rate to find the time.
The answers are given in hours and minutes, so change 350 minutes to
350 ÷ 60 = 5.833 hours = 5 hours and 50 minutes.
12. C
2155
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Functions
Strategic Advice: Look for a pattern for the sales of each company.
Then apply that pattern to see which one will sell more in the last month
of the year. Writing a function that represents each pattern will also help,
but you have to be careful that you evaluate the function at the correct
input value.
Getting to the Answer: Company A’s sales can be represented by a
linear function because each month the company sells 92 more of the toy
than the month before, which is a constant difference. The sales can be
represented by the function f ( t ) = 92 t  + 54, where t is the number of
months after January. December is 11 months (not 12) after January, so
during the last month of the year Company A should sell f (11) = 92(11)
+ 54 = 1,066 of the toy. Company B’s sales can be represented by an
exponential function because the sales are doubling each month, which
is a constant ratio (2 for doubling). The function is g ( t ) = 15(2) ,
where t is again the number of months after January. In December,
Company B should sell g (11) = 15(2)  = 30,720. This means that in
December, Company B should sell 30,720 – 1,066 = 29,654 more of the
toy than Company A.
t
11
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13. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Apply logic to this question first, and then algebra.
The dot at the beginning of the shaded portion is an open dot, so –2 is
not included in the solution set of the inequality. This means you can
eliminate C and D because those symbols would include the endpoint.
Don’t immediately choose B just because the arrow is pointing to the
right, which typically indicates greater than. When dealing with an
inequality, if you multiply or divide by a negative number, you must flip
the symbol, so the answer is not necessarily what you might think.
Getting to the Answer: Because you were able to eliminate two of the
choices, the quickest approach is to pick one of the remaining symbols,
plug it in, and see if it works. If it does, choose that answer. If it doesn’t,
then it must be the other symbol. Try (A):
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The resulting inequality, x  > –2, means all the values on the number line
greater than (or to the right of) –2, so the initial inequality symbol must
have been <. Choice (A) is correct.
14. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: Whenever a question involves scale factors, you can
set up a proportion and solve for the missing value.
Getting to the Answer:
15. C
2158
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: Don’t make this question harder than it actually is.
You don’t need to find the new scale factor. Instead, use the length that
the student drew the femur and the actual length to set up and solve a
new proportion.
Getting to the Answer:
16. B
2159
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Given two points (even when the coordinates are
variables), the slope of the line between the points can be found using
the formula 
Getting to the Answer: You are given a numerical value for the slope
and a pair of ordered pairs that have variables in them. To find the value
of c, plug the points into the slope formula, and then solve for c. Be
careful of all the negative signs.
2160
17. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: Questions that involve distance, rate, and time can
almost always be solved using the formula Distance = rate × time. Break
the question into short steps (first part of trip, second part of trip).
Getting to the Answer: Start with the plane from DCA. Use the speed,
or rate, of the plane, 338 mph, and its distance from London, 3,718
miles, to determine when it arrived. You don’t know the time, so call it
t.
It took the DCA flight 11 hours. Now determine how long it took the
plane from MIA. You’ll need to find the distance for each part of the trip
—the question only tells you the total distance. Then, use the formula to
find how long the plane flew at 596 mph and how long it flew at 447
mph.
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First part of trip: Second part of trip:
This means it took the MIA flight 5 hours + 3 hours, 20 minutes = 8
hours, 20 minutes. So, the plane from MIA arrived first. It arrived 11
hours – 8 hours, 20 minutes = 2 hours, 40 minutes before the plane from
DCA.
18. D
2162
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Making connections between equations and their
graphs will save valuable time on this question. The graph of every
quadratic equation is a parabola, which may or may not cross the x-axis,
depending on where its vertex is and which way it opens. Don’t forget
—if the equation is written in vertex form, y  = a ( x  – h )  + k , then the
vertex is (h, k) and the value of a tells you which way the parabola
opens.
Getting to the Answer: When an equation has no solution, its graph
does not cross the x-axis, so try to envision the graph of each of the
answer choices (or you could graph each one in your graphing
calculator, but this will probably take longer). When a quadratic
equation is written in factored form, the factors tell you the x-intercepts,
which means A and B (which are factored) must cross the x-axis, so
eliminate them. Now, imagine the graph of the equation in C: The vertex
is (–1, 8) and a is negative, so the parabola opens downward and
consequently must cross the x-axis. This means (D) must be correct. The
vertex is also (–1, 8), but a is positive, so the graph opens up and does
not cross the x-axis.
2
2163
19. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: One of the most important rules in data analysis is
that correlation does not prove causation.
Getting to the Answer: The two variables are certainly correlated—as
one goes up, the other goes up. A linear regression model would fit the
data fairly well, so you can eliminate C. The spending is graphed on the
x-axis, so it is the independent variable and therefore does not depend
on the GDP, graphed on the y-axis, so you can eliminate B as well. The
data does show that as spending on students increases, so does the GDP,
but this is simply correlation, not causation. Without additional data, no
statements can be made about whether spending more on students is the
reason for the increased GDP, so (D) is correct.
20. C
2164
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t spend too much time worrying about the
scientific explanation of the equation. Focus on the question at the very
end—it’s just asking you to solve the equation for p .
Getting to the Answer: Multiply both sides by T  to get rid of the
denominator on the right-hand side of the equation. Then divide by V  to
isolate p .
Stop here! You cannot cancel the V’s and T’s because the subscripts
indicate that they are not the same variable. In math, subscripts do not
behave the same way superscripts (exponents) do.
2
2
2
2
21. C
2165
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: The factor-label method (cancelling units) is a great
strategy for this question. You’re starting with tons, so work from that
unit, arranging conversions so that units cancel.
Getting to the Answer: To keep units straight, use an E for Earth, an M
for Mars, and a J for Jupiter.
The object weighs 1,131 pounds on Mars and 7,092 pounds on Jupiter,
so it weighs 7,092 – 1,131 = 5,961 more pounds on Jupiter.
22. C
2166
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Examine the shape of the data and familiarize
yourself with the title and the axis labels on the graph. Data is
symmetric if it is fairly evenly spread out, and it is skewed if it has a
long tail on either side.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that the data is skewed to the right
(which means it’s not symmetric), so you can immediately eliminate A.
Choices B, (C), and D all describe the data as skewed to the right, so
you’ll need to examine those statements more closely. For B, “adverse
reactions” include the last four bars, which represent 89 + 41 + 22 + 8 =
160 participants total, which is not even close to 50% of 900, so
eliminate B. Note that you don’t need to add all the bar heights to find
that there were 900 participants—the title of the graph tells you that.
Now look at C—“failed to have adverse reactions” means “None” or
“Mild” (the first three bars), which represent 900 – 160 = 740 of the
900 participants. 75% of 900 = 675, and 740 is more than 675, so (C) is
correct. For D, the “None” column contains 320 participants, which
does not equal approximately 50% of 900, so it too is incorrect.
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23. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Use the Kaplan Method for Translating English into
Math. Write a system of equations with p = the cost in dollars of the
Pennsylvania bar exam and d = the cost of the D.C. bar exam.
Getting to the Answer: The Pennsylvania bar exam (p) costs $25 less
(– 25) than 3 times as much (3d) as the D.C. bar exam, or p  = 3 d  – 25.
Together, both bar exams cost $775, so d  + p  = 775. The system is:
The top equation is already solved for p, so substitute 3d – 25 into the
second equation for p, and solve for d:
Be careful—that’s not the answer. The D.C. bar exam costs $200, which
means the Pennsylvania bar exam costs $775 – $200 = $575. This
2168
means the D.C. bar exam is $575 – $200 = $375 less expensive than the
Pennsylvania bar exam.
24. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Check the formula page at the beginning of the Math
section—the formula for finding the volume of a cylinder is V  = π r h .
Getting to the Answer: Leaving the top 5% of the silo empty is another
way of saying that the silo should only be filled to 95% of its total
height, so multiply the height (60 ft) by 0.95 to get 57 ft and then find the
volume. Don’t forget to divide the width of the silo (20 ft) by 2 to find
the radius:
2
2169
25. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / ​Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Always read the axis labels carefully when a
question involves a chart or graph. Frequency, which is plotted along
the vertical axis, tells you how many students missed the number of
questions indicated under each bar.
Getting to the Answer: Evaluate each statement as quickly as you can.
Choice A: Add the bar heights (frequencies) that represent students that
missed 5 or more questions: 7 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 15. Then, find the total
number of students represented, which is the number that missed less
than 5 questions plus the 15 you just found: 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 = 15, plus the
15 you already found, for a total of 30 students. The statement is not true
because 15 is exactly half (not more than half) of 30.
Choice (B): This calculation will take a bit of time so skip it for now.
Choice C: The tallest bar tells you which number of questions was
missed most often, which was 5 questions, not 3 questions, so this
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statement is not true.
Choice D: The number of students from Mr. Juno’s class who took the
test that day is the sum of the heights of the bars, which you already
know is 30, not 36.
This means (B) must be correct. Mark it and move on to the next
question. (Find the mean by multiplying each number of questions
missed by the corresponding frequency, adding all the products, and
dividing by the total number of students, which you already know is 30:
The mean is indeed between 4 and 5.)
26. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
2171
Strategic Advice: Writing quadratic equations can be tricky and time-
consuming. If you know the roots, you can use factors to write the
equation. If you don’t know the roots, you need to create a system of
equations to find the coefficients of the variable terms.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t know the roots of this equation, so
start with the point that has the nicest values (0, 2) and substitute them
into the equation, y  = ax  + bx  + c , to get 2 = a (0)  + b (0) + c , or 2
= c . Now your equation looks like y  = ax  + bx  + 2. Next, use the
other two points to create a system of two equations in two variables.
(−6, −7) → −7 = a(−6)  + b(−6) + 2 → −9 = 36a − 6b 
(8, −14) → −14 = a(8)  + b(8) + 2 → −16 = 64a + 8b
You now have a system of equations to solve. If you multiply the top
equation by 4 and the bottom equation by 3, and then add the equations,
the b terms will eliminate each other.
Now, find b by substituting a  = –0.25 into either of the original
equations. Using the top equation, you get:
2 2
2
2
2
2172
The value of a  + b  + c  is (–0.25) + 0 + 2 = 1.75.
27. D
2173
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Read the question, organizing important information
as you go. You need to find the ratio of mini muffins to jumbo muffins.
You’re given two ratios: mini to regular and regular to jumbo.
Getting to the Answer: Both of the given ratios contain regular muffin
size units, but the regular amounts (2 and 5) are not identical. To directly
compare them, find a common multiple (10). Multiply each ratio by the
factor that will make the number of regular muffins equal to 10.
Mini to regular: (5:2) × (5:5) = 25:10
Regular to jumbo: (5:4) × (2:2) = 10:8
Now that the number of regular muffins is the same in both ratios (10),
you can merge the two ratios to compare mini to jumbo directly:
25:10:8. So, the proper ratio of mini muffins to jumbo muffins is 25:8.
28. A
2174
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Graphically, a system of linear equations that has no
solution indicates two parallel lines, or in other words, two lines that
have the same slope. So, write each of the equations in slope-intercept
form ( y  = mx  + b ) and set their slopes (m) equal to each other to solve
for k. Before finding the slopes, multiply the top equation by 6 to make it
easier to manipulate.
Getting to the Answer:
The slope of the first line is  and the slope of the second line is 
Set them equal and solve for k.
2175
29. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: The numbers in some questions are simply too large
to use a calculator (you get an “overflow” error message). Instead,
you’ll have to rely on rules of exponents.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that all of the base numbers have 3 as a
factor, so rewrite everything in terms of 3. This will allow you to use
the rules of exponents. Because 27 is the cube of 3, you can rewrite 27
as a power of 3. Then you can use rules of exponents to simplify:
Now the numerator should read: 3  × 3 , which is equal to 3  =
3 . Repeat this process for the denominator:
9  = (3 )  = 3  = 3
90
90 270 90+270
360
30 2 30 2×30 60
2176
Finally, use rules of exponents one more time to simplify the new
expression:
All the answer choices are given as powers of 9, so rewrite your
answer as a power of 9:
3  = 3  = (3 )  = 9300 2×150 2 150 150
30. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Don’t forget to check the formulas provided for you
at the beginning of each math section. The volume of a right cone is
given by  Here, you only know the value of one of the
variables, V, so you’ll need to use the information in the question to
somehow write r and h in terms of just one variable.
2177
Getting to the Answer: If the cone is three times as wide at the base as
it is tall, then call the diameter 3x and the height of the cone one-third of
that, or x. The volume formula calls for the radius, which is half the
diameter, or  Substitute these values into the formula and solve for
x:
The question asks for the diameter of the base, which is 3 x  = 3(8) = 24.
31. 1/4 or .25
2178
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The question is asking about  so think about how
fractions work. Large numerators result in larger values (  for
example, is larger than  ), and smaller denominators result in larger
values (  for example, is greater than  ).
Getting to the Answer: The largest possible value of  is found by
choosing the largest possible value of m and the smallest possible value
for n: 
32. 6
2179
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Understanding the language of functions will come in
very handy on Test Day. Here, ( f  – g )(3) means f (3) – g (3). You don’t
know the equations of the functions, so you’ll need to read the values
from the graph.
Getting to the Answer: Graphically, f(3) means the y-value at x  = 3
on the graph of f, which is 2. Likewise, g(3) means the y-value at x  = 3
on the graph of g, which is –4. The difference, f  – g , is 2 – (–4) = 6.
33. A
2180
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: The range of a set of data points is the set of outputs,
which correspond to the y-​values of the data points on the graph.
Getting to the Answer: To find the maximum value in the range of the
data, look for the highest point on the graph, which is (250, 85). The y-
value is 85, so 85 is the maximum value in the range.
34. A
2181
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / ​Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The probability that the same event (the employee
has been there longer than 3 years) will occur 4 times can be found by
finding the probability that the event will occur once and then
multiplying it by itself 4 times.
Getting to the Answer: First, find the probability that if an employee is
chosen at random, it will be one who has been with the company for
longer than 3 years. The total number of employees who participated in
the study is 38 + 30 + 15 + 19 + 54 + 48 = 204. The total number of both
females and males who have been with the company longer (greater)
than 3 years is 54 + 48 = 102. Therefore, the probability of choosing
one employee who has been with the company longer than 3 years is:
 This means the probability that all 4 employees would have
been with the company longer than 3 years is 
35. A
2182
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: The distance around part of a circle is the same as
arc length, so use the relationship  to answer
the question.
Getting to the Answer: The unknown in the relationship is the central
angle, so call it A. Before you can fill in the rest of the equation, you
need to find the circumference of the circle: C  = 2π r  = 2π(840) =
1,680π. Now you’re ready to solve for A:
Be careful when you enter this expression into your calculator—you
need to put 1,680π in parentheses so that the calculator doesn’t divide
by 1,680 and then multiply by π. If entered correctly, the result is about
102 degrees.
2183
36. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: To write the equation of a line, you need two things:
the slope and the y-intercept. Start by finding these, substituting them
into slope-​intercept form of a line ( y  = mx  + b ), and then manipulate
the equation so that it is written in standard form.
Getting to the Answer: Use the given points, (–4, 1) and (3, –2), and
the slope formula to find m:
Next, find the y-intercept, b, using the slope and one of the points:
2184
Write the equation in slope-intercept form:
Now, rewrite the equation in the form Ax  + By  = C , making sure that A
is a positive integer (a whole number greater than 0):
The question asks for the value of B (the coefficient of y), so the correct
answer is 7.
37. 380
2185
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: You can use the formula Percent × whole = part to
solve this problem, but you will first need to think conceptually about
what the question is asking.
Getting to the Answer: The question is asking for the Dow value
before the 19.5% decrease to 306. This means that 306 represents 100 –
19.5 = 80.5% of what the stock market was at its record high. Fill these
amounts into the equation and solve for the original whole, the record
high Dow value.
Rounded to the nearest whole point, the record high was approximately
380 points.
38. 25
2186
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percents
Strategic Advice: Percent change is given by the ratio 
To find the total percent change, you’ll need to work your way through
each of the days, and then use the ratio. Jot down the Dow value at the
end of each day as you go. Do not round until you reach your final
answer.
Getting to the Answer: First, calculate the value of the Dow at closing
on Black Thursday: It opened at 306 and decreased by 2%, which means
the value at the end of the day was 100 − 2 = 98% of the starting amount,
or 306 × 0.98 = 299.88. Then, it decreased again on Monday by 13% to
close at 100 − 13 = 87% of the opening amount, or 299.88 × 0.87 =
260.8956. Finally, it decreased on Tuesday by another 12% to end at
100 − 12 = 88% of the starting amount, or 260.8956 × 0.88 = 229.588.
Now use the percent change formula to calculate the percent decrease
from opening on Black Thursday (306) to closing on Black Tuesday
(229.588):
2187
The Dow had a total percent decrease of approximately 25% between
opening on Black Thursday and closing on Black Tuesday.
2188
SAT PRACTICE TEST 7
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text.
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
2189
3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task.
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors.
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
2190
2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task.
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors.
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
2191
1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text.
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in certain errors that detract
from the quality of the writing.
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text.
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
2192
Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
In his speech to the National Union of South African Students in 1966,
Robert F. Kennedy makes the claim that the guiding principle of Western
societies must be the enhancement of liberty for all individuals. Through
appeals to Western values, references to historical evidence, and calls
to conscience, Kennedy constructs a powerful and effective argument.
Kennedy begins his speech by praising the core values of Western
society—freedom and democracy, and the rights associated with them.
In so doing, he both establishes common ground with his South African
audience, who viewed themselves as part of Western society, and also
highlights the ways in which the repressive government of South Africa
in 1966 failed to uphold these values. To Kennedy, the freedom of
speech is not merely the right to say whatever one chooses, rather, it
allows us to speak up to our governments when they are derelict in their
duties, and is a key part of what it means to be an active member of
society. Kennedy also insists that the right of individuals to be heard by
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in numerous errors that
undermine the quality of the writing.
2193
their government is essential to democracy, because it forces
government officials to answer to the people who elected them.
Frequently, Kennedy uses heightened language to describe these rights
and values, which deepens the impact of his message. The freedom of
speech separates us from the “dumb beasts of field and forest.” The
power to be heard allows people a voice in the decisions that “shape
men’s lives.” Most powerfully, Kennedy states that these rights are
“sacred.” This kind of elevated language imparts a weight to Kennedy’s
argument that ordinary language could not.
Kennedy also makes references to historical and current events to
bolster his claims. He asserts that the rights he describes are what
separate democratic societies from Nazi Germany and Persia, countries
known to be extremely repressive. This reference to brutal regimes
strengthens his claim that these rights should be the guiding principle of
any decent society. He also uses the United States as a model of a
society that has been striving for the expansion of liberty and, while
failing in some respects, is succeeding overall. Kennedy’s father, he
says, was barred from many jobs as a young man due to his Irish
background, yet several decades later, his son John F. Kennedy became
president, proving that conditions can change for the better. Robert
Kennedy acknowledges that the United States still has far to go, just like
South Africa, yet he cites examples of major progress, such as an
African American astronaut and an African American chief justice, as
2194
well as Martin Luther King, Jr., who won the Nobel Peace Prize.
Kennedy’s implication is that the ideals of liberty and justice are worth
upholding because they can make a society greater and more inclusive.
Another way Kennedy persuades his audience of the validity of his
argument is by making calls to conscience. He states that the most
important reason to grant freedom to all is because “it is the right thing
to do.” He reasons that feelings of compassion are common to all
people, as are feelings of outrage when other human beings suffer;
therefore, we should all join together in expanding human rights and
lessening the suffering of people everywhere. By calling upon his
audience’s basic sense of right and wrong, Kennedy gives them a
personal lens through which to examine his argument, thus making them
more likely to embrace its validity.
Robert F. Kennedy passionately believed in the necessity for all Western
societies to make the expansion of liberty their guiding principle. To
build and support his argument, Kennedy exalts Western values of
democracy and freedom, refers to historical examples in which the
promotion of liberty made for a better society, and finally calls upon
people’s conscience to help them see that the expansion of freedom for
all is the right thing to do.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient SCORE)
2195
Robert F. Kennedy’s central claim in his speech to the National Union of
South African Students is that the guiding principle of Western societies
should be the expansion of liberty for all individuals. Kennedy uses
several techniques to build his argument, including heightened language,
examples of countries that have been improved by the expansion of
liberty, and appeals to his audience’s sense of right and wrong.
Kennedy was not an ordinary man, nor was he an ordinary writer. His
speech contains soaring language that makes his audience feel like they
are listening to great literature. When he says that the freedom of speech
is what seperates us from “dumb beasts,” his vivid language makes that
freedom seem even more important. He makes frequent references to
God, even calling rights of Western society “sacred.” And instead of
merely saying that young people must stop racism and injustice, he says
that it’s there responsibility to “strip the last remnants of that ancient,
cruel belief from the civilization of man.” This type of language makes
the audience feel that they are being called to a higher purpose.
Kennedy also provides examples of ways in which countries that
promote liberty fare better than countries that don’t. When he contrasts
Western societies that value freedom with societies that don’t—like
Nazi Germany and Persia—he is suggesting that countries that deny
people their basic rights eventually fail (in 1966, Nazi Germany and
Persia no longer existed, but Western democracies still did). Kennedy
2196
then uses America as an example of a country that has been improved by
expanding liberties for individuals. He tells a personal anecdote about
the prejudice experienced by his Irish father, and acknowledges that the
struggle to overcome discrimination can take many years. However he
provides evidence that the struggle is worth it as shown by his brother’s
success in becoming president of the United States, and by the African
Americans who at that point had risen to the highest ranks of American
society—an astronaut, barristers, and a Nobel Prize winner, Martin
Luther King, Jr. These examples support Kennedy’s claim that enlarging
the liberties of individuals is a worthy goal for Western societies.
Finally, Kennedy appeals to his audience’s fundamental sense of right
and wrong. He says that expanding liberty is “the right thing to do” and
that God commands it. He lists multiple examples of evil in the world
—“discrimination in New York, apartheid in South Africa . . .”—and
tells his audience of students that they must answer the call to eliminate
the suffering of others everywhere in the world. He states that evil is
common, therefore it can only be cured by other qualities we all share in
common, such as our conscence and determination to make the world a
better place.
The argument Kennedy makes in this speech is strengthened by his use of
the features mentioned above: heightened language, evidence, and
appeals to his audience’s sense of what is right and what is wrong.
2197
2198
SAT Practice Test 8 Answer Sheet
You will see an answer sheet like the one below on Test Day. Review
the answer key following the test when finished.
When testing, start with number 1 for each section. If a section has fewer
questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
2199
2200
2201
2202
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Reading Test
65 Minutes — 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of
questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best
answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table or graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
“Metamorphosis”
2203
This passage is adapted from “Metamorphosis” by Franz Kafka, a
famous story that combines elements of fantasy and reality. This excerpt
begins with the protagonist realizing he has literally turned into a giant,
beetle-like insect.
One morning, when Gregor Samsa woke from
troubled dreams, he found himself transformed in
his bed into a horrible vermin. He lay on his armor-
like back, and if he lifted his head a little he could
see his brown belly, slightly domed and divided by(5)
arches into stiff sections. The bedding was hardly
able to cover it and seemed ready to slide off any
moment. His many legs, pitifully thin compared
with the size of the rest of him, waved about help-
lessly as he looked.(10)
“What’s happened to me?” he thought. It wasn’t
a dream. His room, a proper human room although
a little too small, lay peacefully between its four
familiar walls. A collection of textile samples lay
spread out on the table—Samsa was a travelling(15)
salesman—and above it there hung a picture that
he had recently cut out of an illustrated magazine
and housed in a nice, gilded frame. It showed a lady
fitted out with a fur hat and fur boa who sat upright,
raising a heavy fur muff that covered the whole of(20)
2204
her lower arm towards the viewer.
Gregor then turned to look out the window at the
dull weather. Drops of rain could be heard hitting
the pane, which made him feel quite sad. “How
about if I sleep a little bit longer and forget all this(25)
nonsense,” he thought, but that was something he
was unable to do because he was used to sleeping on
his right, and in his present state couldn’t get into
that position. However hard he threw himself onto
his right, he always rolled back to where he was. He(30)
must have tried it a hundred times, shut his eyes so
that he wouldn’t have to look at the floundering legs,
and only stopped when he began to feel a mild, dull
pain there that he had never felt before.
He thought, “What a strenuous career it is that(35)
I’ve chosen! Travelling day in and day out. Doing
business like this takes much more effort than
doing your own business at home, and on top of that
there’s the curse of travelling, worries about making
train connections, bad and irregular food, contact(40)
with different people all the time so that you can
never get to know anyone or become friendly with
them.” He felt a slight itch up on his belly; pushed
himself slowly up on his back towards the headboard
so that he could lift his head better; found where(45)
2205
the itch was, and saw that it was covered with lots of
little white spots which he didn’t know what to make
of; and when he tried to feel the place with one of his
legs he drew it quickly back because as soon as he
touched it he was overcome by a cold shudder.(50)
He slid back into his former position. “Getting up
early all the time,” he thought, “it makes you stupid.
You’ve got to get enough sleep. Other travelling
salesmen live a life of luxury. For instance, whenever
I go back to the guest house during the morning to(55)
copy out the contract, these gentlemen are always
still sitting there eating their breakfasts. I ought to
just try that with my boss; I’d get kicked out on the
spot. But who knows, maybe that would be the best
thing for me. If I didn’t have my parents to think(60)
about I’d have given in my notice a long time ago,
I’d have gone up to the boss and told him just what
I think, tell him everything I would, let him know
just what I feel. He’d fall right off his desk! And it’s a
funny sort of business to be sitting up there at your(65)
desk, talking down at your subordinates from up
there, especially when you have to go right up close
because the boss is hard of hearing. Well, there’s
still some hope; once I’ve got the money together to
pay off my parents’ debt to him—another five or six(70)
2206
years I suppose—that’s definitely what I’ll do. That’s
when I’ll make the big change. First of all though,
I’ve got to get up, my train leaves at five.”
1. According to the passage, Gregor initially believes his transformation
is a
curse.(A)
disease.(B)
nightmare.(C)
hoax.(D)
2. As used in line 12, “proper” most nearly means
called for by rules or conventions.(A)
showing politeness.(B)
naturally belonging or peculiar to.(C)
suitably appropriate.(D)
3. The passage most strongly suggests which of the following about
Gregor’s attitude toward his profession?
2207
He is resentful.(A)
He is diligent.(B)
He is depressed.(C)
He is eager to please.(D)
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 14-18 (“A collection … gilded frame”)(A)
Lines 22-24 (“Gregor then turned … quite sad”)(B)
Lines 53-59 (“Other … the spot”)(C)
Lines 59-64 (“But who knows … I feel”)(D)
5. What central idea does the excerpt communicate through Gregor’s
experiences?
Imagination is a dangerous thing.(A)
People are fearful of change.(B)
Dreams become our reality.(C)
Man is a slave to work.(D)
2208
6. The passage most strongly suggests that which of the following is true
of Gregor?
He feels a strong sense of duty toward his family.(A)
He is unable to cope with change.(B)
He excels in his profession.(C)
He is fearful about his transformation.(D)
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 11-14 (“What’s happened … familiar walls”)(A)
Lines 22-24 (“Gregor then turned … quite sad”)(B)
Lines 36-43 (“Doing business … with them”)(C)
Lines 68-71 (“Well, there’s still … what I’ll do”)(D)
8. As used in line 32, “floundering” most nearly means
thrashing.(A)
painful.(B)
pitiful.(C)
trembling.(D)
2209
Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage.
Hillary Rodham Clinton Speech
9. The author most likely includes a description of Gregor’s itch in lines
43-50 to
remind the reader that Gregor has turned into an insect.(A)
emphasize the disconnect between Gregor’s thoughts and his actual
situation.
(B)
give important details about what Gregor’s new body looks like.(C)
show that Gregor’s thoughts are focused on the changes to his body.(D)
10. The main rhetorical effect of the final sentence of the excerpt (“First of
all though, I’ve got to get up, my train leaves at five”) is to
provide a resolution to the conflict Gregor faces.(A)
foreshadow the conflict between Gregor and his boss.(B)
illustrate Gregor’s resilience and ability to move on.(C)
emphasize Gregor’s extreme sense of duty.(D)
2210
This passage is adapted from Hillary Rodham Clinton’s speech titled
“Women’s Rights Are Human Rights,” addressed to the U.N. Fourth
World Conference on Women in 1995.
If there is one message that echoes forth from
this conference, it is that human rights are women’s
rights…. And women’s rights are human rights.
Let us not forget that among those rights are the
right to speak freely and the right to be heard.(5)
Women must enjoy the right to participate fully in
the social and political lives of their countries if we
want freedom and democracy to thrive and endure.
It is indefensible that many women in nongov-
ernmental organizations who wished to participate(10)
in this conference have not been able to attend—or
have been prohibited from fully taking part.
Let me be clear. Freedom means the right of
people to assemble, organize, and debate openly. It
means respecting the views of those who may disagree(15)
with the views of their governments. It means not
taking citizens away from their loved ones and jail-
ing them, mistreating them, or denying them their
freedom or dignity because of the peaceful expres-
sion of their ideas and opinions.(20)
In my country, we recently celebrated the
2211
seventy-fifth anniversary of women’s suffrage. It
took one hundred and fifty years after the signing
of our Declaration of Independence for women to
win the right to vote. It took seventy-two years of(25)
organized struggle on the part of many courageous
women and men.
It was one of America’s most divisive philosophi-
cal wars. But it was also a bloodless war. Suffrage was
achieved without a shot fired.(30)
We have also been reminded, in V-J Day obser-
vances last weekend, of the good that comes when
men and women join together to combat the forces
of tyranny and build a better world.
We have seen peace prevail in most places for a(35)
half century. We have avoided another world war.
But we have not solved older, deeply-rooted prob-
lems that continue to diminish the potential of half
the world’s population.
Now it is time to act on behalf of women everywhere.(40)
If we take bold steps to better the lives of women,
we will be taking bold steps to better the lives of
children and families too. Families rely on mothers
and wives for emotional support and care; families
rely on women for labor in the home; and increas-(45)
ingly, families rely on women for income needed to
2212
raise healthy children and care for other relatives.
As long as discrimination and inequities remain
so commonplace around the world—as long as
girls and women are valued less, fed less, fed last,(50)
overworked, underpaid, not schooled and subjected
to violence in and out of their homes—the potential
of the human family to create a peaceful, prosperous
world will not be realized.
Let this conference be our—and the world’s—call(55)
to action.
And let us heed the call so that we can create a
world in which every woman is treated with respect
and dignity, every boy and girl is loved and cared for
equally, and every family has the hope of a strong(60)
and stable future.
11. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
To chastise those who have prevented women from attending the
conference
(A)
To argue that women continue to experience discrimination(B)
To explain that human rights are of more concern than women’s
rights
(C)
To encourage people to think of women’s rights as an issue important
to all
(D)
2213
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 4-5 (“Let us … be heard”)(A)
Lines 9-12 (“It is indefensible … taking part”)(B)
Lines 37-39 (“But we have … population”)(C)
Lines 43-47 (“Families … other relatives”)(D)
13. As used in line 28, “divisive” most nearly means
conflict-producing.(A)
carefully-watched.(B)
multi-purpose.(C)
time-consuming.(D)
14. Based on the speech, with which statement would Clinton most likely
agree?
2214
More men should be the primary caregivers of their children in
order to provide career opportunities for women.
(A)
Women do not need the support and cooperation of men as they work
toward equality.
(B)
Solutions for global problems would be found faster if women had
more access to power.
(C)
The American movement for women’s suffrage should have been
violent in order to achieve success more quickly.
(D)
15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 6-8 (“Women … endure”)(A)
Lines 29-30 (“Suffrage … shot fired”)(B)
Lines 43-47 (“Families … relatives”)(C)
Lines 48-54 (“As long … realized”)(D)
16. As used in line 26, “organized” most nearly means
2215
arranged.(A)
cooperative.(B)
hierarchical.(C)
patient.(D)
17. Which claim does Clinton make in her speech?
The conference itself is a model of nondiscrimination toward
women.
(A)
Democracy cannot prosper unless women can participate fully in it.(B)
Women’s rights are restricted globally by the demands on them as
parents.
(C)
Women are being forced to provide income for their families as a
result of sexism.
(D)
18. Clinton uses the example of V-J Day observations to support the
argument that
2216
campaigns succeed when they are nonviolent.(A)
historical wrongs against women must be corrected.(B)
many tragedies could have been avoided with more female
participation.
(C)
cooperation between men and women leads to positive
developments.
(D)
19. According to lines 35-39, problems that affect women
harm half of the world’s women.(A)
are worldwide and long-standing.(B)
could be eliminated in half a century.(C)
are isolated to a few less developed countries.(D)
20. The fifth paragraph can be described as
a distillation of the author’s main argument.(A)
an acknowledgment of a counterargument.(B)
a veiled criticism of a group.(C)
a defense against an accusation.(D)
2217
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passages and
supplementary material.
Paired Passages—Tea
Passage 1
Europe was a coffee-drinking continent before it
became a tea-drinking one. Tea was grown in China,
thousands of miles away. The opening of trade routes
with the Far East in the fifteenth and sixteenth cen-
turies gave Europeans their first taste of tea.(5)
However, it was an unpromising start for the bev-
erage, because shipments arrived stale, and European
tea drinkers miscalculated the steeping time and
measurements. This was a far cry from the Chinese
preparation techniques, known as a “tea ceremony,”(10)
which had strict steps and called for steeping in
iron pots at precise temperatures and pouring into
porcelain bowls.
China had a monopoly on the tea trade and kept
their tea cultivation techniques secret. Yet as world-(15)
wide demand grew, tea caught on in Europe. Some
proprietors touted tea as a cure for maladies. Several
2218
European tea companies formed, including the
English East India Company. In 1669, it imported
143.5 pounds of tea—very little compared to the(20)
32 million pounds that were imported by 1834.
Europeans looked for ways to circumvent China’s
monopoly, but their attempts to grow the tea plant
(Latin name Camellia sinensis) failed. Some plants
perished in transit from the East. But most often the(25)
growing climate wasn’t right, not even in the equato-
rial colonies that the British, Dutch, and French
controlled. In 1763, the French Academy of Sciences
gave up, declaring the tea plant unique to China
and unable to be grown anywhere else. Swedish and(30)
English botanists grew tea in botanical gardens, but
this was not enough to meet demand.
After trial and error with a plant variety dis-
covered in the Assam district of India, the British
managed to establish a source to meet the growing(35)
demands of British tea drinkers. In May 1838, the
first batch of India-grown tea shipped to London.
The harvest was a mere 350 pounds and arrived in
November. It sold for between 16 and 34 shillings
per pound. Perfecting production methods took(40)
many years, but ultimately, India became the world’s
largest tea-producing country. By the early 1900s,
2219
Passage 2
annual production of India tea exceeded 350 million
pounds. This voluminous source was a major factor
in tea becoming the staple of European households(45)
that it is today.
In Europe, there’s a long tradition of taking
afternoon tea. Tea time, typically four o’clock, means
not just enjoying a beverage, but taking time out to
gather and socialize. The occasion is not identical(50)
across Europe, though; just about every culture has
its own way of doing things.
In France, for example, black tea is served with
sugar, milk, or lemon and is almost always accom-
panied by a pastry. Rather than sweet pastries, the(55)
French prefer the savory kind, such as the gougère,
or puff pastry, infused with cheese.
Germans, by contrast, put a layer of slowly melt-
ing candy at the bottom of their teacup and top the
tea with cream. German tea culture is strongest in(60)
the eastern part of the country, and during the week
tea is served with cookies, while on the weekend or
for special events, cakes are served. The Germans
think of tea as a good cure for headaches and stress.
Russia also has a unique tea culture, rooted in(65)
2220
the formalism of its aristocratic classes. Loose leaf
black tea is served in a glass held by a podstakannik ,
an ornate holder with a handle typically made from
silver or chrome—though sometimes it may be gold-
plated. Brewed separately, the tea is then diluted(70)
with boiled water and served strong. The strength of
the tea is seen as a measure of the host’s hospitality.
Traditionally, tea is taken by the entire family and
served after a large meal with jams and pastries.
Great Britain has a rich tradition of its own. Prior(75)
to the introduction of tea into Britain, the English
had two main meals, breakfast and a second,
dinner-like meal called “tea,” which was held around
noon. However, during the middle of the eighteenth
century, dinner shifted to an evening meal at a late(80)
hour; it was then called “high tea.” That meant the
necessary introduction of an afternoon snack to tide
one over, and “low tea” or “tea time” was introduced
by British royalty. In present-day Britain, your
afternoon tea might be served with scones and jam,(85)
small sandwiches, and cookies (called “biscuits”),
depending on whether you’re in Ireland, England, or
Scotland.
Wherever they are and however they take it,
Europeans know the value of savoring an afternoon(90)
2221
Data from Euromonitor International and World Bank.
cup of tea.
21. It can be reasonably inferred, based on Passage 1, that
European nations tried to grow tea in their colonies.(A)
European tea growers never learned Chinese cultivation techniques.(B)
Europeans’ purpose in opening trade routes with the Far East was to
gain access to tea.
(C)
Europeans believed tea was ineffective as a treatment against
illness.
(D)
2222
22. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 6-9 (“However … measurements”)(A)
Lines 16-17 (“Some … maladies”)(B)
Lines 25-28 (“But … French controlled”)(C)
Lines 38-40 (“The harvest … per pound”)(D)
23. Based on the information in Passage 1, what would have been the most
likely result if the British had not been able to grow tea in India?
Tea would have decreased in price across Europe.(A)
The British would have learned to grow tea in Europe.(B)
Europeans would have saved their tea for special occasions.(C)
China would have produced more tea for the European market.(D)
24. As used in line 22, “circumvent” most nearly means
destroy.(A)
get around.(B)
ignore.(C)
compete with.(D)
2223
25. It can be inferred from Passage 1 and the graphic that
English botanical gardens helped make the United Kingdom one of
the highest tea-consuming countries in the world.
(A)
if the French Academy of Sciences hadn’t given up growing tea in
1763, France would be one of the highest tea-consuming countries in
the world.
(B)
Britain’s success at growing tea in India in the 1800s helped make
the United Kingdom one of the highest tea-consuming nations in the
world.
(C)
China’s production of tea would be higher if Britain hadn’t
discovered a way to grow tea in India in the 1800s.
(D)
26. It is reasonable to infer, based on Passage 2, that
serving tea is an important part of hosting guests in Russia.(A)
Germans generally avoid medicine for stress.(B)
drinking tea in modern Britain is confined to the upper classes.(C)
the usual hour for drinking tea varies across Europe.(D)
27. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
2224
Lines 48-50 (“Tea time … socialize”)(A)
Lines 63-64 (“The Germans … stress”)(B)
Lines 71-72 (“The strength … hospitality”)(C)
Lines 81-84 (“That meant … royalty”)(D)
28. As used in line 66, “aristocratic” most nearly means
culinary.(A)
political.(B)
rigid.(C)
noble.(D)
29. Compared with France’s tradition of tea-drinking, having tea in
Germany
is more formal.(A)
involves sweeter food.(B)
requires greater solitude.(C)
is more of a meal than a snack.(D)
2225
30. Which statement is the most effective comparison of the two passages’
purposes?
Passage 1’s purpose is to describe the early history of tea in Europe,
while Passage 2’s purpose is to compare European cultural
practices relating to tea.
(A)
Passage 1’s purpose is to argue against the Chinese monopoly of tea,
while Passage 2’s purpose is to argue that Europeans perfected the
art of tea drinking.
(B)
Passage 1’s purpose is to express admiration for the difficult task of
tea cultivation, while Passage 2’s purpose is to celebrate the rituals
surrounding tea.
(C)
Passage 1’s purpose is to compare Chinese and European
relationships with tea, while Passage 2’s purpose is to describe the
diffusion of tea culture in Europe.
(D)
31. Both passages support which generalization about tea?
Tea drinking in Europe is less ritualized than in China.(A)
Coffee was once more popular in Europe than tea was.(B)
India grows a great deal of tea.(C)
Tea is a staple of European households.(D)
2226
Question 32-42 are based on the following passage.
Spinosaurus Passage
At long last, paleontologists have solved a century-
old mystery, piecing together information discovered
by scientists from different times and places.
The mystery began when, in 1911, German
paleontologist Ernst Stromer discovered the first evi-(5)
dence of dinosaurs having lived in Egypt. Stromer,
who expected to encounter fossils of early mammals,
instead found bones that dated back to the Creta-
ceous period, some 97 to 112 million years prior.
His finding consisted of three large bones, which(10)
he preserved and transported back to Germany for
examination. After careful consideration, he
announced that he had discovered a new genus of
sauropod, or a large, four-legged herbivore with
a long neck. He called the genus Aegyptosaurus,(15)
which is Greek for Egyptian lizard. One of these
Aegyptosaurs, he claimed, was the Spinosaurus.
Tragically, the fossils that supported his claim were
destroyed during a raid on Munich by the Royal Air
Force during World War II. The scientific world was(20)
2227
left with Stromer’s notes and sketches, but no hard
evidence that the Spinosaurus ever existed.
It was not until 2008, when a cardboard box of
bones was delivered to paleontologist Nizar Ibrahim
by a nomad in Morocco’s Sahara desert, that a clue to(25)
solving the mystery was revealed. Intrigued, Ibrahim
took the bones to a university in Casablanca for
further study. One specific bone struck him as in-
teresting, as it contained a red line coursing through
it. The following year, Ibrahim and his colleagues at(30)
Italy’s Milan Natural History Museum were look-
ing at bones that resembled the ones delivered the
year before. An important clue was hidden in the
cross-section they were examining, as it contained
the same red line Ibrahim had seen in Morocco.(35)
Against all odds, the Italians were studying bones
that belonged to the very same skeleton as the bones
Ibrahim received in the desert. Together, these bones
make up the partial skeleton of the very first Spino-
saurus that humans have been able to discover since(40)
Stromer’s fossils were destroyed.
Ibrahim and his colleagues published a study
describing the features of the dinosaur, which point
to the Spinosaurus being the first known swimming
dinosaur. At 36 feet long, this particular Spinosaurus(45)
2228
had long front legs and short back legs, each with a
paddle-shaped foot and claws that suggest a carnivo-
rous diet. These features made the dinosaur a deft
swimmer and excellent hunter, able to prey on large
river fish.(50)
Scientists also discovered several aquatic adapta-
tions that made the Spinosaurus unique compared
to dinosaurs that lived on land but ate fish. Similar
to a crocodile, the Spinosaurus had a long snout,
with nostrils positioned so that the dinosaur could(55)
breathe while part of its head was submerged in wa-
ter. Unlike predatory land dinosaurs, the Spinosaur-
us had powerful front legs. The weight of these legs
would have made walking upright like a Tyranno-
saurus Rex impossible, but in water, their strong legs(60)
gave the Spinosaurus the power it needed to swim
quickly and hunt fiercely. Most notable, though, was
the discovery of the Spinosaurus’s massive sail. Made
up of dorsal spines, the sail was mostly meant for
display and did not serve a purpose of its own.(65)
Ibrahim and his fellow researchers used both
modern digital modeling programs and Stromer’s
basic sketches to create and mount a life-size replica
of the Spinosaurus skeleton. The sketches gave them
a starting point, and by arranging and rearranging(70)
2229
the excavated fossils they had in their possession,
they were able to use technology to piece together
hypothetical bone structures until the mystery of
this semiaquatic dinosaur finally emerged from the
murky depths of the past.(75)
32. Which of the following best summarizes the central idea of this
passage?
Paleontologists were able to identify a new species of dinosaur after
overcoming a series of obstacles.
(A)
Most dinosaur fossils are found in pieces and must be reconstructed
using the latest technology.
(B)
The first evidence of the Spinosaurus was uncovered by German
paleontologist Ernst Stromer.
(C)
Fossils of an aquatic dinosaur called the Spinosaurus were first
found in Egypt in the early twentieth century.
(D)
33. According to the passage, the fossils Stromer found in the Egyptian
desert were
2230
younger and smaller than he expected.(A)
younger and larger than he expected.(B)
older and smaller than he expected.(C)
older and larger than he expected.(D)
34. Based on the information in the passage, the author would most likely
agree that
aquatic dinosaurs were more vicious than dinosaurs that lived on
land.
(A)
too much emphasis is placed on creating realistic models of ancient
dinosaurs.
(B)
most mysteries presented by randomly found fossils are unlikely to
be solved.
(C)
the study of fossils and ancient life provides important scientific
insights.
(D)
35. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
2231
Lines 12-15 (“After careful … long neck”)(A)
Lines 18-22 (“Tragically, … ever existed”)(B)
Lines 42-45 (“Ibrahim … swimming dinosaur”)(C)
Lines 69-75 (“The sketches … past”)(D)
36. As used in line 36, the phrase “against all odds” most nearly means
by contrast.(A)
at the exact same time.(B)
to their dismay.(C)
despite low probability.(D)
37. The author uses the phrases “deft swimmer” and “excellent hunter” in
lines 48-49 to
produce a clear visual image of the Spinosaurus.(A)
show how the Spinosaurus searched for prey.(B)
create an impression of a graceful but powerful animal.(C)
emphasize the differences between aquatic and land dinosaurs.(D)
38. The information presented in the passage strongly suggests that Ibrahim
2232
chose to go into the field of paleontology after reading Stromer’s
work.
(A)
was familiar with Stromer’s work when he found the fossils with the
red lines.
(B)
did not have the proper training to solve the mystery of the
Spinosaurus on his own.
(C)
went on to study other aquatic dinosaurs after completing his
research on the Spinosaurus.
(D)
39. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 23-26 (“It was … revealed”)(A)
Lines 42-45 (“Ibrahim … swimming dinosaur”)(B)
Lines 51-53 (“Scientists … ate fish”)(C)
Lines 66-69 (“Ibrahim and his fellow researchers … skeleton”)(D)
40. As used in line 73, “hypothetical” most nearly means
2233
imaginary.(A)
actual.(B)
possible.(C)
interesting.(D)
41. Based on the information in the passage, which statement best
describes the relationship between Stromer’s and Ibrahim’s work with
fossils?
Stromer’s work was dependent on Ibrahim’s work.(A)
Stromer’s work was contradicted by Ibrahim’s work.(B)
Ibrahim’s work built on Stromer’s work.(C)
Ibrahim’s work copied Stromer’s work.(D)
42. Which of the following is most similar to the methods used by Ibrahim
to create a life-size replica of the Spinosaurus?
2234
Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and
supplementary material.
Laughter Passage
An architect using computer software and drawings to create a scale
model of a building
(A)
A student building a model rocket from a kit in order to demonstrate
propulsion
(B)
A doctor using a microscope to study microorganisms unable to be
seen with the naked eye
(C)
A marine biologist creating an artificial reef in an aquarium to study
fish
(D)
Today’s technology and resources enable people
to educate themselves on any topic imaginable, and
human health is one of particular interest to all.
From diet fads to exercise trends, sleep studies to
nutrition supplements, people strive to adopt health-(5)
ier lifestyles. And while some people may associate
diets and gym memberships with sheer enjoyment,
most of the population tends to think of personal
healthcare as a necessary but time-consuming,
2235
energy-draining, less-than-fun aspect of daily life.(10)
Yet for centuries, or perhaps for as long as
conscious life has existed, sneaking suspicion has
suggested that fun, or more accurately, funniness, is
essential to human health. Finally, in recent years
this notion, often phrased in the adage, “Laughter is(15)
the best medicine,” has materialized into scientific
evidence.
When a person laughs, a chemical reaction in the
brain produces hormones called endorphins. Other
known endorphin-producing activities include(20)
exercise, physical pain, and certain food choices,
but laughter’s appearance on this list has drawn
increasing empirical interest. Endorphins function
as natural opiates for the human body, causing what
are more commonly referred to as “good feelings.”(25)
A boost of endorphins can thwart lethargy and pro-
mote the mental energy and positivity necessary to
accomplish challenging tasks. Furthermore, recent
data reveal that the laughter-induced endorphins are
therapeutic and stress reducing.(30)
This stress reduction alone indicates signifi-
cant implications regarding the role of laughter in
personal health. However, humor seems to address
many other medical conditions as well. One study
2236
from Loma Linda University in California found(35)
that the act of laughing induced immediate and
significant effects on senior adults’ memory capaci-
ties. This result was in addition to declines in the
patients’ cortisol, or stress hormone, measurements.
Another university study found that a mere quarter(40)
hour of laughter burns up to 40 calories. Pain toler-
ance, one group of Oxford researchers noticed, is
also strengthened by laughter—probably due to the
release of those same endorphins already described.
And a group of Maryland scientists discovered that(45)
those who laugh more frequently seem to have
stronger protection against heart disease, the illness
that takes more lives annually than any other in
America. Studies have shown that stress releases
hormones that cause blood vessels to constrict,(50)
but laughter, on the other hand, releases chemicals
that cause blood vessels to dilate, or expand. This
dilation can have the same positive effects on blood
flow as aerobic exercise or drugs that help lower
cholesterol.(55)
Already from these reputable studies, empirical
data indicates that laughter’s health benefits include
heart disease prevention, good physical exertion,
memory retention, anxiety remedy, and pain
2237
resilience—not to mention laughter’s more self-(60)
evident effects on social and psychological wellness.
Many believe that these findings are only the begin-
ning; these studies pave the way for more research
with even stronger evidence regarding the powerful
healing and preventative properties of laughter. As(65)
is true for most fields of science, far more can be
learned.
As for how laughter is achieved, these studies
used various methods to provoke or measure laugh-
ter or humor. Some used comedy films or television(70)
clips; others chose humor-gauging questionnaires
and social—or group—laughter scenarios. Such
variance suggests that the means by which people
incorporate laughter into their daily routine matters
less than the fact that they do incorporate it.(75)
However, it should be said that humor shared in an
uplifting community probably offers greater benefits
than that found on a screen.
It is believed that young people begin to laugh
less and less as they transition to adulthood.(80)
Time-pressed millennials might, in the interest of
wellness, choose isolated exercise instead of social-
or fun-oriented leisure activities. However, this
growing pool of evidence exposes the reality that
2238
Adapted from I.M. Dunbar, et al., “Social Laughter Is Correlated with an Elevated Pain Threshold.”
© 2011 by The Royal Society of Biological Sciences.
amusement, too, can powerfully nourish the health(85)
of both mind and body. Humor is no less relevant to
well-being than a kale smoothie or track workout.
But, then, some combination of the three might be
most enjoyable (and, of course, beneficial) of all.
43. The author would probably characterize the study findings mentioned in
the passage as
2239
irrelevant.(A)
very promising.(B)
inconclusive.(C)
mildly interesting.(D)
44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 4-6 (“From diet … lifestyles”)(A)
Lines 14-17 (“Finally, … evidence”)(B)
Lines 18-19 (“When a person … endorphins”)(C)
Lines 72-75 (“Such variance … incorporate it”)(D)
45. Based on the passage, which statement best explains the relationship
between endorphin production and mental outlook?
2240
Increasing a person’s amount of endorphins encourages a positive
state of mind.
(A)
The act of laughing produces endorphins, which can offer a person
protection against heart disease.
(B)
Research indicates that chemical reactions in the brain produce
endorphins.
(C)
If a person has more endorphins, he or she has a difficult time
tolerating pain.
(D)
46. As used in line 56, “reputable” most nearly means
honorable.(A)
distinguished.(B)
celebrated.(C)
credible.(D)
47. Which of the following statements can you best conclude from the
passage?
2241
Laughing alone or in the company of others benefits people’s health
equally.
(A)
There is reason for optimism about future research into laughter’s
health benefits.
(B)
Public support for the idea that laughter is healthy is somewhat
limited.
(C)
Physical exercise is sufficient to maintain and improve mental
health.
(D)
48. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
Lines 11-14 (“Yet for centuries, … health”)(A)
Lines 31-34 (“This stress … well”)(B)
Lines 62-65 (“Many believe … of laughter”)(C)
Lines 86-89 (“Humor is … of all”)(D)
49. Which reason best explains why the author chose to discuss the function
of endorphins in lines 23-25 (“Endorphins … good feelings”)?
2242
To reach a wider audience without a background in physiology(A)
To support the claim that laughter affects an individual’s mental state(B)
To show that laughter is one of several endorphin-producing
activities
(C)
To demonstrate why scientists have an interest in studying laughter(D)
50. As used in line 15, “adage” most nearly means
remark.(A)
comment.(B)
cliché.(C)
proverb.(D)
51. Which value shown on the graph most closely relates to the idea in
lines 76-77 that “humor shared in an uplifting community” increases
resilience to pain?
–25(A)
0(B)
20(C)
75(D)
2243
52. The information in the passage strongly suggests that
older adults prefer to laugh in a community setting rather than watch
funny movies.
(A)
young adults who laugh less as they age are at greater risk for heart
disease.
(B)
millennials are in danger of developing heart disease from too much
exercise.
(C)
soon doctors will be using laughter to treat most diseases.(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2244
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Writing and Language Test
35 Minutes — 44 Questions
2245
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For
some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised
to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will
consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or
graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a
passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage
or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that
most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or
that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard
written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the
relevant portion of the passage as it is.
2246
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
From Here to the Stars
Gene Kranz hadn’t slept in ages.  between
rows of monitors in NASA’s Mission Control Center, an impossible
problem weighing heavy in his weary mind: Three astronauts were
operating a crippled spacecraft nearly 200,000 miles from Earth. And time
was running out.
Kranz was no stranger to . After losing his father at an early age,
Kranz turned to the stars for guidance—and found inspiration. His high
school thesis was about the possibility of  that
prompted Kranz to set a path for the stars. Kranz pursued a degree in
aeronautical engineering after high school graduation. Until the Wright
brothers had pioneered powered, controlled flight only half a century
earlier, aviation milestones like breaking the sound barrier and World War
The flight director, pacing
1
issues
2
space travel; an idea
3
2247
II changed the future of flight. Aeronautical engineering required a thorough
understanding of 
 in
mathematics to determine maximum weight on an aircraft. After graduating
from Saint Louis University’s Parks College of Engineering, Aviation, and
Technology, Kranz piloted jets for the Air Force Reserve before
performing research and development on missiles and rockets. Kranz later
joined NASA and directed the successful Apollo 11 mission to the moon in
1969.
5 One year later, the mood had drastically altered in the Mission
Control Center. There were no cheers, no celebratory pats on the back or
teary-eyed congratulations. Coffee and adrenaline fueled the scientists and
engineers communicating with the astronauts on Apollo 13. 
He was dressed, as ever, in his signature handmade vest. 7
physics—like lift and drag on wings—as well as proficiency
4
Kranz was easy to spot among the avalanche of moving bodies and shifting
papers.
6
2248
Kranz’s wife, Marta, had begun making vests at his request in the early
’60s.  power in a uniform, something Kranz understood from his
years serving overseas. The vests served not as an authoritative mark or 
 flair, but a defining symbol for his team to rally behind. During the
effort to save the Apollo 13 crew, Kranz wore his white vest around the
clock like perspiration-mottled battle armor.
 meetings and calculations, Kranz and the NASA staff hatched a
wild plan. By using the gravitational force of the moon,  could slingshot
the injured spacecraft back on an earthbound course. It was a long shot, of
course, but also their best and only one. And, due to the tireless efforts of
support staff on earth and the intrepid spirit of the Apollo 13 crew, it
worked. Six days after takeoff, all three astronauts splashed down safely in
the Pacific Ocean.
Their was
8
sartorial
9
Among
10
it
11
1. 
2249
NO CHANGE(A)
The flight director paced(B)
The pacing flight director(C)
The flight director pacing(D)
2. 
NO CHANGE(A)
adversity(B)
deadlines(C)
maladies(D)
3. 
NO CHANGE(A)
space travel: an idea(B)
space travel, an idea(C)
space travel. An idea(D)
4. 
2250
NO CHANGE(A)
physics; like lift and drag on wings, as well as proficiency(B)
physics like lift and drag on wings, as well as proficiency(C)
physics: like lift and drag on wings—as well as proficiency(D)
5. Which sentence most effectively establishes the main idea of the
paragraph?
Without his unusual vest, no one would have noticed Kranz in the
crowd.
(A)
Kranz stood out as a pillar of strength in the chaos of the command
center.
(B)
During the Apollo 11 mission, Kranz earned the badges of honor that
now adorned his vest.
(C)
Kranz possessed more years of experience than anyone in the control
center.
(D)
6. 
2251
NO CHANGE(A)
Among the avalanche of moving bodies and shifting papers, it is
easy to spot Kranz.
(B)
Kranz easily spotted the avalanche of moving bodies and shifting
papers.
(C)
Kranz is easy to spot among the avalanche of moving bodies and
shifting papers.
(D)
7. Which sentence provides effective evidence to support the main focus
of the paragraph?
The engineers looked to the calm man in the homemade vest.(A)
Many of the men in the Mission Control Center had lengthy military
careers.
(B)
Kranz’s thoughts returned to the many tribulations he had
experienced.
(C)
Several engineers joined together as a bastion of calm in a sea of
uncertainty.
(D)
8. 
2252
NO CHANGE(A)
They’re was(B)
There was(C)
They were(D)
9. 
NO CHANGE(A)
sanguine(B)
military(C)
martial(D)
10. 
NO CHANGE(A)
In spite of(B)
Amid(C)
Between(D)
11. 
2253
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
The UK and the Euro
[1] The United Kingdom is a longstanding member of the European
Union (EU), a multinational political organization and economic world
leader  over the course of the past half-century. [2] However, there
is one key feature of the EU in which the UK does not 
 union known as the Eurozone, consisting of
countries that share the euro as currency. 14 [3] While the nation’s public
opinion has remained generally supportive of that decision, evidence
suggests that the euro’s benefits for the UK might, in fact, outweigh the
risks. [4] When the EU first implemented the euro in 1999, intending to
strengthen collective economy across the union, Britain was permitted
NO CHANGE(A)
he(B)
they(C)
one(D)
elected
12
participate; the monetary
13
2254
exclusion and continued using the pound instead. [5] This, UK leaders
hoped, would shield Britain from financial dangers that the euro might
suffer. Proponents for avoiding the euro point 
 To
join a massive, multinational economy would involve surrendering taxable
wealth from one’s own region to aid impoverished countries that may be
some thousands of miles away. If a few economies in the Eurozone suffer,
all of the participating nations suffer, too. Other proponents point to details
of financial policy such as interest rates and territory responsibilities,
fearing loss of agency and political traction. 16
But complications loom: the UK’s current EU status may be untenable.
In recent years, EU leaders seem to intend to transition all members 
 this action appears necessary for
protecting nations involved and ensuring the monetary union’s long-term
success. These conditions may potentially force the UK to choose either the
to faltering economies in the Eurozone region throughout the Eurozone.
15
toward the Eurozone, for many reasons,
17
2255
security of its multidecade EU membership, or the pound and all it entails
for Britain’s economy. Enjoying both may not remain possible. 18
[1] Regarding Britain’s intent to be protected from the Eurozone’s
economic dangers, this hope never quite materialized. [2] The UK saw
economic downturns of its own during the euro’s problematic years thus
far. [3] Many families in the UK still struggle to pay their bills in the face
of higher than normal unemployment rates. [4] It seems that regardless of
shared currency, the economies of Britain and its Eurozone neighbors are
too closely  for one to remain unscathed by another’s crises. 
20
Perhaps this question of economic security has been the wrong one.
Due to Britain’s location and long-standing trade relationships with its
neighbors, economies will persist to be somewhat reliant on each other,
euro or not.  political security, power, and protection bear
more significance for the future. If the UK hopes to maintain and expand its
intertwined
19
Furthermore,
21
2256
influential presence in world leadership, its association and close
involvement with greater Europe is invaluable. Considering that the euro
probably offers a lower risk margin than many have supposed, the benefits
of euro adoption  bid
Britain carefully reconsider.
: to secure EU membership and strengthen its cause,
22
12. 
NO CHANGE(A)
determined(B)
advanced(C)
built(D)
13. 
NO CHANGE(A)
participate: the monetary(B)
participate, the monetary(C)
participate. The monetary(D)
2257
14. To present the ideas of this paragraph in logical order, the most
appropriate place for sentence 3 to appear is
where it is now.(A)
after sentence 1.(B)
after sentence 4.(C)
after sentence 5.(D)
15. Which choice best completes the sentence?
NO CHANGE(A)
to faltering economies throughout the Eurozone.(B)
to faltering economies in most if not all Eurozone countries.(C)
to faltering economies in Eurozone countries throughout Europe.(D)
16. Which statement most clearly communicates the main claim of the
paragraph on the previous page?
2258
The UK’s taxable wealth would decrease if it assisted impoverished
countries.
(A)
Economic independence from impoverished countries would still be
possible.
(B)
The UK would take on significant economic risk if it adopted the
euro as its currency.
(C)
Euro adoption would require subsequent economic assistance on the
UK’s behalf.
(D)
17. 
NO CHANGE(A)
toward the Eurozone. For many reasons,(B)
toward the Eurozone, for many reasons.(C)
toward the Eurozone. For many reasons.(D)
18. Which choice best summarizes details that support the main claim in
this paragraph?
The UK wants to maintain the pound as its currency.(A)
All EU members may soon have to accept the euro.(B)
The UK faces a difficult decision regarding its EU membership.(C)
All member nations want to ensure the success of the EU.(D)
2259
19. 
NO CHANGE(A)
disparate(B)
identical(C)
relevant(D)
20. Which sentence is least relevant to the central idea of this paragraph?
Sentence 1(A)
Sentence 2(B)
Sentence 3(C)
Sentence 4(D)
21. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Or,(B)
Also,(C)
However,(D)
22. 
2260
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.
Coffee: The Buzz on Beans
Americans love coffee.  days you can find a coffee shop in nearly
every American city. But this wasn’t always true. How did coffee, which
was first grown in Africa over five hundred years ago, come to America?
The coffee plant, from which makers get the “cherries” that 
 into what we call beans, first appeared in the East
African country Ethiopia, in the province of Kaffa. From there, it spread to
the Arabian Peninsula, where the coffeehouse, or qahveh khaneh in
Arabic, was very popular. Like spices and cloth, coffee was traded
NO CHANGE(A)
—to secure EU membership and strengthen its cause—(B)
: to secure EU membership and strengthen its cause—(C)
; to secure EU membership and strengthen its cause,(D)
Some
23
is dried and roasted
24
2261
internationally as European explorers reached far lands and 
shipping routes. The first European coffeehouse opened in Venice, Italy, in
1683, and around that time London  over three hundred
coffeehouses.
There is no record of coffee being amongst the cargo of the Mayflower,
which reached the New World in 1620. It was not until 1668 that the first
written reference to coffee in America was made. A beverage was being
made from roasted beans and flavored with sugar or honey, and cinnamon.
Coffee was then described in the New England colony’s official records of
1670. In 1683, William Penn, who lived in a settlement on the Delaware
River, wrote of buying supplies of coffee in a 
eighteen shillings and nine pence per pound. 28
Coffeehouses like those in Europe were soon established in American
colonies, and as America expanded westward, coffee consumption grew. In
their settlement days,  each had famous
establishing
25
displayed
26
New York market, he paid
27
Chicago St. Louis and New Orleans
29
2262
coffeehouses. By the mid-twentieth century, coffeehouses were abundant. In
places like New York and San Francisco, they became  with
counterculture, as a place where intellectuals and artists gathered to share
ideas. In American homes, coffee was a social lubricant, bringing people
together to socialize as afternoon tea had done in English society. With the
invention of the electric coffee pot, it became a common courtesy to ask a
guest if she wanted “coffee or tea?” 31
However, by the 1950s, U.S. manufacturing did to coffee what it had
done to  it cheaply, mass-marketed it, and lowered
the quality. Coffee was roasted and ground in manufacturing plants and
freeze-dried for a long storage life, which compromised its flavor. An
“evangelism” began to bring back the original bracing, dark-roasted taste
of coffee, and spread to the rest of the world. 
confused
30
other foods; produced
32
In every major city of the world, now travelers around the world, expect to
be able to grab an uplifting, fresh, and delicious cup of coffee—and they
can.
33
2263
23. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Many(B)
The(C)
These(D)
24. 
NO CHANGE(A)
are being dried and roasted(B)
are dried and roasted(C)
is being dried and roasted(D)
25. 
NO CHANGE(A)
established(B)
having established(C)
was establishing(D)
26. 
2264
NO CHANGE(A)
bragged(B)
highlighted(C)
boasted(D)
27. 
NO CHANGE(A)
New York market and William Penn(B)
New York market so he paid(C)
New York market, paying(D)
28. Which choice most effectively establishes a summative concluding
sentence for the paragraph?
Coffee’s appearance in the historical record shows it was becoming
more and more established in the New World.
(A)
The colonies probably used more tea than coffee since there are
records of it being imported from England.
(B)
William Penn founded Pennsylvania Colony, which became the state
of Pennsylvania after the Revolutionary War with England ended.
(C)
The Mayflower did carry a number of items that the colonists needed
for settlement, including animals and tools.
(D)
2265
29. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Chicago, St. Louis, and New Orleans(B)
Chicago, St. Louis, and, New Orleans(C)
Chicago St. Louis and, New Orleans(D)
30. 
NO CHANGE(A)
related(B)
associated(C)
coupled(D)
31. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
There were many coffee shops in New York and in Chicago.(A)
Electric coffee machines changed how people entertained at home.(B)
Over time, coffee became a part of everyday American life.(C)
People went to coffehouses to discuss major issues.(D)
32. 
2266
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.
Predicting Nature’s Light Show
NO CHANGE(A)
other foods produced(B)
other foods, produced(C)
other foods: produced(D)
33. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Now travelers, in every major city of the world, around the world
expect to be able to grab an uplifting, fresh, and delicious cup of
coffee—and they can.
(B)
Now in every major city of the world, travelers around the world
expect to be able to grab an uplifting, fresh, and delicious cup of
coffee—and they can.
(C)
Now travelers around the world expect to be able to grab an
uplifting, fresh, and delicious cup of coffee in every major city of the
world—and they can.
(D)
2267
One of the most beautiful of nature’s displays is the aurora borealis,
commonly known as the Northern Lights. As  informal name suggests,
the best place to view this phenomenon  How far north one
needs to be to witness auroras depends not on conditions here on Earth, but
on the sun. 36
As with hurricane season on Earth, the sun  a cycle of storm
activity, called the solar cycle, which lasts approximately 11 years. Also
referred to as the sunspot cycle, this period is caused by the amount of
magnetic flux that rises to the surface of the sun, causing sunspots, or areas
of intense magnetic activity. The magnetic energy is sometimes so great it
causes a storm that explodes away from the sun’s surface in a solar flare.
38 These powerful magnetic storms eject high-speed electrons and
protons into space. Called a coronal mass ejection, this ejection is far more
powerful than the hot gases the sun constantly emits. The speed at which the
atoms are shot away from the sun is almost triple that of a normal solar
their
34
is the north.
35
observes
37
2268
wind. It takes this shot of energy one to three days to arrive at Earth’s upper
atmosphere. Once it arrives, it is captured by Earth’s own magnetic field. It
is this newly captured energy that causes the Northern Lights. 
 in the Northern Hemisphere
 the likelihood of seeing
auroras in their location at a specific time. One such tool is the Kp-Index, a
number that determines the potential visibility of an aurora. The Kp-Index
measures the energy added to Earth’s magnetic field from the sun on a scale
of 0-9, with 1 representing a solar calm and 5 or more indicating a
magnetic storm, or solar flare. The magnetic fluctuations are measured in
three-hour intervals (12 AM to 3 AM, 3 AM to 6 AM, and so on) so that
deviations can be factored in and accurate data can be presented.
Magnetometers, tools that measure the strength of Earth’s magnetic
field, are located around the world. When the energy from solar flares
reaches Earth, the strength and direction of the energy  recorded by these
tools and analyzed by scientists at the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Scientists and interested amateurs
39
use tools readily available to all in order to predict
40
is
41
2269
Administration, who calculate the difference between the average strength
of the magnetic field and spikes due to solar flares. They plot this
information on the Kp-Index and
 as well as other
impacts solar flares may have on life on Earth.
 solar flares can sometimes have negative effects on our
communications systems and weather patterns, the most common effect is
also the most enchanting: a beautiful light show.
update the public with information on viewing the auroras
42
While
43
2270
Data from National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.
34. 
NO CHANGE(A)
an(B)
its(C)
that(D)
35. 
2271
NO CHANGE(A)
is in North America.(B)
is above the Arctic Circle.(C)
is in the Northern Hemisphere.(D)
36. Which of the following would most strengthen the passage’s
introduction?
A statement about the Kp-Index and other necessary tracking tools
scientists use
(A)
A mention that the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration monitors solar flares
(B)
An explanation about why conditions on the sun rather than on Earth
affect the Northern Lights
(C)
A statement that scientists can predict the best time and location to
see the Northern Lights by studying the sun
(D)
37. 
NO CHANGE(A)
experiences(B)
perceives(C)
witnesses(D)
2272
38. What fact is omitted from this paragraph that would help support the
author’s claims?
The speed of normal solar wind(A)
The strength of Earth’s magnetic field(B)
The temperature of normal solar wind(C)
The definition of coronal mass ejection(D)
39. 
NO CHANGE(A)
Interested scientists and amateurs(B)
Scientists and amateurs interested(C)
Scientists interested and amateurs(D)
40. 
NO CHANGE(A)
use tools for prediction(B)
use specific tools to predict(C)
use all tools readily available to predict(D)
41. 
2273
NO CHANGE(A)
are(B)
will be(C)
has been(D)
42. 
NO CHANGE(A)
update aurora viewing information(B)
update information on viewing the auroras(C)
update aurora viewing information for the public(D)
43. 
NO CHANGE(A)
However,(B)
Since(C)
Whereas(D)
44. Using the graphic and the information in the passage, identify the
complete time period when a solar flare took place.
2274
3 PM to 6 PM on September 11(A)
12 AM on September 11 to 3 AM on September 12(B)
9 AM on September 10 to 12 PM on September 12(C)
9 AM on September 11 to 12 AM on September 12(D)
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2275
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Math Test
25 Minutes — 20 Questions
NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is NOT permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
2276
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a cirlce is 2π.
2277
1. What is the average rate of change for the line graphed in the figure
above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2278
2. Which of the following could be the factored form of the equation
graphed in the figure above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2279
3. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. The equation 
represents the kinetic energy in joules of an object with a mass of m kg
traveling at a speed of v meters per second. What is the kinetic energy
in joules of an unmanned aircraft with a mass of 2 × 10  kg traveling at
a speed of approximately 3 × 10  meters per second?
3
3
9 × 5(A) 9
9 × 10(B) 8
9 × 10(C) 9
1.8 × 10(D) 10
4. In the equation above, what is the value of k?
2280
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. An environmental protection group had its members sign a pledge to try
to reduce the amount of garbage they throw out by 3% each year. On the
year that the pledge was signed, each person threw out an average of
1,800 pounds of garbage. Which exponential function could be used to
model the average amount of garbage each person who signed the
pledge should throw out each year after signing the pledge?
y  = 0.97 × 1,800(A) t
y  = 1,800 × t(B) 0.97
y  = 1,800 × 1.97(C) t
y  = 1,800 × 0.97(D) t
2281
6. 
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2282
7. If the equation of the line shown in the figure above is written in the
form  which of the following could be the value of m?
−3(A)
(B)
(C)
3(D)
8. If 4 x  + 7 x  + 1 is multiplied by 3 x  + 5, what is the coefficient of x in
the resulting polynomial?
2
3(A)
12(B)
35(C)
38(D)
2283
9. The figure above shows worldwide unemployment rates from 2004 to
2013. Which of the following statements is true?
The graph is decreasing everywhere.(A)
The graph is increasing from 2007 to 2010.(B)
The graph is decreasing from 2004 to 2007 and from 2009 to 2011.(C)
The graph is increasing from 2007 to 2010 and decreasing from
2011 to 2013.
(D)
2284
10. The solution to which inequality is represented in the graph above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2285
11. If (a, b) is a solution to the equation above, what is the ratio  , given
that a  ≠ 0?
−3(A)
−2(B)
(C)
(D)
12. 
If the system of linear equations above has no solution, and a is a
constant, what is the value of a?
2286
(A)
(B)
(C)
3(D)
13. A taxi in the city charges $3.00 for the first  mile, plus $0.25 for each
additional  mile. Eric plans to spend no more than $20 on a taxi ride
around the city. Which inequality represents the number of miles, m,
that Eric could travel without exceeding his limit?
2.5 + 2 m  ≤ 20(A)
3 + 0.25 m  ≤ 20(B)
3 + 2 m  ≤ 20(C)
12 + 2 m  ≤ 20(D)
2287
14. If the equation of the circle shown above is written in the form x  + y
 + ax  + by  = c , what is the value of ab  + c ?
2
2
6(A)
16(B)
28(C)
32(D)
2288
Directions
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
15. A projectile is any moving object that is thrown near the Earth’s
surface. The path of the projectile is called the trajectory and can be
modeled by a quadratic equation, assuming the only force acting on the
motion is gravity (no friction). If a projectile is launched from a
platform 8 feet above the ground with an initial velocity of 64 feet per
second, then its trajectory can be modeled by the equation h  = –16 t  +
64 t  + 8, where h represents the height of the projectile t seconds after
it was launched. Based on this model, what is the maximum height in
feet that the projectile will reach?
2
72(A)
80(B)
92(C)
108(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
1.
2289
correctly.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  ).
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
2290
16. If  , what is the value of 9 x  + 10 y ?
2291
17. How many degrees does the minute hand of an analogue clock rotate
from 3:20 PM to 3:45 PM?
18. Triangle ABC shown above is an equilateral triangle cut by two
parallel lines. If the ratio of BF to FC is 3:4 and EB  = 3, what is the
length of DE?
19. What is the exponent on x when the expression above is written in
simplest form?
x
2292
20. An exponential function is given in the form f(x) = a • b . If f (0) = 3
and f (1) = 15, what is the value of f (–2)?
x
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2293
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Math Test
55 Minutes — 38 Questions
CALCULATOR SECTION
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in
this section.
Directions
For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best
of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. You may use any available space for scratch work.
Notes:
Calculator use is permitted.1.
All numbers used are real numbers.2.
All figures used are necessary to solving the problems that they
accompany. All figures are drawn to scale EXCEPT when it is
3.
2294
Information:
stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale.
Unless stated otherwise, the domain of any function f is assumed
to be the set of all real numbers x, for which f(x) is a real number.
4.
The sum of the degree measures of the angles in a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a cirlce is 2π.
2295
1. A home improvement store that sells carpeting charges a flat
installation fee and a certain amount per square foot of carpet ordered.
If the total cost for f square feet of carpet is given by the function C ( f )
= 3.29 f  + 199, then the value 3.29 best represents which of the
following?
The installation fee(A)
The cost of one square foot of carpet(B)
The number of square feet of carpet ordered(C)
The total cost not including the installation fee(D)
2296
2. The United States Constitution requires that any candidate for the
presidency be at least 35 years of age, although no president to date has
been that young. The figure above shows the distribution of the ages of
the presidents through 2012 at the time they were inaugurated. Based on
the information shown, which of the following statements is true?
The shape of the data is skewed to the left, so the mean age of the
presidents is greater than the median.
(A)
The shape of the data is fairly symmetric, so the mean age of the
presidents is approximately equal to the median.
(B)
The data has no clear shape, so it is impossible to make a reliable
statement comparing the mean and the median.
(C)
The same number of 55-or-older presidents have been inaugurated
as ones who were younger than 55, so the mean age is exactly 55.
(D)
3. Which value of x satisfies the equation above?
–5(A)
–3(B)
–1(C)
1(D)
2297
4. The following quadratic equations are all representations of the graph
shown above. Which equation could you use to find the minimum value
of the function, without doing any additional work?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2298
5. The Farmers’ Market sells apples by the basket. The market charges
$3.00 for the basket itself, plus $1.97 per pound of apples. A 6% sales
tax is also applied to the entire purchase. Which equation represents the
total cost of p pounds of apples at the Farmers’ Market?
c  = (1.97 + 0.06 p ) + 3(A)
c  = 1.06(1.97 p ) + 3(B)
c  = 1.06(1.97 + 3) p(C)
c  = 1.06(1.97 p  + 3)(D)
6. Which of the following is a solution to the system of inequalities shown
in the figure above?
2299
(1, 5)(A)
(2, 6)(B)
(4, 1)(C)
(5, 4)(D)
7. Marion is a city planner. The city she works for recently purchased
new property on which it plans to build administrative offices. Marion
has been given the task of sizing the lots for new buildings, using the
following guidelines:
Which list of lot sizes meets the city guidelines and includes as many
lots as possible?
The square footage of each lot should be greater than or equal to
3,000 square feet, but less than or equal to 15,000 square feet.
Each lot size should be at least 30% greater in area than the size
before it.
To simplify tax assessment calculations, the square footage of each
lot must be a multiple of 1,000 square feet.
2300
3,000; 5,000; 10,000; 15,000(A)
3,000; 4,500; 6,000; 7,500; 10,000; 15,000(B)
3,000; 4,000; 6,000; 8,000; 11,000; 15,000(C)
3,000; 3,900; 5,100; 6,600; 8,600; 11,200; 14,600(D)
8. One function of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is to
reduce air pollution. After implementing several pollution reduction
programs in a certain city, EPA calculated that the air pollution should
decrease by approximately 8% each year. What kind of function could
be used to model the amount of air pollution in this city over the next
several years, assuming no other significant changes?
A linear function(A)
A quadratic function(B)
A polynomial function(C)
An exponential function(D)
2301
9. Escape velocity is the speed that a traveling object needs to break free
of a planet or moon’s gravitational field without additional propulsion
(for example, without using fuel). The formula used to calculate escape
velocity is  , where G represents the universal
gravitational constant, m is the mass of the body from which the object
is escaping, and r is the distance between the object and the body’s
center of gravity. Which equation represents the value of r in terms of v,
G, and m?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2302
10. A movie rental kiosk dispenses DVDs and Blu-rays. DVDs cost $2.00
per night and Blu-rays cost $3.50 per night. Between 5 PM and 9 PM on
Saturday, the kiosk dispensed 209 movies and collected $562.00.
Solving which system of equations would yield the number of DVDs, d,
and the number of Blu-rays, b, that the kiosk dispensed during the 4-
hour period?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2303
11. The United States Senate has two voting members for each of the 50
states. The 113th Congress had a 4:1 male-to-female ratio in the Senate.
Forty-five of the male senators were Republican. Only 20 percent of
the female senators were Republican. How many senators in the 113th
Congress were Republican?
20(A)
49(B)
55(C)
65(D)
12. According to the Project on Student Debt prepared by The Institute for
College Access and Success, 7 out of 10 students graduating in 2012
from a four-year college in the United States had student loan debt. The
average amount borrowed per student was $29,400, which is up from
$18,750 in 2004. If student debt experiences the same total percent
increase over the next eight years, approximately how much will a
college student graduating in 2020 owe, assuming she takes out student
loans to pay for her education?
2304
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
In a 2010 poll, surveyors asked registered voters in four different New
York voting districts whether they would consider voting to ban fracking in
the state. Hydraulic fracturing, or “fracking,” is a mining process that
involves splitting rocks underground to remove natural gas. According to
$40,100(A)
$44,300(B)
$46,100(C)
$48,200(D)
13. Annalisa has 10 beanbags to throw in a game. She gets 7 points if a
beanbag lands in the smaller basket and 3 points if it lands in the larger
basket. If she gets b beanbags into the larger basket and the rest into the
smaller basket, which expression represents her total score?
3b(A)
3 b  + 7(B)
30 + 4 b(C)
70 – 4 b(D)
2305
ecologists, environmental damage can occur as a result of fracking,
including contamination of water. The results of the 2010 survey are shown
in the following table.
In Favor of Ban Against Ban No Opinion Total
District A 23,247 17,106 3,509 43,862
District B 13,024 12,760 2,117 27,901
District C 43,228 49,125 5,891 98,244
District D 30,563 29,771 3,205 63,539
Total 110,062 108,762 14,722 233,546
14. According to the data, which district had the smallest percentage of
voters with no opinion on fracking?
District A(A)
District B(B)
District C(C)
District D(D)
2306
15. A random follow-up survey was administered to 500 of the respondents
in District C. They were asked if they planned to vote in the next
election. The follow-up survey results were: 218 said they planned to
vote, 174 said they did not plan to vote, and 108 said they were unsure.
Based on the data from both the initial survey and the follow-up survey,
which of the following is most likely an accurate statement?
Approximately 19,000 people in District C who support a ban on
fracking can be expected to vote in the next election.
(A)
Approximately 21,000 people in District C who support a ban on
fracking can be expected to vote in the next election.
(B)
Approximately 43,000 people in District C who support a ban on
fracking can be expected to vote in the next election.
(C)
Approximately 48,000 people in District C who support a ban on
fracking can be expected to vote in the next election.
(D)
16. Based on the system of equations above, what is the value of the sum of
x and y?
2307
Bowling Scores
Ian Mae Jin
Game 1 160 110 120
Game 2 135 160 180
Game 3 185 140 105
Game 4 135 130 160
Game 5 185 110 135
Mean Score 160 130 140
Standard Deviation 22 19 27
(A)
3(B)
(C)
4(D)
2308
17. Ian, Mae, and Jin bowled five games during a bowling tournament. The
table above shows their scores. According to the data, which of the
following conclusions is correct?
Ian bowled the most consistently because the mean of his scores is
the highest.
(A)
Mae bowled the least consistently because the standard deviation of
her scores is the lowest.
(B)
Mae bowled the most consistently because the standard deviation of
her scores is the lowest.
(C)
Jin bowled the most consistently because the standard deviation of
his scores is the highest.
(D)
18. Which of the following are solutions to the quadratic equation ( x  + 3)
= 16?
2
x  = –19 and x  = 13(A)
x  = –7 and x  = 1(B)
x  = –1 and x  = 1(C)
x  = –1 and x  = 7(D)
2309
19. An architect is building a scale model of the Statue of Liberty. The real
statue measures 305 feet, 6 inches from the bottom of the base to the tip
of the torch. The architect plans to make her model 26 inches tall. If
Lady Liberty’s nose on the actual statue is 4 feet, 6 inches long, how
long in inches should the nose on the model be?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. If f ( x ) = 3 x  + 5, what is f (6) – f (2)?
11(A)
12(B)
17(C)
23(D)
2310
2311
21. The United States Fish and Wildlife Service classifies animals whose
populations are at low levels as either threatened or endangered.
Endangered species are animals that are currently on the brink of
extinction, whereas threatened species have a high probability of being
on the brink in the near future. Since 1990, the Northern Spotted Owl
has been listed as threatened. The figure above shows the populations
of the Northern Spotted Owl in a certain region in Oregon from 1994 to
2014. Based on the line of best fit shown in the figure, which of the
following values most accurately reflects the average change per year
in the number of Northern Spotted Owls?
–25(A)
–0.04(B)
0.04(C)
25(D)
22. The x-coordinates of the solutions to a system of equations are –4 and
2. Which of the following could be the system?
2312
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2313
23. The White-footed Mouse, named for its darker body fur and white feet,
is primarily found on the east coast of the United States, living in warm,
dry forests and brushland. A scientist in Virginia studied a sample of
200 white-footed mice to see how many offspring they had per birth.
The results of the study are recorded in the figure above. Based on the
data, given a population of 35,000 female white-footed mice living in
Virginia, how many would you expect to have a litter of seven or more
pups?
3,325(A)
4,375(B)
7,700(C)
15,400(D)
2314
24. Human beings have a resting heart rate and an active heart rate. The
resting heart rate is the rate at which the heart beats when a person is at
rest, engaging in no activity. The active heart rate rises as activity rises.
For a fairly active woman in her 20s, eight minutes of moderate
exercise results in a heart rate of about 90 beats per minute. After 20
minutes, the same woman’s heart rate will be about 117 beats per
minute. If the human heart rate increases at a constant rate as the time
spent exercising increases, which of the following linear models
represents this same woman’s heart rate, r, after t minutes of moderate
exercise?
r  = 0.15 t  – 5.3(A)
r  = 0.44 t  – 32(B)
r  = 2.25 t  + 72(C)
r  = 6.75 t  + 36(D)
2315
25. What would the percent increase in the area of the isosceles trapezoid
shown above be if MN and LO were each multiplied by 4 and MP was
reduced by 75%?
0(A)
25(B)
100(C)
400(D)
26. Chantal buys new furniture using store credit, which offers five-year,
no-interest financing. She sets up a payment plan to pay the debt off as
soon as possible. The function 40 x  + y  = 1,400 can be used to model
her payment plan, where x is the number of payments Chantal has made,
and y is the amount of debt remaining. If a solution to the equation is
(21, 560), which of the following statements is true?
Chantal pays $21 per month.(A)
Chantal pays $560 per month.(B)
After 21 payments, $560 remains to be paid.(C)
After 21 payments, Chantal will have paid off $560 of the debt.(D)
2316
27. Which of the following equations best represents the trend of the data
shown in the figure above?
y  = –2.4 x  + 30(A)
y  = –1.2 x  + 40(B)
y  = –0.8 x  + 40(C)
y  = –0.4 x  + 36(D)
28. The graph of f(x) passes through the point (5, 1). Through which point
does the graph of – f ( x  + 3) – 2 pass?
2317
(–2, –1)(A)
(2, –3)(B)
(2, 1)(C)
(8, –3)(D)
29. When a certain kitchen appliance store decides to sell a floor model, it
marks the retail price of the model down 25% and puts a “Floor Model
Sale” sign on it. Every 30 days after that, the price is marked down an
additional 10% until it is sold. The store decides to sell a floor model
refrigerator on January 15th. If the retail price of the refrigerator was
$1,500 and it is sold on April 2nd of the same year, what is the final
selling price, not including tax?
$820.13(A)
$825.00(B)
$911.25(C)
$1,012.50(D)
2318
Directions
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in
the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.
30. When New York City built its 34th Street subway station, which has
multiple underground levels, it built an elevator that runs along a
diagonal track approximately 170 feet long to connect the upper and
lower levels. The angle formed between the elevator track and the
bottom level is just under 30 degrees. What is the approximate vertical
distance in feet between the upper and lower levels of the subway
station?
85(A)
98(B)
120(C)
147(D)
Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer
in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles
accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly.
1.
Mark no more than one circle in any column.2.
2319
No question has a negative answer.3.
Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such
cases, grid only one answer.
4.
Mixed numbers such as  must be gridded as 3.5 or  .
(If  is entered into the grid as , it will be
interpreted as  , not  ).
5.
Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more
digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
6.
2320
2321
Boeing Jets Coach Business First Class
747-400 310 52 12
767-300 151 26 6
777-200 194 37 16
777-300 227 52 8
31. If  , what is the maximum possible whole
number value of a?
32. The table above shows the seating configuration for several
commercial airplanes. The day before a particular flight departs, a
travel agent books the last seat available for a client. If the seat is on
one of the two Boeing 777s, what is the probability that the seat is a
Business Class seat, assuming that all seats have an equal chance of
being the last one available?
2322
33. Heating water accounts for a good portion of the average home’s
energy consumption. Tankless water heaters, which run on natural gas,
are about 22% more energy efficient on average than electric hot water
heaters. However, a tankless hot water heater typically costs
significantly more. Suppose one tankless water heater costs $160 more
than twice as much as a conventional hot water heater. If both water
heaters cost $1,000 together, how many more dollars does the tankless
water heater cost than the conventional one?
34. Medically speaking, remission is a period in which the symptoms of a
disease or condition subside or, for some diseases, a period during
which the condition stops spreading or worsening. In a certain drug
trial in which a drug designed to treat cancer was tested, exactly 48%
of patients experienced remission while take the drug. What is the
fewest number of patients who could have participated in this trial?
2323
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information.
35. When the top of a pyramid (or a cone) is cut off, the remaining bottom
part is called a frustum. Suppose the top third (based on the height) of
the square pyramid shown above is cut off and discarded. What will be
the volume, in cubic meters, of the remaining frustum?
36. After a surface has been cleaned, bacteria begin to regrow. Because
bacteria reproduce in all directions, the area covered is usually in the
shape of a circle. The diameter of the circle in millimeters can give
scientists an idea of how long the bacteria have been growing. For a
certain kind of bacteria, the equation  can be
used to find the number of hours,  that the bacteria have been
growing. If the diameter of a circle of these bacteria is 0.12
millimeters, how many hours have the bacteria been growing?
2324
Daniel works for a pest control company and is spraying all the lawns in a
neighborhood. The figure above shows the layout of the neighborhood and
the times that Daniel started spraying the lawns at two of the houses. Each
lawn in the neighborhood is approximately 0.2 acres in size and takes the
same amount of time to spray.
37. How many minutes will it take Daniel to spray all of the lawns in the
neighborhood?
38. Daniel uses a mobile spray rig that holds 20 gallons of liquid. It takes 1
gallon to spray 2,500 square feet of lawn. How many times, including
the first time, will Daniel need to fill the spray rig, assuming he fills it
to the very top each time? [1 acre = 43,560 square feet]
2325
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2326
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Essay Test
50 Minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can
read and comprehend a passage and write an essay analyzing the
passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate that you have read
the passage carefully, present a clear and logical analysis, and use
language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer
booklet; except for the planning page of the answer booklet, you
will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have
enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and
keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people
who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you
write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to
those readers.
2327
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay in
response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
As you read the passage below, consider how Royal Dixon
uses
Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what you write on the
lined pages of your answer booklet will be evaluated.
1.
An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.2.
evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and
evidence.
stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or
appeals to emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.
1. Adapted from Royal Dixon, The Human Side of Animals. © 1918 by
Frederick A. Stokes Company, New York.
The trouble with science is that too often it leaves out feeling. If you
agree that we cannot treat men like machines, why should we put
2328
animals in that class? Why should we fall into the colossal ignorance
and conceit of cataloging every human-like action of animals under the
word “instinct”? Man had to battle with animals for untold ages before
he domesticated and made servants of them. He is just beginning to learn
that they were not created solely to furnish material for stories, or to
serve mankind, but that they also have an existence, a life of their own.
Man has long claimed dominion over animals and a right to assert that
dominion without restraint. This anthropocentric conceit is the same
thing that causes one nation to think it should rule the world, that the sun
and moon were made only for the laudable purpose of giving light unto a
chosen few, and that young lambs playing on a grassy hillside, near a
cool spring, are just so much mutton allowed to wander over man’s
domain until its flavor is improved.
It is time to remove the barriers, once believed impassable, which
man’s egotism has used as a screen to separate him from his lower
brothers. Our physical bodies are very similar to theirs except that ours
are almost always much inferior. Merely because we have a superior
intellect which enables us to rule and enslave the animals, shall we deny
them all intellect and all feeling?
It is possible to explain away all the marvelous things the animals do,
but after you have finished, there will still remain something over and
2329
above which quite defies all mechanistic interpretation. An old war
horse, for instance, lives over and over his battles in his dreams. He
neighs and paws, just as he did in real battle … This is only one of the
plethora of animal phenomena which man does not understand. If you
are able to explain these things to humanity, you will be classed as wise
indeed. Yet the average scientist explains them away, with the ignorance
and empty words of the unwise.
By a thorough application of psychological principles, it is possible to
show that man himself is merely a machine to be explained in terms of
neurons and nervous impulses, heredity and environment and reactions
to outside stimuli. But who is there who does not believe that there is
more to a man than that?
Animals have demonstrated long ago that they not only have as many
talents as human beings but that, under the influence of the same
environment, they form the same kinds of combinations to defend
themselves against enemies, to shelter themselves against heat and cold,
to build homes, to lay up a supply of food for the hard seasons. In fact,
all through the ages man has been imitating the animals in burrowing
through the earth, penetrating the waters, and now, at last, flying through
the air.
2330
There are also numerous signs, sounds and motions by which animals
communicate with each other, though to man these symbols of language
may not always be understandable. Dogs give barks indicating surprise,
pleasure and all other emotions. Cows will bellow for days when
mourning for their dead.
In their reading of the weather, animals undoubtedly possess superhuman
powers. Even squirrels can predict an unusually long and severe winter
and thus make adequate preparations. Some animals act as both
barometers and thermometers.
There is no limit to the marvelous things animals do. The ape or baboon
who puts a stone in the open oyster to prevent it from closing, or lifts
stones to crack nuts, or beats other apes with sticks … in all these
actions is actual reasoning. Indeed, there is nothing which man makes
with all his ingenious use of tools and instruments, of which some
suggestion may not be seen in animal creation.
2331
Write an essay in which you explain how Royal Dixon builds an
argument to persuade his audience that animals and humans have
much in common and humans should treat animals with more
respect. In your essay, analyze how Dixon uses one or more of
the features listed in the box that precedes the passage (or
features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and
persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant aspects of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Dixon’s
claims, but rather explain how Dixon builds an argument to
persuade his audience.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO
NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
2332
2333
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answer Key
READING TEST
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. B
2334
17. B
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. C
2335
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. D
52. B
2336
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answer Key
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. C
2337
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. D
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. C
2338
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. D
2339
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
2340
Answer Key
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. 144
17. 150
18. 4
19. 8
20. 3/25 or .12
2341
2342
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answer Key
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. B
2343
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. 22
32. 1/6 or .166 or .167
33. 440
34. 25
35. 9984
36. 88
37. 252
38. 4
2344
2345
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answers and Explanations
READING TEST
“Metamorphosis”
1. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Skim the passage to locate Gregor’s first reaction to
his transformation.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that Gregor woke “from
troubled dreams.” He only realizes “it wasn’t a dream” after he has
examined his new body and looked around his room to orient himself.
Choice (C) is the correct answer. “Nightmare” describes a dream that is
“troubled.”
2346
2. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Use context clues and tone to help determine the
meaning of the word. Use the surrounding text to paint a mental picture
of descriptive words. Finally, make sure the answer choice does not
alter the meaning of the sentence when inserted.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph in which the word appears
describes an average room appropriate for a person. Therefore, (D) is
the correct answer. “Proper” means “suitably appropriate” in this
context.
3. A
2347
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Look for Gregor’s thoughts and statements about
work. Use this as evidence of his attitude.
Getting to the Answer: Paragraphs 4 and 5 are essentially rants about
Gregor’s dissatisfaction with his job. He dislikes travelling, feels that
he works much harder than others, and expresses anger toward his boss.
Gregor feels that it is unfair that other salesmen have a life of “luxury”
while he has to wake up early. Choice (A) is the correct answer. Gregor
is resentful and bitter about his job.
4. C
2348
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Review your answer to the previous question.
Decide which lines of text give clues to how Gregor feels about his job.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) offers the best support. These lines
describe Gregor’s bitterness and the unfairness he perceives. He feels
he works much harder than the other salesmen, but that he would be
fired if he asked for better treatment or less work.
5. D
2349
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Ask yourself what purpose the author has in writing
the passage. What main point does the majority of the excerpt support?
Getting to the Answer: The events in the passage show that despite a
dramatic physical transformation, Gregor still plans to go to work.
Gregor consistently expresses unhappiness and bitterness about his job
but ignores his transformation into an insect because he feels he must
still go to work or he will be fired. In this situation, (D) is the correct
answer. Gregor’s duty to his job overrides reason and sense when he
plans to attend work despite the physical transformation that has left him
inhuman and helpless.
6. A
2350
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Reread the text, looking for evidence to support each
of the answer choices. Examine Gregor’s thoughts and statements for
clues about his personality.
Getting to the Answer: Based on Gregor’s statements about his work,
it is clear that he continues to work at a job he dislikes in order to
support his parents. He largely ignores his physical transformation, and
there is no evidence as to whether he excels at his work. Choice (A) is
the correct answer.
7. D
2351
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Review your answer to the previous question. Read
each choice and figure out which one provides specific support for that
answer.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) provides the best support. These
lines show that Gregor thinks it may be best to quit the job he hates, but
he will continue to work until he can pay off his parents’ debt.
8. A
2352
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Use context clues from the target sentence and
surrounding sentence. Predict the meaning of the word and look for a
match in the answer choices.
Getting to the Answer: Gregor is attempting to turn over in his bed,
but finds his legs and body are useless and unable to turn him over into
his preferred position. Choice (A) is the nearest match to the meaning of
“floundering” in this context.
9. B
2353
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about where the description of Gregor’s itch is
placed in the story. Look at the lines before and after it, and consider
why the author chose to include it at that particular point in the narrative.
Getting to the Answer: The description of the itch comes in the middle
of Gregor’s thoughts about his job. After attempting and failing to
relieve the itch, Gregor immediately goes back to thinking about his job-
related concerns. This shows that Gregor is so preoccupied with his job
that he is unable to recognize the seriousness—and absurdity—of his
situation. The correct answer is (B).
10. D
2354
Hillary Rodham Clinton Speech
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Contrast Gregor’s thoughts with the dark tone of the
rest of the excerpt. Think about how this phrase adds to or supports the
interpretations you made in previous questions.
Getting to the Answer: The author ends the excerpt with Gregor
completely disregarding the fact that he is now an insect. Gregor plans
to go to work as he always does, and the author draws attention to the
absurdity of this decision. Choice (D) is the correct choice. The author
uses the matter-of-fact tone in the sentence to emphasize that Gregor will
ignore his physical condition and go to work because he has such a
strong sense of duty to his family.
11. D
2355
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Consider the word choices Clinton uses throughout
her speech. Notice any recurring themes.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. Clinton says
that working to improve the lives of women will improve others’ lives
as well.
12. D
2356
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Beware of answer choices that are only vaguely
related to Clinton’s point. The correct answer will follow her purpose
closely.
Getting to the Answer: Clinton indicates that women’s rights issues
affect more than just women. Choice (D) is the best fit. These lines from
the text provide concrete examples of how improving the lives of
women improves their families’ lives as well.
13. A
2357
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Sometimes you can recognize similarities between
the word in question and a more familiar word. Consider what other
word or words “divisive” reminds you of. This will help you choose the
correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: “Divisive” is similar to “divide” and
“division,” both of which have to do with things being split or made
separate. Clinton is saying that though suffrage produced great conflict
and divided people more than other philosophical wars, it was
“bloodless.” Choice (A) is correct; “divisive” means “conflict-
producing.”
14. C
2358
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: You’re being asked to decide which statement
Clinton is most likely to agree with. Since the statement isn’t explicitly
mentioned in the speech, you must infer, or make a logical guess, based
on information in the speech.
Getting to the Answer: Clinton states that the world would be
improved if women were able to contribute more. She provides specific
examples of her vision for an improved world. Choice (C) is correct, as
it suggests that if women did not experience discrimination and had
more power, the world would be better off.
15. D
2359
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Try paraphrasing the answer you chose for the
previous test item. Then decide which quote from the speech supports
this idea.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) provides the best evidence. This
quote notes that women are discriminated against and that it is not just
women who suffer from this discrimination; there are global problems
that could benefit from women’s ideas.
16. B
2360
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: A word like “organized” can have several meanings,
depending on the context. Beware of choosing the most common
meaning, as it may not fit this situation.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) successfully conveys the idea of
the women’s suffrage movement being one in which many different
people worked together over a long period of time.
17. B
2361
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Be careful to assess not only what topics are
mentioned but also how Clinton discusses them.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is supported by the passage, which
claims that “Women must enjoy the right to participate fully in the social
and political lives of their countries if we want freedom and democracy
to thrive and endure.”
18. D
2362
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Notice how the stem of the question doesn’t ask you
to find evidence for an argument; it instead gives you the evidence (the
example of V-J Day) and then asks you to figure out what argument this
evidence supports.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. Clinton mentions V-J
Day as an example of something that resulted from cooperation between
men and women.
19. B
2363
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Pay close attention to the words Clinton uses in the
cited lines to describe problems that affect women.
Getting to the Answer: Clinton states that the problems that “diminish
the potential” (line 38) of women are “older” (line 37) and “deeply-
rooted” (line 37), making (B) the correct answer.
20. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Notice how the question is asking you to figure out
how the paragraph functions in relation to other parts of the speech.
Getting to the Answer: Clinton goes into specific detail in this
paragraph to provide examples of freedom. She very specifically states
what she means by freedom and accuses some of failing to respect
others’ freedom. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.
2364
Paired Passages—Tea
21. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be careful to choose an answer that is clearly
supported by the information in the passage. If it’s correct, you can find
it through reasoning, not guessing.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that the climate was not
right for growing tea “even in the equatorial colonies” (lines 26-27).
Choice (A) is the correct answer. Clearly, European tea-drinking nations
tried to grow tea in their equatorial colonies; that’s how they learned
that the climate there wasn’t right.
22. C
2365
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: The correct answer will be the reason you were able
to make the inference in the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) works logically. Europeans knew
that tea would not grow well in their colonies; this leads to the
conclusion that they tried.
23. C
2366
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: When a question refers to only one of the Paired
Passages, be sure to focus on the correct passage. Find where Passage 1
discusses Great Britain’s attempts to grow tea in India. Eliminate any
answer choices that are not supported by information in this section of
the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The last sentence of Passage 1 states that the
large quantities of tea imported from India allowed tea to become a
“staple” (line 45) in European households. You can infer that if the
British had not succeeded in growing tea in India, Europeans would
have had tea less often. Choice (C) is correct.
24. B
2367
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: You should be able to replace the original word with
the correct answer in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that in order to
“circumvent” the monopoly, European growers tried growing their own
tea. It makes sense that Europeans’ attempt at growing their own tea was
a way to “get around” the Chinese monopoly. Therefore, (B) is the best
choice.
25. C
2368
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Keep in mind that the graphic focuses on tea
consumption, not tea production.
Getting to the Answer: The last paragraph of Passage 1 describes
Britain’s great success growing tea in India, which resulted in great
increases in the amount of tea arriving in London. Therefore, (C) is a
reasonable conclusion that may be drawn by synthesizing information in
Passage 1 and the graphic.
26. A
2369
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be careful to assume only information that can
reasonably be inferred from the passage.
Getting to the Answer: It can probably be inferred that hosting guests
in Russia generally involves tea. Passage 2 emphasizes that Russian
hosts are judged based on the strength of their tea, and that Russians
have elaborate tea-making equipment. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
27. C
2370
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Identify the country associated with the correct
answer to the previous question and see what evidence fits.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that Russian tea ceremonies
are highly formal and that hosts are judged on their tea-making. Choice
(C) is the correct answer. The referenced lines support the conclusions
about Russia.
28. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Look for other words in this sentence that offer clues
to the word’s meaning.
Getting to the Answer: A noble, or high-ranking, class is likely to
have associations with formalism, so (D) is the correct answer.
2371
29. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Make sure to compare only the two countries being
asked about.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The passage notes that
cookies and cakes are served with tea in Germany, while foods served
with tea in France are “savory” and include puff pastry with cheese.
30. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Look for true statements about Passage 1. Then do
the same for Passage 2.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. Passage 1 focuses on an
earlier period in European history, while Passage 2 compares different
cultures within Europe.
2372
Spinosaurus Passage
31. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: A generalization is a broad statement that is true of
more than one thing. In this case, you’re looking for a statement that is
reflected in both passages.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the only choice supported by
both passages.
32. A
2373
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Global
Strategic Advice: Look for the answer choice that describes an
important idea that is supported throughout the text rather than a specific
detail.
Getting to the Answer: The passage is mostly about how the mystery
of the Spinosaurus fossils was decoded. Choice (A) is the best summary
of the central idea of the passage.
33. D
2374
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Locate the information about the fossils Stromer
expected to find and the fossils he actually found, particularly those
fossils’ sizes and ages.
Getting to the Answer: The passage explains that Stromer expected to
find fossils of early mammals, but instead found fossils that “dated back
to the Cretaceous period” (lines 9-10). This indicates that the fossils
were older than he expected. Eliminate choices A and B. Since the
Spinosaurus was larger than any mammal, (D) is correct.
34. D
2375
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Think about the overall message of the passage and
consider why the author would choose to write about this topic. Avoid
answers that are too specific and not supported in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The author’s tone, or attitude, toward the topic
of the passage demonstrates the point of view that the study of fossils
and ancient life has value. Choice (D) is the correct answer. The
evidence in the passage supports the idea that the author thinks the study
of fossils and ancient life is important.
35. B
2376
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Some answer choices may seem important.
However, if they don’t support your answer to the previous question,
they aren’t what you should choose.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The author’s use of the
word “tragically” in this quote shows that he or she thinks the study of
fossils and ancient life is important.
36. D
2377
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Though more than one answer choice might seem
acceptable, one comes closest to meaning the same as the phrase in
question.
Getting to the Answer: Earlier in the paragraph, the author explains
that two different bones gathered at different times both had a red line
coursing through them. This means that the bones were from the same
animal. Choice (D) fits best. “Against all odds” most nearly means
“despite low probability.”
37. C
2378
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Be careful to avoid answers that don’t make sense in
the context of the paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: These phrases help the author describe the
animal in a generally positive way. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
38. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Be careful of answers that make sense but are not
implied by the information presented in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The passage does not
explicitly state how Ibrahim became familiar with Stromer’s work, but
it is implied that he was familiar with Stromer’s work when he found
the fossils with the red lines.
2379
39. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that have nothing to do
with your answer to the previous question.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. It directly supports the
inference that Ibrahim was familiar with Stromer’s work, showing that
he used Stromer’s sketches to aid in creating his life-size replica of the
Spinosaurus.
40. C
2380
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Remember that sometimes words have more than one
meaning. Select the meaning that fits best in the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Ibrahim and his fellow researchers didn’t
know how the bones went together. They were making an educated guess
with the help of technology and Stromer’s sketches. Choice (C) is
correct. “Hypothetical” in this sentence means “possible.”
41. C
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about the order in which Stromer and
Ibrahim’s work with the fossils occurred.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is correct. Ibrahim used Stromer’s
sketches to create his models of the Spinosaurus. He built on Stromer’s
work to complete his own.
2381
Laughter Passage
42. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Think about the process described in each answer
choice and compare it to how Ibrahim went about building his replica of
the Spinosaurus.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the right choice. An architect
creating a model of a building would use tools and methods similar to
those used by Ibrahim, such as drawings and digital technologies.
43. B
2382
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: When a question asks you about the point of view of
an author, look for words and phrases in the passage that hint at the
author’s feelings or attitude toward the topic.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is the correct answer because the
author speaks quite positively of the studies throughout the passage.
44. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Reread each quote in the context of the passage.
Consider which one is the best evidence of the author’s point of view
toward laughter research.
Getting to the Answer: The word “finally” in line 14 helps
demonstrate that the author finds laughter research worthwhile. Choice
(B) is the best answer.
2383
45. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Detail
Strategic Advice: Think about the connection the passage makes
between laughter and the ability to accomplish challenging tasks.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is correct. The passage notes that
endorphin production is associated with “mental energy and positivity”
(line 27).
46. D
2384
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Notice that all of the answer choices are related to
the word “reputable,” but the correct answer will reflect the specific
context in which the word is used.
Getting to the Answer: “Reputable” in this case indicates that the
studies are official and are based on empirical data (data based on
observation and experiment). This makes (D), “credible,” the correct
choice.
47. B
2385
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Eliminate any answer choices that are not suggested
in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct because early results of
studies into laughter and health all seem to strengthen the relationship
between the two.
48. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Command of Evidence
Strategic Advice: Avoid answer choices like D that may not support a
general conclusion you could take from the passage.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. The author
expects future research will yield stronger evidence in support of
laughter’s health benefits.
2386
49. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Rhetoric
Strategic Advice: Look at the verbs provided in each of the answer
choices. Decide if the author wanted to “reach,” “support,” “justify,” or
“show” by discussing the function of endorphins.
Getting to the Answer: After asserting that laughter produces
endorphins, the author explains their function in order to help the reader
understand why a positive mental state may result. Choice (B) is the
correct answer.
50. D
2387
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Vocab-in-Context
Strategic Advice: Look carefully at the paragraph’s context to help you
decide on the correct answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: The phrase “Laughter is the best medicine”
(lines 15-16) is an example of an adage, or proverb. Therefore, (D) is
correct.
51. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Reading / Synthesis
Strategic Advice: Decide if the phrase “uplifting community” is a
reference to a person alone or a group of people.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. The graph shows that
shared humor with others most significantly increased pain tolerance in
individuals.
2388
52. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Reading / Inference
Strategic Advice: Watch out for answer choices that seem plausible but
are not directly supported by information in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that laughter seems to
provide protection from heart disease and that young people laugh less
as they get older. You can infer from this information that as young
people age, they have less protection from heart disease and are
therefore more at risk. Choice (B) is correct.
2389
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answers and Explanations
WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST
From Here to the Stars
1. B
2390
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the sentence and determine whether it is
grammatically complete. To form a grammatically complete sentence,
you must have an independent clause prior to a colon.
Getting to the Answer: As written, the text that comes before the colon
is not grammatically complete because it lacks an independent clause
with a subject and predicate. Choice (B) correctly adds a verb to the
clause before the comma. It also correctly uses the past tense to match
with the tense of “hadn’t” in the first sentence of the passage.
2. B
2391
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read the sentences surrounding the word to look for
context clues. Watch out for near synonyms that are not quite correct.
Getting to the Answer: The word “issues” is not precise and does a
poor job of conveying the meaning of the sentence. A better word, such
as (B), “adversity,” more precisely conveys hardship, difficulties, or
painful situations.
3. C
2392
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine whether a clause is independent or
dependent to decide between a comma and a semicolon.
Getting to the Answer: The clause is dependent, as it contains only a
noun (“an idea”) and a relative clause to modify it. A semicolon is used
to separate two independent clauses, so it cannot be used here. A comma
is the appropriate punctuation mark to separate the dependent clause
from the independent clause in the sentence. Choice (C) is the correct
answer.
4. A
2393
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Figure out the role of the underlined phrase in the
sentence to find the correct punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: “Like lift and drag on wings” is a parenthetical
element provided as an example. The sentence is correctly punctuated as
written since it uses dashes to set off the parenthetical element. The
answer is (A).
5. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Read the paragraph and summarize the main idea to
predict an answer. Then look for an answer that matches your
prediction.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) correctly establishes that Kranz
stood out as a leader in a time of crisis.
2394
6. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Shifts in Construction
Strategic Advice: Read the paragraph to establish the correct verb
tense for the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Other verbs in the paragraph, such as “were”
and “fueled,” are past tense and indicate that another past tense verb is
needed for this sentence. Choice (A) is correct, because it uses the past
tense “was” and logically transitions into the explanation about Kranz’s
vest making him easy to spot.
7. A
2395
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Quickly summarize the main idea of the paragraph.
Eliminate choices that may be accurate but do not support this primary
focus.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) clearly supports the main focus of
the paragraph by drawing attention to Kranz’s role as a leader in
Mission Control.
8. C
2396
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Be careful with homophones. Figure out the part of
speech and what the target word refers to if it is a pronoun.
Getting to the Answer: “Their” is a possessive pronoun indicating
ownership. “There” is a pronoun that replaces a place name. “They’re”
is a contraction that is short for “they are.” Choice (C), “There,” is the
correct choice.
9. A
2397
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: When faced with unfamiliar words, eliminate clearly
incorrect answers first.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph indicates that Kranz did not
intend for the vest to be stylish. Kranz wore the vest as a military type of
symbol, but the correct answer will need to be in contrast to that idea.
Choice (A) is the correct answer. The word “sartorial” means “having
to do with clothing.”
10. D
2398
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Think about the commonly confused pair
between/among. Consider which preposition is usually used to
reference two distinct objects.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) appropriately selects the word
“between” because the objects “meetings” and “calculations” are two
distinct items. “Among” is used for more than two distinct items.
11. C
2399
The UK and the Euro
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read the target sentence and the sentence before it.
Figure out whom or what the pronoun refers to and make sure it matches
the antecedent in number.
Getting to the Answer: The plural antecedent is found in the previous
sentence (“Kranz and the NASA staff”) and is clearly plural. Choice (C)
correctly uses a plural pronoun to refer back to a plural antecedent.
12. D
2400
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Read carefully to identify the context of the
underlined word. Then, choose the word that best fits the content of the
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: You’re looking for a word that suggests that the
organization has developed over time, as is stated in the last part of the
sentence. “Built,” (D), best fits the context of the sentence.
13. B
2401
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Read the entire sentence to get a better sense for
which punctuation would be correct.
Getting to the Answer: A colon will introduce an explanation of the
“key feature,” allowing the rest of the sentence to elaborate on the
preceding clause. Choice (B) is correct. In this case, the colon prompts
the reader to see that the part of the sentence after the colon defines the
phrase “key feature.”
14. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Watch out for any choices that would make the
sentence seem out of place.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is correct. Sentence 3 offers a
transition to a specific discussion of those risks in the next paragraph.
2402
15. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Avoid choices that are redundant, or use more words
than necessary to communicate an idea.
Getting to the Answer: All of the choices communicate the same idea,
but one does so with a greater economy of language. Choice (B) uses a
minimal number of well-chosen words to revise the text.
16. C
2403
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Watch out for answer choices that correctly identify
supporting points but do not explain the main claim.
Getting to the Answer: The paragraph contains evidence, including
decreased taxable wealth and decreased control over interest rates, to
support the main claim. Choice (C) is correct. It expresses the main
claim of the paragraph and is supported by the evidence.
17. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the text carefully. Notice that the existing
structure creates a run-on sentence. Then consider which answer choice
will create two complete sentences.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) revises the run-on sentence to
create two grammatically complete sentences.
2404
18. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Find the main claim in the paragraph and then come
back to the question.
Getting to the Answer: The statement found in (C) best supports the
main claim in the paragraph.
19. A
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Watch out for choices that imply little relationship
between the EU and the UK.
Getting to the Answer: “Intertwined” most accurately reflects the
content of the text, because it implies a complex economic relationship
between the UK and the Eurozone. Therefore, (A) is correct. No change
is necessary.
2405
20. C
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Find the central idea of the paragraph and then come
back to the question.
Getting to the Answer: The central idea in the paragraph is that
economic downturns in the Eurozone also affect the UK. Choice (C) is
correct.
21. D
2406
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Organization
Strategic Advice: Decide which transition word makes the most sense
in the context of the sentence by reading each choice in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The correct choice should connect the two
sentences as the text transitions from economic concerns to those of
“security, power, and protection.” The word “however” is the best
transition because it provides a logical contrast between the ideas in the
passage. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
22. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Consider which punctuation will correctly set off the
parenthetical information in this sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Dashes are often used to offset parenthetical
sentence elements. Choice (B) is correct.
2407
Coffee: The Buzz on Beans
23. D
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Review each answer choice and decide which makes
the most sense in terms of what the first sentence says.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. “These”
makes the most sense in terms of the context of the sentence.
24. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Make sure that verbs agree with the subject. Check
back and figure out what the subject is and then see if it agrees.
Getting to the Answer: The word “cherries” requires a plural verb.
Choice (C) is the correct answer.
2408
25. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence carefully whenever you
see a shift in tense or verb form. Decide if this change is logically
correct in the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The verbs in a sentence need to be in parallel
form. Choice (B) is in parallel form with the first verb, so it is the
correct answer.
26. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Beware of some answer choices that may have
similar meanings but do not fit into the context of this sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The word “boasted” is the best fit for the
context of the sentence, so (D) is the correct answer.
2409
27. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Pay close attention to commas to ensure that they do
not create run-on sentences.
Getting to the Answer: Notice that this sentence contains two
complete thoughts. Choice (D) is the correct answer because it
combines the two complete thoughts into one sentence in the best way.
28. A
2410
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the best conclusion, look for the choice that
summarizes the main points of the paragraph and best completes the
paragraph.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (A) is the correct answer. The sentence
does the best job of retelling what the paragraph is mostly about,
therefore providing an effective conclusion.
29. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Study the words in the series and see where commas
might need to be placed or eliminated.
Getting to the Answer: The SAT requires lists of three to have
commas after the first two items in the list, not just the first item.
Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
2411
30. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Replace the word with the other answer choices. See
which word works best in the context of the sentence.
Getting to the Answer: One answer choice indicates the correct
relationship between coffeehouses and counterculture, and that is (C).
“Associated” works best within the context of the sentence.
31. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: To find the main topic of a paragraph, identify
important details and summarize them in a sentence or two. Then find
the answer choice that is the closest to your summary.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (C) is the correct answer. The sentence
best explains the main topic of the paragraph.
2412
32. D
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Punctuation
Strategic Advice: Determine the relationship between the two parts of
this sentence, and then consider the purpose of the various forms of
punctuation.
Getting to the Answer: A colon indicates that the rest of the sentence
will be a list or an explanation. Choice (D) is the correct answer, as it
shows the correct relationship between both parts of the sentence.
33. D
2413
Predicting Nature’s Light Show
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Read the complete sentence carefully and look for
sections that do not seem to follow logically.
Getting to the Answer: The modifiers need to be in the proper order
so the sentence’s meaning is clear. In (D), the modifiers are in a logical
order.
34. C
2414
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Recall that a pronoun must agree with its antecedent,
or the word to which it refers. Begin by identifying the antecedent of the
pronoun. Then, check each choice against the antecedent to find the best
match.
Getting to the Answer: The antecedent for the pronoun “their” is “this
phenomenon,” which appears in the main clause. The antecedent and its
pronoun do not currently agree as “this phenomenon” is singular and
“their” is plural. Although the “s” in “Lights” implies many lights, it is
still considered a singular phenomenon and so requires a singular
pronoun. Choice (C) is the correct answer.
35. D
2415
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Ensure the correct choice is accurate without
eliminating other possibilities. Some choices, while correct in some
context, are limiting and exclude other possible viewing locations.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. The
Northern Hemisphere is referred to later in the passage; it also provides
an accurate, precise location for best viewing the Northern Lights
without excluding other possible viewing locations.
36. D
2416
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Not every key fact in the passage must appear in the
introduction. Instead, make sure the introduction focuses on the larger
meaning of the passage, and that the main idea is directly and fully, not
partially, stated.
Getting to the Answer: Choice (D) is the correct answer. It mentions
both scientists collecting data and the conclusions they come to by using
this data, the main idea of the passage.
37. B
2417
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: When choosing the correct verb, note how it alters
the relationship between the subject, the “sun,” and the stated action, in
this case “storm activity.”
Getting to the Answer: Choice (B) is correct. The verb “experiences”
is the only one that states a direct action upon the subject, the sun, rather
than the sun “observing” an action occurring externally, as suggested by
the other verbs.
38. A
2418
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Development
Strategic Advice: Reread the paragraph to understand the author’s
claims. Which answer choice provides a fact that would best support
these claims? Make sure the answer choice does not digress from the
progression of ideas.
Getting to the Answer: The speed of the solar flare is referenced as
being three times the speed of normal solar winds, but neither exact
speed is given. To make a stronger case for the author’s statements, at
least one of these speeds should be stated. Therefore, (A) is the correct
answer.
39. B
2419
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: The placement of the adjective has a great effect
upon the intention of the noun. Read the sentence carefully to determine
where the adjective makes the most sense.
Getting to the Answer: By placing the adjective before the nouns, (B)
ensures that only those scientists and amateurs interested in the topic at
hand use the specific tools mentioned in this passage.
40. C
2420
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Generalized statements with inexact definitions that
border on opinion have no place in a scientific essay. The tone and style
must exhibit a reliance on verifiable statements.
Getting to the Answer: Since “readily available” cannot be quantified
and implies the author’s opinion, using the word “specific” in (C)
creates a more exact statement that precedes the information on the
precise tools used.
41. B
2421
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Writing & Language / Usage
Strategic Advice: Read closely to find the subject of the verb.
Sometimes, the closest noun is not the subject.
Getting to the Answer: The subject of the sentence is “strength and
direction,” not “energy.” Choice (B) is the correct answer because it
matches the subject in number and maintains a consistent tense with the
rest of the passage.
42. B
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Effective Language Use
Strategic Advice: Eliminate extraneous and redundant information (“the
public”) and needless prepositions. Then reorder the verb and nouns to
achieve the most efficient language possible.
Getting to the Answer: Making adjustments to the passage language as
shown in (B) results in the most concise phrasing.
2422
43. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Sentence Formation
Strategic Advice: Consider the meanings of each introductory word
carefully. Use the context clues in the rest of the sentence to choose the
correct word.
Getting to the Answer: The context clues in the rest of the sentence
reveal that the Northern Lights can create communication and weather
problems and yet are still beautiful. Keeping the word “While” makes
the most sense in this context, so (A) is the correct answer.
44. D
2423
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Writing & Language / Quantitative
Strategic Advice: Reread paragraph 4 for information that will help
you understand how to read the graphic. Use that information to
calculate the precise start and end time for the solar flare as indicated in
the graphic.
Getting to the Answer: The passage states that a solar flare is
represented by any Kp-Index of 5 or higher. While there is one three-
hour period where the Kp-Index reached 6, there is a consistent period
where the chart shows readings of level 5 or higher. Choice (D) is the
correct answer. This choice gives the complete time period showing a
reading of level 5 or higher, according to the chart.
2424
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: NO-CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The average rate of change for a linear function is the
same as the slope of the line.
Getting to the Answer: Find the slope of the line by either using the
slope formula or by counting the rise and the run from one point to the
next. If you start at (0, –3), the line rises 5 units and runs 8 units to get to
(8, 2), so the slope, or average rate of change, is  .
2. D
2425
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Factored form reveals the roots, or x-intercepts, of
the equation, so start by identifying the x-intercepts on the graph.
Getting to the Answer: A root of an equation is an x-value that
corresponds to a y-value of 0. The x-intercepts of the graph, and
therefore the roots of the equation, are x  = –1 and x  = 5. When x  = –1,
x  + 1 = 0, so one of the factors is x  + 1. When x  = 5, x  – 5 = 0, so the
other factor is x  – 5. The equation in (D) is the only one that contains
these factors and is therefore correct.
3. C
2426
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: You do not need a calculator to answer this question
—just use the rules of exponents. Remember, when raising a power to a
power, you multiply the exponents.
Getting to the Answer: Substitute the values given in the question into
the formula. Then simplify using the rules of exponents.
4. B
2427
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question. You
could start by cross-multiplying to get rid of the denominators, but
simplifying the numerators first will make the calculations easier.
Getting to the Answer:
5. D
2428
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Whenever a quantity repeatedly increases or
decreases by the same percentage (or fraction) over time, an exponential
model can be used to represent the situation. Choice B is not an
exponential equation, so you can eliminate it right away.
Getting to the Answer: The amount of garbage is decreasing, so the
scenario represents exponential decay and you can use the form y  = a
× (1 – r ) , where a is the initial amount, r is the rate of decay, and t is
time in years. The initial amount is 1,800, the rate is 3%, or 0.03, and t
is unknown, so the correct equation is y  = 1,800 × (1 – 0.03) , which
simplifies to y  = 1,800 × 0.97 .
t
t
t
6. B
2429
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When the denominators of rational expressions are
the same, you can combine the numerators and keep the same
denominator.
Getting to the Answer: The terms in the expression have the same
denominator, x  + 5, so their numerators can be subtracted. Simply
combine like terms and keep the denominator the same. Don’t forget to
distribute the negative to both 3x and –8.
7. C
2430
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The slope-intercept form of a line is y  = mx  + b . In
this question, the graph passes through the origin, so b is 0.
Getting to the Answer: Because b is 0, the equation of this line in
slope-intercept form is y  = mx , which can be rewritten as  .
Count the rise and the run from the origin, (0, 0), to the next point, (3, 1),
to get a slope of  .
8. D
2431
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When multiplying polynomials, carefully multiply
each term in the first factor by each term in the second factor. This
question doesn’t ask for the entire product, so check to make sure you
answered the right question (the coefficient of x).
Getting to the Answer: After performing the initial multiplication,
look for the x-terms and add their coefficients. To save time, you do not
need to simplify the other terms in the expression.
The coefficient of x  is 35 + 3 = 38.
9. C
2432
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Your only choice for this question is to compare each
statement to the graph. Cross out false statements as you go. Stop when
you find a true statement.
Getting to the Answer: A graph is decreasing when the slope is
negative; it is increasing when the slope is positive. Eliminate A
because there are some segments on the graph that have a positive slope.
Eliminate B because the slope is negative, not positive, between 2009
and 2010. Choice (C) is correct because the slope is negative for each
segment between 2004 and 2007 and also between 2009 and 2011.
10. A
2433
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Don’t answer this question too quickly. The shading
is below the line, but that does not necessarily mean that the symbol in
the equation will be the less than symbol (<).
Getting to the Answer: Start by writing the equation of the dashed line
shown in the graph in slope-intercept form. Then use the shading to
determine the correct inequality symbol. The slope of the line shown in
the graph is  and the y-intercept is –3, so the equation of the dashed
line is  . The graph is shaded below the boundary line, so
use the < symbol. When written in slope-intercept form, the inequality is
 . The inequalities in the answer choices are given in
standard form ( Ax  + By  = C ), so rewrite your answer in this form.
Don’t forget to reverse the inequality symbol if you multiply or divide
by a negative number.
2434
11. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: When you’re given only one equation but two
variables, chances are that you can’t actually solve the equation (unless
one variable happens to cancel out), but rather that you are going to need
to manipulate it to look like the desired expression (which in this
question is  ).
Getting to the Answer: This type of question can’t be planned out
step-by-step—instead, start with basic algebraic manipulations and see
where they take you. First, distribute the  on the left side of the
equation to get 2a + 5b = b. There are two terms that have a b, so
subtract 5b from both sides to get 2a = –4b. You’re hoping for plain b in
the numerator, so divide both sides by –4 to get  . Finally,
divide both sides by a to move the a into a denominator position under
b. The result is  , which means the ratio  is  , or  .
2435
12. D
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Graphically, a system of linear equations that has no
solution indicates two parallel lines, or in other words, two lines that
have the same slope. So, write each of the equations in slope-intercept
form ( y  = mx  + b ) and set their slopes (m) equal to each other to solve
for a. Before finding the slopes, multiply the top equation by 3 to make it
easier to manipulate.
Getting to the Answer:
The slope of the first line is  and the slope of the second line is 
.
2436
13. A
2437
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to units, particularly when a
question involves rates. The $3.00 for the first  mile is a flat fee.
Before you write the inequality, you need to find the per mile rate for the
remaining miles.
Getting to the Answer: The taxi charges $3.00 for the first  mile,
which is a flat fee, so write 3. The additional charge is $0.25 per 
mile, or 0.25 times 8 = $2.00 per mile. The number of miles after the
first  mile is  , so the cost of the trip, not including the first 
mile is  . This means the cost of the whole trip is
 . The clue “no more than $20” means that much or
less, so use the symbol ≤. The inequality is  ,
which simplifies to 2.5 + 2 m  ≤ 20.
14. D
2438
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Knowing how to write the equation of a circle will
earn you points on Test Day. You’ll also need to be able to algebraically
expand that equation. Don’t forget—when you square a binomial, you
should write it as repeated multiplication and use FOIL.
Getting to the Answer: First, find the center and the radius of the
circle: Each grid-line represents one unit on the graph, so the center is
(0, 2), and the radius is 6. Substitute these values into the equation for a
circle, ( x  – h )  + ( y  – k )  = r , and then simplify until the equation
looks like the one given in the question:
There is no x term, so a  = 0. The coefficient of y is –4 and c  = 32, so
ab  + c  = (0)(–4) + 32 = 32.
2 2 2
2439
15. A
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Quadratic equations can be written in several
different forms, each of which reveals something special about the
graph. The maximum value of a quadratic function is equal to the y-
value of the vertex of its graph, so vertex form, y  = a ( x  – h )  + k ,
reveals the maximum.
Getting to the Answer: The quadratic equation is given in standard
form, so use the method of completing the square to rewrite the equation
in vertex form. Then, read the value of k to find the maximum height of
the projectile.
The vertex is (2, 72), so the maximum height is 72 feet.
2
2440
16. 144
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: There is only one equation given and it has two
variables. This means that you don’t have enough information to solve
for either variable. Instead, look for the relationship between the left
side of the equation and the other expression that you are trying to find.
Getting to the Answer: Start by clearing the fractions by multiplying
both sides of the original equation by 12. This yields the expression that
you are looking for, 9 x  + 10 y , so no further work is required—just
read the value on the right-hand side of the equation.
17. 150
2441
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: There are 360° in a circle. You need to figure out
how many degrees each minute on the face of a clock represents.
Getting to the Answer: There are 60 minutes on the face of an
analogue clock. This means that each minute represents 360 ÷ 60 = 6
degrees. Between 3:20 and 3:45, 25 minutes go by, so the minute hand
rotates 25 × 6 = 150 degrees.
18. 4
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Start by marking up the figure with the information
you’re given. You know the length of EB, which is 3. You also know the
triangle is equilateral, which means all three sides are congruent and all
three angles are 60°. This means angles A and B are both 60°, which
further means that triangles BEF and ADC are 30-60-90 triangles, and
therefore similar by the AAA theorem.
2442
Getting to the Answer: Remember, 30-60-90 triangles have side
lengths in the ratio  , which means if EB is 3, then BF (the
hypotenuse) is 2(3) = 6. Now, because you know the ratio of BF to FC,
you can find the length of FC:
Now you can find the length of each side of the original equilateral
triangle: 6 + 8 = 14, which is the length of AC, the hypotenuse of triangle
ADC. This means side AD, being the shorter leg of triangle ADC, is 14 ÷
2 = 7. You now have enough information to find the length of DE, which
is AB – ( AD  + EB ) = 14 – (7 + 3) = 4.
19. 8
2443
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Read the question carefully to determine what part of
the expression you need to simplify and what part you don’t. Sometimes,
you can work a simpler question and still arrive at the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: The question only asks for the exponent on x,
so you do not have to simplify the coefficients. Rewrite the expression
without the coefficients and simplify using the rules of exponents.
The exponent on x is 8.
20. 3/25 or .12
Difficulty: Hard
2444
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: When a question involving a function provides one
or more ordered pairs, substitute them into the function to see what
information you can glean.
Getting to the Answer: Start with x = 0 because doing so often results
in the elimination of a variable.
Now you know the value of a, so the equation looks like f(x) = 3 • b .
Substitute the second pair of values into the new equation:
x
x
2445
The exponential function is f ( x ) = 3 • 5 . The final step is to find the
value being asked for, f (–2). Substitute –2 for x and simplify:
Grid this in as 3/25 or .12.
x
2446
SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answers and Explanations
MATH TEST: CALCULATOR SECTION
1. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: A flat fee does not depend on the variable and is,
therefore, a constant. A unit rate, however, is always multiplied by the
independent variable.
Getting to the Answer: The total cost consists of a flat installation fee
and a price per square foot. The installation fee is a one-time fee that
does not depend on the number of feet ordered and therefore should not
be multiplied by f. This means that 199 is the installation fee. The other
expression in the equation, 3.29f, represents the cost per square foot (the
unit price) times the number of feet, f. Hence, 3.29 must represent the
cost of one square foot of carpet.
2447
2. B
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Quickly read each answer choice. Cross out false
statements as you go. Stop when you arrive at a true statement.
Getting to the Answer: There is no long “tail” of data on either side,
so the shape is not skewed and you can eliminate A. The shape of the
data is symmetric because the data is fairly evenly spread out, with
about half of the ages above and half below the median. When the shape
of a data set is symmetric, the mean is approximately equal to the
median so (B) is correct. Don’t let D fool you—the median is 55, not
the mean.
3. A
2448
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question. If
you distribute the  , it creates messy numbers. Instead, clear the
fraction by multiplying both sides of the equation by 3. Then use inverse
operations to solve for x.
Getting to the Answer:
4. A
2449
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Quadratic equations can be written in several
different forms, each of which reveals something special about the
graph. For example, factored form reveals the solutions, or x-intercepts,
of the graph, while standard form reveals the y-intercept.
Getting to the Answer: The minimum value of a quadratic function is
equal to the y-value of the vertex of its graph, so vertex form, y  = a ( x
– h )  + k , reveals the minimum without doing any additional work.
Choice (A) is the only equation written in this form and therefore must
be correct. The minimum value of this function is  .
2
5. D
2450
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Organize information as you read the question; the
total cost includes the per-pound rate, the cost of the basket, and the 6%
tax on the entire purchase.
Getting to the Answer: If a customer buys p pounds of apples, the total
cost is the per-pound rate, $1.97, multiplied by the number of pounds, p,
plus the $3.00 fee for the basket, or 1.97 p  + 3. This expression
represents the untaxed amount of the purchase. To calculate the amount
that includes the 6% tax, multiply the untaxed amount by 1.06. So the
equation is c  = 1.06(1.97 p  + 3).
6. C
2451
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: The intersection (overlap) of the two shaded regions
is the solution to the system of inequalities.
Getting to the Answer: The point (4, 1) lies within the intersection of
the two shaded regions, so it is a solution to the system shown in the
figure. None of the other points lie within the intersection.
7. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Check that you answered the right question. Make
sure your answer satisfies all of the guidelines given in the bulleted list
as well as the criteria set forth in the question itself (includes as many
lots as possible).
2452
Getting to the Answer: Start with the smallest possible lot size, 3,000
square feet. The next lot must be at least 30% larger, so multiply by 1.3
to get 3,900 square feet. Then, round up to the next thousand (which is
not necessarily the nearest thousand) to meet the tax assessment
requirement. You must always round up because rounding down would
make the subsequent lot size less than 30% larger than the one before it.
Continue this process until you reach the maximum square footage
allowed, 15,000 square feet.
3,000 × 1.3 = 3,900 → 4,000
4,000 × 1.3 = 5,200 → 6,000
6,000 × 1.3 = 7,800 → 8,000
8,000 × 1.3 = 10,400 → 11,000
11,000 × 1.3 = 14,300 → 15,000
8. D
2453
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Functions
Strategic Advice: Determine whether the change in the amount of
pollution is a common difference (linear function) or a common ratio
(exponential function), or if it changes direction (quadratic or
polynomial function).
Getting to the Answer: Each year, the amount of pollution should be
100 – 8 = 92% of the year before. You can write 92% as  , which
represents a common ratio from one year to the next. This means that the
best model is an exponential function of the form y  = a  • (0.92) .x
9. A
2454
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: Don’t spend too much time reading the scientific
explanation of the equation. Focus on the question at the very end—it’s
just asking you to solve the equation for r, or in other words to get r on
one side of the equation by itself.
Getting to the Answer: Solve for r using inverse operations. First,
square both sides of the equation to remove the radical. Then, multiply
both sides by r to get the r out of the denominator. Finally, divide both
sides by v .2
10. D
2455
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: One equation should represent the total number of
rentals, while the other equation represents the cost of the rentals.
Getting to the Answer: The number of DVDs plus the number of Blu-
rays equals the total number of rentals, 209. Therefore, one equation is
d  + b  = 209. This means you can eliminate choices B and C. Now
write the cost equation: cost per DVD times number of DVDs (2d) plus
cost per Blu-ray times number of Blu-rays (3.5b) equals the total amount
collected (562). The cost equation is 2 d  + 3.5 b  = 562. Don’t let A fool
you. The question says nothing about the cost per hour so there is no
reason to divide the cost by 4. Choice (D) is correct.
11. B
2456
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into short steps. Step 1: Find the
number of female senators. Step 2: Use that number to find the number of
female Republican senators. Step 3: Find the total number of Republican
senators.
Getting to the Answer: Each of the 50 states gets 2 voting members in
the Senate, so there are 50 × 2 = 100 senators. The ratio of males to
females in the 113th Congress was 4:1, so 4 parts male plus 1 part
female equals a total of 100 senators. Write this as 4 x  + x  = 100,
where x represents one part and therefore the number of females. Next,
simplify and solve the equation to find that x  = 20 female senators. To
find the number of female senators that were Republican, multiply 20%
(or 0.20) times 20 to get 4. Finally, add to get 45 male plus 4 female =
49 Republican senators in the 113th Congress.
12. C
2457
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Find the percent increase using this formula: amount
of change divided by original amount. Then apply the same percent
increase to the amount for 2012.
Getting to the Answer: The amount of increase is 29,400 – 18,750 =
10,650, so the percent increase is 10,650 ÷ 18,750 = 0.568 = 56.8%
over 8 years. If the total percent increase over the next 8 years is the
same, the average student who borrowed money will have loans totaling
29,400 × 1.568 = 46,099.20, or about $46,100.
13. D
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is determining
how many beanbags go into each size basket. If there are 10 beanbags
total and b go into the larger basket, the rest, or 10 – b , must go into the
smaller basket.
Getting to the Answer: Write the expression in words first: points per
large basket (3) times number of beanbags in large basket (b), plus
points per small basket (7) times number of beanbags in small basket
(10 – b ). Now, translate the words to numbers, variables, and
operations: 3 b  + 7(10 – b ). This is not one of the answer choices, so
simplify the expression by distributing the 7 and then combining like
terms: 3 b  + 7(10 – b ) = 3 b  + 70 – 7 b  = 70 – 4 b .
14. D
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Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: You do not need to use all of the information
presented in the table to find the answer. Read the question carefully to
make sure you use only what you do need.
Getting to the Answer: To calculate the percentage of the voters in
each district who had no opinion on fracking, divide the number of
voters in that district who had no opinion by the total number of voters
in that district. Choice (D) is correct because 3,205 ÷ 63,539 ≈ 0.05 =
5%, which is a lower percentage than in the other three districts that
were polled (District A = 8%; District B = 7.6%; District C = 6%).
15. A
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Scan the answer choices quickly to narrow down the
amount of information in the table that you need to analyze. Each choice
makes a statement about people from District C who support a ban on
fracking that can be expected to vote in the next election.
Getting to the Answer: To extrapolate from the follow-up survey
sample, multiply the fraction of people from the follow-up survey who
plan to vote in the upcoming election  by the number of people in
District C who support a ban on fracking (43,228) to get 18,847.408, or
approximately 19,000 people.
16. B
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Solve the system of equations using substitution.
Then, check that you answered the right question (find the sum of x and
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y).
Getting to the Answer: First, solve the second equation for x to get x
= 3 y  – 11, and then substitute this equation into the first equation to find
y:
Now, substitute the result into x  = 3 y  – 11 and simplify to find x:
The question asks for the sum, so add x and y to get
 .
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17. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: The keyword in the answer choices is “consistently,”
which relates to how spread out a player’s scores are. Standard
deviation, not mean, is a measure of spread so you can eliminate choice
A right away.
Getting to the Answer: A lower standard deviation indicates scores
that are less spread out and therefore more consistent. Likewise, a
higher standard deviation indicates scores that are more spread out and
therefore less consistent. Notice the opposite nature of this relationship:
lower standard deviation = more consistent; higher standard deviation =
less consistent. Choice (C) is correct because the standard deviation of
Mae’s scores is the lowest, which means she bowled the most
consistently.
18. B
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: Notice the structure of the equation. The expression
on the left side of the equation is the square of a quantity, so start by
taking the square root of both sides.
Getting to the Answer: After taking the square roots, solve the
resulting equations. Remember, 4  = 16 and (–4)  = 16, so there will be
two equations to solve.
2 2
19. C
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to the units. You need to convert
all of the dimensions to inches, and then set up and solve a proportion.
Getting to the Answer: The real statue’s height is 305 × 12 = 3,660 +
6 = 3,666 inches; the length of the nose on the real statue is 4 × 12 = 48
+ 6 = 54 inches; the height of the model statue is 26 inches; the length of
the nose on the model is unknown.
20. B
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: When evaluating a function, substitute the value
inside the parentheses for x in the equation.
Getting to the Answer: Evaluate the function at x  = 6 and at x  = 2,
and then subtract the second output from the first. Note that this is not the
same as first subtracting 6 – 2 and then evaluating the function at x  = 4.
f (6) = 3(6) + 5 = 18 + 5 = 23
f (2) = 3(2) + 5 = 6 + 5 = 11
f (6) – f (2) = 23 – 11 = 12
21. A
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: Examine the graph, paying careful attention to units
and labels. Here, the years increase by 2 for each grid line and the
number of owls by 25.
Getting to the Answer: The average change per year is the same as the
slope of the line of best fit. Find the slope of the line of best fit using the
slope formula,  , and any two points that lie on (or very
close to) the line. Using the two endpoints of the data, (1994, 1,200) and
(2014, 700), the average change per year is  .
Pay careful attention to the sign of the answer—the number of owls is
decreasing, so the rate of change is negative.
22. D
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Quadratics
Strategic Advice: The solution to a system of equations is the point(s)
where their graphs intersect. You could solve this question
algebraically, one system at a time, but this is not time efficient. Instead,
graph each pair of equations in your graphing calculator and look for the
graphs that intersect at x  = –4 and x  = 2.
Getting to the Answer: The graphs of the equations in A and B don’t
intersect at all, so you can eliminate them right away. The graphs in C
intersect, but both points of intersection have a positive x-coordinate.
This means (D) must be correct. The graph looks like:
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23. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: Read the question, identifying parts of the graphic
you need—the question asks about litters of 7 or more pups, so you’ll
only use the heights of the bars for 7, 8, and 9 pups.
Getting to the Answer: Start by finding the percent of the mice in the
study that had a litter of 7 or more pups. Of the 200 mice in the sample,
25 + 14 + 5 = 44 had a litter of 7 or more pups. This is
 of the mice in the study. Given the same general
conditions (such as living in the same geographic region), you would
expect approximately the same results, so multiply the number of female
mice in the whole population by the percent you found: 35,000 × 0.22 =
7,700.
24. C
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: You’ll need to interpret the information given in the
question to write two ordered pairs. Then you can use the ordered pairs
to find the slope and the y-intercept of the linear model.
Getting to the Answer: In an ordered pair, the independent variable is
always written first. Here, the heart rate depends on the amount of
exercise, so the ordered pairs should be written in the form (time, heart
rate). They are (8, 90) and (20, 117). Use these points in the slope
formula,  , to find that  . Then,
substitute the slope (2.25) and either of the points into slope-intercept
form and simply to find the y-intercept:
Finally, write the equation using the slope and the y-intercept that you
found to get r  = 2.25 t  + 72. Note that the only choice with a slope of
2.25 is (C), so you could have eliminated the other three choices before
finding the y-intercept and saved yourself a bit of time.
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25. A
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: The formula for finding the area of a trapezoid is
. This particular formula is not given on the formula
page; memorizing it prior to Test Day will save you a bit of time (rather
than having to find the sum of the areas of the triangles and the rectangle
that make up the trapezoid).
Getting to the Answer: You could pick numbers to represent the
lengths of the bases and height, and then find the area of the trapezoid
before and after the indicated changes. Or, you might happen to notice
that reducing the height by 75% means the new height is  of the
original height, which is likely to cancel nicely with the 4 that the bases
are being multiplied by. Using the second strategy, the formula for the
area of the new trapezoid becomes .
If you factor 4 out of the bases, you can cancel it with the 4 in the
denominator of the new height: .
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The resulting equation is , the same as the original
equation, which means the area has not changed, and therefore the
percent increase is 0%.
26. C
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Pay careful attention to what the question tells you
about the variables. The x-value is the number of payments already
made, and the y-value is the amount of debt remaining (not how much
has been paid).
Getting to the Answer: If a solution is (21, 560), the x-value is 21,
which means Chantal has made 21 payments already. The y-value is
560, which means $560 is the amount of debt left to be paid, making (C)
correct.
27. D
Difficulty: Hard
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Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Scatterplots
Strategic Advice: A line that “represents the trend of the data” is
another way of saying line of best fit.
Getting to the Answer: The trend of the data is clearly linear because
the path of the dots does not turn around or curve, so draw a line of best
fit on the graph. Remember, about half of the points should be above the
line and half below.
If you draw your line of best fit all the way to the y-axis, you’ll save
yourself a step by simply looking at the scatterplot to find the y-
intercept. For this graph, it’s about 35. This means you can eliminate
choices B and C. Next, find the approximate slope using two points that
lie on (or very close to) the line. You can use the y-intercept, (0, 35), as
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one of them to save time and estimate the second, such as (72, 4). Use
the slope formula to find the slope:
The equation that has the closest slope and y-intercept is (D). (Note that
if you choose different points, your line may have a slightly different
slope or y-intercept, but the answer choices will be far enough apart that
you should be able to determine which is the best fit to the data.)
28. B
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Functions
Strategic Advice: Transformations that are grouped with the x in a
function shift the graph horizontally and, therefore, affect the x-
coordinates of points on the graph. Transformations that are not grouped
with the x shift the graph vertically and, therefore, affect the y-
coordinates of points on the graph. Remember, horizontal shifts are
always backward of what they look like.
Getting to the Answer: Start with ( x  + 3). This shifts the graph left 3,
so subtract 3 from the x-coordinate of the given point: (5, 1) → (5 – 3,
1) = (2, 1). Next, apply the negative in front of f, which is not grouped
with the x, so it makes the y-coordinate negative: (2, 1) → (2, –1).
Finally, – 2 is not grouped with x, so subtract 2 from the y-coordinate:
(2, –1 – 2) → (2, –3).
29. C
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Draw a chart or diagram detailing the various price
reductions for each 30 days.
Getting to the Answer:
Date % of Most Recent Price Resulting Price
Jan. 15 100 – 25% = 75% $1,500 × 0.75 = $1,125
Feb. 15 100 – 10% = 90% $1,125 × 0.9 = $1,012.50
Mar. 15 100 – 10% = 90% $1,012.50 × 0.9 = $911.25
You can stop here because the refrigerator was sold on April 2, which is
not 30 days after March 15. The final selling price was $911.25.
30. A
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Organize information as you read the question. Here,
you’ll definitely want to draw and label a sketch.
Getting to the Answer:
The lower level, the vertical distance between levels, and the diagonal
elevator track form a 30-60-90 triangle, where the elevator track is the
hypotenuse. The vertical distance is opposite the 30° angle so it is the
shortest leg. The rules for 30-60-90 triangles state that the shortest leg is
half the length of the hypotenuse, so the vertical distance between levels
is approximately 170 ÷ 2 = 85 feet.
31. 22
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Heart of Algebra / Inequalities
Strategic Advice: Choose the best strategy to answer the question.
Here, the fractions make it look more complicated than it really is, so
start by clearing the fractions by multiplying everything by 20.
Getting to the Answer: You don’t need to separate this compound
inequality into pieces. Just remember, whatever you do to one piece, you
must do to all three pieces. Don’t forget to flip the inequality symbols if
you multiply or divide by a negative number.
The question asks for the maximum possible whole number value of a,
so the correct answer is 22.
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32. 1/6 or .166 or .167
Difficulty: Easy
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Statistics and
Probability
Strategic Advice: This question requires concentration, but no
complicated calculations. First, you need to identify the rows that
contain information about the seating on the 777s, which are the bottom
two rows.
Getting to the Answer: To find the probability that the seat is a
Business Class seat, find the total number of seats in that category (in
only the bottom two rows), and divide by the total number of seats on
the planes (in only the bottom two rows):
Grid in your answer as 1/6 or .166 or .167.
33. 440
Difficulty: Medium
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Category: Heart of Algebra / Systems of Linear Equations
Strategic Advice: Translate from English into math to write a system of
equations with t = the cost of the tankless heater in dollars, and c = the
cost of the conventional heater in dollars.
Getting to the Answer: First, a tankless heater (t) costs $160 more
(+160) than twice as much (2c) as the conventional one, or t = 2c + 160.
Together, a tankless heater (t) and a conventional heater (c) cost $1,000,
or t + c = 1,000. The system is:
The top equation is already solved for t, so substitute 2c + 160 into the
second equation for t and solve for c:
Be careful—that’s not the answer! The conventional hot water heater
costs $280, so the tankless heater costs 2(280) + 160 = $720. This
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means the tankless heater costs $720 – $280 = $440 more than the
conventional heater.
34. 25
Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: The key to answering this question is reading
carefully—the word “exactly” is very important because it tells you that
there cannot be a portion of a patient, so you are looking for the smallest
whole number of which 48% is also a whole number.
Getting to the Answer: Every percent can be written as a number over
100 (because per cent means per hundred), so start by writing 48% as a
fraction and reducing it: . The denominator of this fraction
(25) gives the least possible number of patients who could have
participated in the trial because it is the first number that will cancel
when multiplied by the fraction.
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35. 9984
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Additional Topics in Math / Geometry
Strategic Advice: Don’t be too quick to answer a question like this.
You can’t simply find two-thirds of the volume of the pyramid because
the top is considerably smaller than the bottom. Instead, you’ll need to
find the volume of the whole pyramid and subtract the volume of the top
piece that is being discarded.
Getting to the Answer: The figure shows a right triangle inside the
pyramid. The bottom leg is given as 18 and the slant height, or
hypotenuse of the triangle, is given as 30. You might recognize this as a
multiple of the Pythagorean triplet, 3-4-5, which is in this case 18-24-
30. This means the height of the original pyramid is 24. You now have
enough information to find the volume of the original pyramid.
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To determine the dimensions of the top piece that is cut off, use similar
triangles.
One-third of the original height is 24 ÷ 3 = 8, resulting in a 6-8-10
triangle, making the length of the smaller leg 6, which means the length
of the whole cutoff pyramid is 6 × 2 = 12. Substitute this into the
formula for volume again.
Thus, the volume of the frustum is 10,368 – 384 = 9,984 cubic meters.
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36. 88
Difficulty: Hard
Category: Passport to Advanced Math / Exponents
Strategic Advice: When you’re asked to solve an equation that has two
variables, the question usually gives you the value of one of the
variables. Read carefully to see which variable is given and which one
you’re solving for.
Getting to the Answer: You are given the diameter (0.12), so substitute
this value for d in the equation and then solve for the other variable, h.
Before dealing with the radical, divide both sides of the equation by
0.015.
37. 252
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Difficulty: Medium
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: Break the question into steps. First, find how long it
took Daniel to spray one lawn, and then use that amount to find how long
it took him to spray all the lawns.
Getting to the Answer: According to the figure, he started the first
house at 9:00 and the sixth house at 10:00, so it took him 1 hour, or 60
minutes, to spray 5 houses. This gives a unit rate of 60 ÷ 5 = 12 minutes
per house. Count the houses in the figure—there are 21. Multiply the unit
rate by the number of houses to get 12 × 21 = 252 minutes to spray all
the lawns.
38. 4
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Difficulty: Hard
Category: Problem Solving and Data Analysis / Rates, Ratios,
Proportions, and Percentages
Strategic Advice: This part of the question contains several steps.
Think about the units given in the question and what you need to convert
so that you can get to the answer.
Getting to the Answer: The total acreage of all the lawns in the
neighborhood is 21 × 0.2 = 4.2 acres. This is equivalent to 4.2 × 43,560
= 182,952 square feet. Each gallon of spray covers 2,500 square feet so
divide to find that Daniel needs 182,952 ÷ 2,500 = 73.1808 gallons to
spray all the lawns. The spray rig holds 20 gallons, so Daniel will need
to fill it 4 times. After he fills it the fourth time and finishes all the
lawns, there will be some spray left over.
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SAT PRACTICE TEST 8
Answers and Explanations
ESSAY TEST
1. ESSAY TEST RUBRIC
The Essay Demonstrates …
4—Advanced (Reading) A strong ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and effectively use
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the
source text.
(Analysis) A strong ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make good use of relevant,
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3—Proficient
sufficient, and strategically chosen support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus consistently on features of the source text that
are most relevant to addressing the task.
(Writing) A strong ability to provide a precise
central claim; create an effective organization that
includes an introduction and conclusion, as well as a
clear progression of ideas; successfully employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain a formal style and objective tone;
and show command of the conventions of standard
written English so that the essay is free of errors.
(Reading) Satisfactory ability to comprehend the
source text, including its central ideas and important
details and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Satisfactory ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
student’s own choosing; make use of relevant and
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2—Partial
sufficient support for the claims or points made in
the student’s essay; and focus primarily on features
of the source text that are most relevant to
addressing the task.
(Writing) Satisfactory ability to provide a central
claim; create an organization that includes an
introduction and conclusion, as well as a clear
progression of ideas; employ a variety of sentence
structures; use precise word choice; maintain an
appropriate formal style and objective tone; and
show control of the conventions of standard written
English so that the essay is free of significant errors.
(Reading) Limited ability to comprehend the source
text, including its central ideas and important details
and how they interrelate; and use evidence
(quotations, paraphrases, or both) from the source
text.
(Analysis) Limited ability to evaluate the author’s
use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic and
persuasive elements, and/or other features of the
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1—Inadequate
student’s own choosing; make use of support for the
claims or points made in the student’s essay; and
focus on relevant features of the source text.
(Writing) Limited ability to provide a central claim;
create an effective organization for ideas; employ a
variety of sentence structures; use precise word
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in certain errors that detract
from the quality of the writing.
(Reading) Little or no ability to comprehend the
source text or use evidence from the source text.
(Analysis) Little or no ability to evaluate the
author’s use of evidence, reasoning, and/or stylistic
and persuasive elements; choose support for claims
or points; or focus on relevant features of the source
text.
(Writing) Little or no ability to provide a central
claim, organization, or progression of ideas; employ
a variety of sentence structures; use precise word
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Essay Response #1 (Advanced Score)
In “The Human Side of Animals,” Royal Dixon makes the argument that
animals are complex beings with thoughts and feelings that deserve the
same respect as humans. When Dixon first makes his argument, he
probably realizes that he faces an uphill climb. Most people are meat-
eaters, and it is likely that much of Dixon’s audience consists of people
whose lifestyle depends on the domination and consumption of animals.
In order to build a strong argument in the face of such opposition, Dixon
effectively uses persuasive techniques that include emotional language
and imagery, appeals to his audience’s intelligence, and persuasive
reasoning and evidence.
Dixon uses emotionally laden language and imagery to persuade his
audience of the humanity of animals. First, he conjures the heartwarming
image of “young lambs playing on a grassy hillside,” only to give his
audience an unpleasant jolt when he abruptly turns the lambs into cold,
impersonal “mutton.” Dixon uses a similarly emotional image later in
choice; maintain an appropriate style and tone; or
show command of the conventions of standard
written English, resulting in numerous errors that
undermine the quality of the writing.
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the passage when he describes cows “[bellowing] for days when
mourning for their dead.” By including these powerful images that are
likely to upset people, Dixon makes it difficult for his audience to
maintain the position that humans should have no feeling for animals.
Dixon also uses appeals to his audience’s intelligence to sway them to
his side. In the first paragraph, he asks the rhetorical question, “Why
should we fall into the colossal ignorance and conceit of cataloging
every human-like action of animals [as] instinct?” By associating
disrespect of animals with ignorance, Dixon leads his audience, who
wants to feel intelligent, into agreeing with his views. In the second
paragraph, Dixon uses the analogies of fascism and primitive religion to
compare dominion over animals to other misguided ideas. Later, he
labels the views of the average scientist as ignorant and “empty,”
encouraging his audience to align themselves with his views instead.
Dixon, however, relies on more than just stylistic elements and
emotional appeals to make his case. He also uses persuasive reasoning
and evidence to support his point that animals are worthy of the same
respect as humans. To critics who would argue that animals’ abilities
are due to instinct and neurological impulses, Dixon counters that
humans, too, are ruled by the same forces, and yet we allow a level of
compassion and feeling for humans that we deny to animals. He also
makes the point that physically, humans and animals are very similar to
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each other, and in fact, animals are physically superior to humans in
most cases. The major difference, he says, is that we have a superior
intellect. By pointing out how much we have in common with animals,
Dixon removes the barrier between us and them, making it harder for his
opposition to argue that animals have neither intellect nor feeling.
He continues this line of reasoning by pointing out that human and
animal behaviors are similar, and that “man has been imitating the
animals” by flying, tunneling, and exploring Earth’s waters. Dixon uses
a variety of examples to provide evidence for his case: animals
organizing themselves against enemies, building shelter, storing food,
and making and using tools, just like humans. He also cites animal
communication as a marker of intelligence and different emotional
states, even if humans don’t understand what they are hearing. An
especially vivid piece of evidence is the example of a dreaming war
horse who “lives over and over his battles,” just as humans re-live their
exploits in their dreams. Time and again, Dixon proves humans and
animals share common experiences, and are therefore worthy of mutual
respect.
By presenting the evidence of commonalities between humans and
animals, as well as evidence of animals’ feeling and intellect, Dixon
makes an effective case that we should cease our dominion over them.
He bolsters his case with appeals to his audience’s intelligence and
2493
emotional imagery, both of which make his audience less resistant to his
claims. While Dixon may not persuade every member of his audience
that animals are worthy of respect, his use of these features makes his
argument much more effective than it would be without them.
Essay Response #2 (Proficient Score)
Royal Dixon makes the argument in “The Human Side of Animals” that
animals and humans should be treated with the same respect. He uses
appeals to emotion, rhetorical questions, and evidence of animals’
thoughts and feelings to make his case.
Knowing that most people who eat meat would disagree with his claims,
Dixon uses emotional language to break down their resistance. It is hard
to argue that animals have no feelings when Dixon describes cows
mourning for days for their dead. Dixon gives other examples of animals
having strong emotions, like when a war horse acts out its former battles
in its sleep. These examples remind people of themselves; which is
Dixon’s goal: to break down the barriers between animals and humans.
He also uses rhetorical questions to persuade his audience to agree with
ideas that may be new to them. In the first paragraph he asks, “If you
agree that we cannot treat men like machines, why should we put
animals in that class?” Since most people would agree with the first part
2494
of the statement, they are more likely to agree with the second part as
well. The next rhetorical question in the paragraph asks people if they
want to “fall into the colossal ignorance” of thinking that all animal
behavior is due to instinct, the answer is obviously no. By carefully
constructing these questions, Dixon puts his audience in a position in
which they will be more likely to agree with his claims.
For readers who still may doubt that animals and humans have much in
common, Dixon offers many examples of how animal behavior is like
human behavior. Animals build shelter, make tools, and do other things
that are just like the things humans do. With these examples, and others,
Dixon shows that animals and humans are so similar that it makes no
sense for one to dominate the other. In fact, he points out, some animal
abilities are superhuman, like their ability to predict the weather. By
giving examples of animals’ traits and abilities that are similar to and
even better than ours, Dixon causes the audience to feel respect for
animals.
In conclusion, Dixon uses different ways of getting his audience to agree
that animals are worthy of respect in “The Human Side of Animals.”
The use of emotional appeals, rhetorical questions, and evidence of
animals’ “humanity” helps him to persuade an audience that may be
resistent at first to hearing his ideas.
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Remarks
* alpenstocks: strong pointed poles used by mountain climbers
2498
目录
Title Page 2
Practice Makes Perfect 8
Practice Tests 31
SAT Practice Test 1 31
Answer Sheet 31
Reading Test 35
Writing and Language Test 76
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 110
Math Test: Calculator Section 128
Essay Test 160
Reading Test: Answer Key 167
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 170
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 173
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 176
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 179
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 221
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 262
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 285
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 329
SAT Practice Test 2 337
Answer Sheet 337
Reading Test 341
Writing and Language Test 383
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 416
Math Test: Calculator Section 438
Essay Test 471
Reading Test: Answer Key 479
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 482
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 485
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 488
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 491
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Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 540
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 580
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 603
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 651
SAT Practice Test 3 661
Answer Sheet 661
Reading Test 665
Writing and Language Test 708
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 742
Math Test: Calculator Section 758
Essay Test 792
Reading Test: Answer Key 799
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 802
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 805
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 808
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 811
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 859
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 898
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 923
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 967
SAT Practice Test 4 976
Answer Sheet 976
Reading Test 980
Writing and Language Test 1023
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 1056
Math Test: Calculator Section 1074
Essay Test 1106
Reading Test: Answer Key 1113
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 1116
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 1119
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 1122
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 1125
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 1171
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1212
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Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1237
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 1282
SAT Practice Test 5 1293
Answer Sheet 1293
Reading Test 1297
Writing and Language Test 1341
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 1374
Math Test: Calculator Section 1392
Essay Test 1423
Reading Test: Answer Key 1429
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 1432
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 1435
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 1438
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 1441
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 1483
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1515
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1540
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 1581
SAT Practice Test 6 1589
Answer Sheet 1589
Reading Test 1593
Writing and Language Test 1636
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 1665
Math Test: Calculator Section 1682
Essay Test 1712
Reading Test: Answer Key 1718
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 1721
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 1724
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 1727
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 1730
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 1775
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1813
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 1836
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 1879
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SAT Practice Test 7 1889
Answer Sheet 1889
Reading Test 1893
Writing and Language Test 1940
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 1969
Math Test: Calculator Section 1986
Essay Test 2017
Reading Test: Answer Key 2024
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 2027
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 2030
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 2033
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 2036
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 2082
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 2119
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 2144
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 2189
SAT Practice Test 8 2199
Answer Sheet 2199
Reading Test 2203
Writing and Language Test 2245
Math Test: No-Calculator Section 2276
Math Test: Calculator Section 2294
Essay Test 2327
Reading Test: Answer Key 2334
Writing and Language Test: Answer Key 2337
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answer Key 2340
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answer Key 2343
Reading Test: Answers and Explanations 2346
Writing and Language Test: Answers and Explanations 2390
Math Test: No-Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 2425
Math Test: Calculator Section: Answers and Explanations 2447
Essay Test: Answers and Explanations 2487
About This Book 2497
Copyright Information 2497
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